Referral tests Flashcards

1
Q

What is a direct coombs test

A

Detects the presence of antibodies that are bound to the surface of the body’s RBCs
Used to diagnose immune-mediated hemolytic anemia
A positive test result results in visible agglutination of the RBCs
Canine bench top test kits are available, though usually performed in a reference lab

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2
Q

What is an indirect coombs test

A

Detects free autoantibodies in the patient’s serum
A serum sample is taken from the patient and incubated with RBCs from a normal animal of the same species
If autoantibodies are present, they will bind to the RBCs
Species specific anti-gamma globulin is added to the sample causing agglutination of the RBCs

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3
Q

Immunodiffusions is done how

A

An older technique that is sometimes still used
Patient serum is placed in a well in agar and a known antigen is present in a neighbouring well
A positive test results in a band of precipitation when the patient’s antibodies combine with the test antigen

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4
Q

What is the Fluorescent antibody testing

A

Performed in referral labs
A fluorescent dye tag is used to indicate a positive result
The sample is visualized under a fluorescent microscope
Very specific
Can be used to detect specific antibodies or antigens in a sample

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5
Q

Direct fluorescent antibody testing is

A

An antibody is tagged with a fluorescent dye
The labelled antibody is added to the test slide containing the patient sample
If the patient sample has the antigen, the labelled antibody will bind to the antigen and will be visible using fluorescent microscopy

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6
Q

Indirect fluorescent antibody test is

A

The patient’s sample is added to a slide containing a specific antigen
If the sample has antibodies to the antigen, antigen-antibody complexes are formed
Fluorescent labelled antibodies are added and bind to any patient antibodies that are present

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7
Q

immunohistochemistry is and used for

A

Histology is the science of examining tissues
Histopathology is the science of examining tissues to obtain a diagnosis
Immunohistochemistry uses direct and indirect fluorescent antibody methods to identify certain antigens on the surface of cells
Antigens may identify the type of cell
Antigens may belong to viruses that have infected the cell (ex. distemper)
Antigens may indicate certain diseases (ex. Cancer proteins)

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8
Q

Serum antibody titer are and are testing for

A

Measurement of antibody levels in serum
Can be total antibodies in the serