Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NURS 5334 > Module 9 > Flashcards

Module 9 Flashcards

1
Q

Side effects associated with topical glucocorticoids used for acne include (choose all that apply):

a) thinning of skin
b) hypotrichosis (hair loss)
c) telangiecasia (spider veins)
d) diarrhea
e) local irritation

A

Answer: a) thinning of skin and c)telangiecasia

Other side effects include: stretch marks, purpura, hypertrichosis (hair growth), and possible systemic toxicity (adrenal suppression, growth retardation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Systemic side effects seen with glucocorticoid use in acne include:

a) hypotension
b) blood dyscrasias
c) growth retardation
d) hepatotoxicity

A

Answer: c) growth retardation

Growth retardation can be seen in kids. Other systemic SE include adrenal suppression. These are seen more with higher doses/long-term treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

First line topical acne treatment is ______ and second line topical acne treatment is ________.

A

Answer:

1st line topical: benzoyl peroxide
2nd line topical: antibiotics (Clindamycin and erythromycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Most topical agents for acne are targeting what organism?

A

P. acnes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the MOA of benzoyl peroxide (choose all that apply)

a) kills bacteria
b) creates a barrier which decreases the environment suitable for bacterial proliferation
c) keratolytic
d) dries the skin which decreases nutrients needed for P. acnes
e) reduces inflammation

A

Answer: a) kills bacteria & c) keratolytic (thins/softens the skin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

True or false, monotherapy with Clindamycin or Erythromycin can increase resistance in P. acnes?

A

True. These are usually combined with benzoyl peroxide to decrease the resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the MOA of retinoids?

a) kills bacteria
b) creates a barrier which decreases the environment suitable for bacterial proliferation
c) keratolytic
d) dries the skin which decreases nutrients needed for P. acnes
e) reduces inflammation

A

Answer: e) reduces inflammation

Retinoids also unplug comedones and prevent new; they will improve the penetration of other topical agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following statements are inaccurate regarding retinoids?

a) sunscreen must be used while using these drugs
b) can make acne worse initially
c) can be used without regard to pregnancy
d) irritation can last up to 4 weeks
e) require a pregnancy test before initiation

A

Answer: c & e

Retinoids CANNOT be used in pregnancy but they do not require a pregnancy test before treatment initiation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which retinoid can not only be used for acne & wrinkles, but can also be used for psoriasis?

a) tretinoin
b) adapalene (Differin)
c) tazarotene (Avage/Tazorac)
d) retinoid acid

A

Answer: c) tazarotene (Avage/Tazorac)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Azelaic acid (Azelex/Finacea) can be used to treat (choose all that apply):

a) hormonal acne
b) psoriasis
c) acne
d) actinic keratosis
e) rosacea

A

Answer: c)acne and e)rosacea

It works by suppressing P. acnes and decreasing keratinocytes (thins skin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Keratolytic drugs work by _____.

A

Decreasing keratinocytes which thin the skin. Drugs used in this group include azelaic acid (Azelex/Finacea) and salicylic acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which oral antibiotics used for acne has resistance been associated with (choose all that apply)?

a) doxycycline
b) clindamycin
c) tetracycline
d) erythromycin

A

Answer: c) tetracycline & d)erythromycin

They can be used orally but are not first line due to the emergence of resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If a patient needs oral antibiotics for acne but cannot take tetracycline, what is a suitable alternative?

a) pencillin
b) ciprofloxacin
c) azithromycin
d) metronizadole

A

Answer: c) azithromycin

Remember that oral tetracycline and erythromycin are 2nd line oral options due to resistance seen in these drugs used for acne treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which drug requires the iPledge agreement?

a) retinoids
b) isotretinoin
c) denosumab
d) permethrin

A

Answer: b)isotretinoin

This agreement is between the pharmacist, provider, and patient due the severe side effect profile this drug carries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What drugs can increase the adverse effects of isotretinoin (choose all that apply)?

a) warfarin
b) vitamin A
c) amoxicillin
d) theophylline
e) tetracyclines

A

Answer: b) vitamin A and e)tetracyclines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which is not an adverse effect of isotretinoin (choose all that apply)?

a) photosensitivity
b) depression
c) bone fractures
d) impaired hearing
e) hepatitis

A

Answer: e) hepatitis

Other severe SE: pancreatitis, elevated triglycerides, teratogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which is not a mild SE of of isotretinoin (choose all that apply)?

a) hair loss
b) headache
c) ocular inflammation
d) constipation
e) nosebleeds

A

Answer: d) constipation

Other mild SE include: drying, rash, skin peeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

True or false, when combination oral contraceptives are used for acne, the benefits are derived from the progestin?

A

False. Benefits are derived from the estrogen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Hormonal options for acne control include (choose all that apply):

a) combination OCs
b) IUD
c) spironolactone
d) Depot injections

A

Answer: a) combination OCs (ortho tri-cyclen, YAZ, Beyaz, estrostep) & c) spironolactone (used if OC inadequate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Side effects of spironolactone include (choose all that apply):

a) hyperkalemia
b) teratogen
c) depression
d) lymphoma

A

Ansewr: a) hyperkalemia and b)teratogen

Other SE: menstrual irregularities and breast tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Suncreens provide protection from UVA or UVB primarily?

A

Answer: UVB

UVB is responsible for tanning/sunburn even though UVA penetrates deeper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Broad spectrum sunscreen covers UVA & UVB but must contain what ingredient in order to achieve this?

a) titanium oxide
b) dapsone
c) avobenzone
d) zinc

A

Answer: c) avobenzone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which medication does not increase photosensitivity?

a) aldendronate
b) TCA
c) sulfonamides
d) phenothiazine

A

Answer: a) aldendronate (Fosamax)

Drugs which increase photosensitivity include: TCA, sulfonamides, sulfonylureas, phenothiazine, TETRACYCLINE, FLUOROQUINOLONES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Organic sunscreens are _____ (physical/chemical) barriers, whereas inorganic sunscreens are ______ (physical/chemical) barriers.

A

Organic=chemical barrier

Inorganic=physical barrier (zinc and titanium oxide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

SPF indicates the amount of protection against _____(UVA/UVB)?

A

Answer: UVB

SPF is the amount of protection against UVB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Dapsone (Aczone) can be used to modestly improve acne and can also be used in what other diagnosis?

a) Paget’s
b) veneral warts
c) leprosy
d) actinic keratosis

A

Answer: c) leprosy

The MOA of Dapsone is unknown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

First line treatment of psoriasis would be:

a) vitamin A derivatives
b) vitamin D analogs
c) ointment
d) topical glucocorticoids

A

Answer: d) topical glucocorticoids

They are anti-inflammatory. Note that moderate-to-high strength needed due to plaque resistance to steroids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Calcipotriene can be used to treat:

a) osteoporosis
b) Paget’s
c) psoriasis
d) leprosy

A

Answer: c) psoriasis

It is a vitamin D analog used topically in psoriasis. It suppresses lymphocyte activity. It can be used long term.

29
Q

Which is not a treatment for psoriasis:

a) immunosuppressants
b) vitamin D analogs (Calcipotriene)
c) Anthralin
d) tar

A

Answer: all of these are used for psoriasis

30
Q

Which drug has the side effect of staining skin and clothes?

a) Zetar
b) Methotrexate
c) Risedronate
d) Anthralin

A

Answer: d) Anthralin

It is used topically for psoriasis

31
Q

Which are systemic drugs used to treat psoriasis (choose all that apply)?

a) Zetar
b) Methotrexate
c) Entancercept
d) Anthralin

A

Answer: b) methotrexate & c) entancercept

Zetar (tar) and Anthralin are used topically

32
Q

Procedures to treat psoriasis include:

a) tanning beds
b) cryotherapy
c) photochemotherapy
d) podophyllin

A

Answer: c) photochemotherapy with a UVB light

Will produce long lasting remission (2-4 months)

Sometimes tar is used as an adjunct to the light.

33
Q

True or false, 50% of all skin cancers start as actinic keratosis?

A

True.

These are rough scaly brownish-red papules which develop due to chronic sun exposure.

34
Q

Which is not a treatment for actinic keratosis?

a) tacrolimus
b) fluorouracil
c) diclofenac sodium
d) imiquimod

A

Answer: a) tacrolimus

Tacrolimus is used for eczema.

Other treatments for AK are aminolaevulinic acid+blue light and crytotherapy.

35
Q

What condition is commonly seen in patients with eczema?

a) AKs
b) asthma
c) arthritis
d) absorption disorders (Celiac, Crohn’s)

A

Answer: b) asthma

36
Q

What is considered first line treatment for eczema (atopic dermatitis)?

a) glucocorticoids (oral)
b) immunosuppressants
c) antihistamines
d) moisturizers

A

Answer: d) moisturizers and TOPICAL glucocorticoids

Key is to keep area moist.

2nd line agents: ORAL glucocorticoids

37
Q

If moisturizers+topical glucorticoids & oral glucocorticoids are not successful in treating eczema, what is the next step?

a) higher dose glucocorticoids
b) immunosuppressants
c) antihistamines
d) monoclonial antibodies

A

Answer: b) immunosuppressants

These are 3rd line agents in eczema. These include tacrolimus & pimecrolimus

38
Q

Tacrolimus (an immunosuppressant) used in eczema carries what side effects?

a) blood dyscrasias
b) cancer
c) hepatoxicity
d) P450 substrate

A

Answer: b) cancer

Other SE: lymphoma

These drugs work by blocking calcineurin

39
Q

True or false, venereal warts can be eliminated with adequate treatment.

A

False. Neither drugs nor physical measures will eliminate the virus.

40
Q

Podophyllin is used to treat venereal warts. What side effects does this drug carry (choose all that apply)?

a) highly caustic
b) blood dyscrasias
c) cancer
d) teratogen
e) CNS/PNS neuropathy

A

Answer: a, b, d, e

Podophyllin SE: blood dyscrasias, CNS/PNS neuropathy, teratogen, and kidney damage

Drug resin should be washed off a few hours after application.

41
Q

Bichloracetic acid (BCA) & trichloracetic acid carry what side effects?

a) blood dyscrasias
b) cancer
c) local tissue injury
d) P450 substrate

A

Answer: c) local tissue injury

They are used to treat venereal warts.

42
Q

At home treatments of venereal warts DO NOT include:

a) imiquimod
b) podophyllin
c) podoflox
d) kunecatechins

A

Answer: b) podophyllin

This drug is used IN OFFICE.

43
Q

True or false, kunecatechins are not recommended in HIV patients, immunocompromised, or those with genital herpes.

A

True.

This drug is an at home treatment for venereal warts.

44
Q

Common warts are caused by:

a) HPV 1
b) HPV 8
c) HPV 23
d) HPV 5

A

Answer: a) HPV-1

Also caused by HPV-2 & HPV-3

45
Q

Common warts can be chemically removed by using which of these drugs (choose all that apply):

a) podophyllin
b) imiquimod
c) fluorouracil
d) bichloracetic acid
e) podofilox

A

Answer: a,b,c,e

Chemical removal drugs: salicylic acid, podophyllin, podofilox, imiquimod, trichloroacetic acid, topical fluorouracil

46
Q

Drugs used for both common warts and venereal warts are:

a) podophyllin
b) trichloroacetic acid
c) podofilox
d) imiquimod

A

Answer: all of the above

Imiquimod & podofilox can be used at home.

47
Q

What patient is it appropriate to use Botox with/for?

a) pregnant/breastfeeding patient
b) female aged 55
c) male aged 70
d) patient taking tetracycline
e) M. gravis

A

Answer: b) female aged 55 & d) patient taking tetracycline

Botox should be avoided in the other groups. Those aged 65 will have little benefit from botox. Patients taking other neuromuscular drugs are at risk. Patients taking aminoglycosides should avoid.

48
Q

Patients at risk for a reaction to botox include those who:

a) are allergic to human albumin
b) concurrently taking a neuromuscular blocking drug
c) have a seizure disorder
d) are taking tetracycline antibiotics

A

Answer: a & b

Risks include those allergic to human albumin and concurrently taking a neuromuscular blocking drug or an aminoglycoside.

49
Q

What organism is responsible for impetigo?

a) S. pyogenes
b) P. acnes
c) S. aureus
d) Candida intertrigo

A

Answer: c) staphylococcus aureus

It is common in children aged 2-5 and appears often on the hands/feet/legs

50
Q

Most (70%) of cases of impetigo are _____ (bullous/nonbullous).

A

Answer: nonbullous

It usually is a small macule which evolves into an oozing vesicle (yellow-brown exudate) and dries into a honey-colored crust.

51
Q

First line treatment of impetigo involves:

a) cephalexin orally
b) clindamycin topically
c) Eucerin ointment
d) mupirocin topically

A

Answer: d) mupirocin topically

Other topical option is retapamulin.

2nd line treatments are oral ABX

52
Q

Antibiotics used orally for impetigo include:

a) clindamycin
b) doxycycline
c) cephalexin
d) dicloxacillin

A

Answer: a) clindamycin, c) cephalexin, and d) dicloxacillin

ABX orally:
Cephalexin
Clindamycin
Clavulanate/amoxicillin
DiCloxacCillin
53
Q

The organism responsible for seborrheic dermatitis usually is:

a) Candida Balantis
b) P. acnes
c) S. aureus
d) Candida intertrigo
e) Malassezia

A

Answer: e) Malassezia

It is a yeast microbe which causes scaling of scalp/face

Treatment is topical ketoconazole

54
Q

Which statement is true regarding seborrheic dermatitis (choose all that apply)?

a) initial treatment involves topical ketoconazole
b) initial treatment involves a yeast-suppressing shampoo
c) initial treatment involves terbafine
d) initial treatment involves glucocorticoids

A

Answer: a & d

Initial treatment involves topical ketoconazole but often a concurrent glucocorticoid will be used which accelerates the response.

Remission can be maintained with a yeast-suppressing shampoo (Head & Shoulders; Selsun blue)

55
Q

true or false, tinea capitis usually involves ORAL itraconazole/fluconazole/ or griseofulvin.

A

True. It is poorly responsive to topical treatment.

56
Q

Tinea corporis (ringworm) is usually treated with:

a) itraconazole
b) terbinafine
c) griseofulvin
d) ketoconazole

A

Answer: d) ketoconazole

57
Q

Drugs that increase the risk of osteoporosis include (Check all that apply):

A) Oral combined contraceptives
B) Carbamazepine
C) CCBs
D) High doses of  Vitamin D
E) Glucocorticoids
F) Levothyroxine
A

Answer: B) carbamazepine, E) glucocorticoids, F) levothyroxine

58
Q

SERMs treat osteoporosis by selectively:
A. Inhibiting magnesium resorption in the kidneys
B. Increasing calcium absorption from the GI tract
C. Acting on the bone to inhibit osteoblast activity
D. Selectively acting on the estrogen receptors in the bone

A

Answer: D) selectively acting on the estrogen receptors in the bone

59
Q 
he ongoing monitoring for patients over age 65 taking alendronate or any other bisphosphonate is:
A. Annual  DEXA scans
B. Annual Vitamin D level
C. Annual renal function evaluation
D. Electrolytes every 3 months
A

Answer: C) annual renal function evaluation

60
Q

IV forms of bisphosphonates are used for (Check all that apply):
A. severe gastric irritation with oral forms
B. Known cancer mets to the bone
C. Persons with advancing renal dysfunction
D. Progression of bone loss on oral meds
E. After menopause for prevention of osteoporosis

A

Answer: A, B, D

61
Q

T or F: Both UVA and UVB rays promote damage to DNA and can cause premalignant actinic keratoses, basal cell, squamous cell and melanoma.

A

True

62
Q

Tacrolimus and pimecrolimusare used for atopic dermatitis. What do both carry the potential for:
A. Both can cause skin cancer and lymphoma
B. Both can cause renal failure
C. Both can cause liver failure
D. They have no side effect

A

Answer: A) both can cause skin cancer and lymphoma

63
Q

Which is not considered a low potency topical steroid cream?

a) Desonide 0.05% / Desowen
b) Hydrocortisone 2.5%
c) Triamcinolone Acetonide 0.1%
d) Hydrocortisone 1%

A

Answer: c) Triamcinolone Acetonide is considered medium potency

Both hydrocortisone options are the LOWEST potency available

64
Q

Which is the only drug approved for hair growth in women?

a) finasteide
b) eflornithine
c) selenium sulfide
d) minoxidil

A

Answer: d) minoxidil

Only the 2% solution is approved for women

65
Q

What is the preferred treatment for onchomycosis?

a) itraconazole
b) ketoconazole
c) terbinafine
d) griseofulvin

A

Answer: c) terbinafine

6-12 weeks for fingernails and 3-6 months for toes

66
Q

Treatment options for jock itch include (choose all that apply)?

a) itraconazole
b) ketoconazole
c) terbinafine
d) griseofulvin

A

Answer: a) itraconazole and b) ketoconazole

think alphabetically: “I, J, K”

I&K treat Jock itch

67
Q

Finasteride carries what side effects:

a) reduced ejaculate volume
b) orthostatic hypotension
c) blood dyscrasias
d) teratogen
e) nausea

A

Answer: a,b,d

The drug is used for hair growth and BPH.

Side effects are: decreased libido, ED, impaired ejaculation, reduced ejaculate volume, orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, teratogen

Note: women should not take, or handle broken/crushed drug.

68
Q

What use does eflornithine have?

a) atopic dermatitis
b) increases bone formation
c) facilitates hair removal
d) actinic keratosis

A

Answer: c) facilitates hair removal

Side effect is possible fetal harm

NURS 5334 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions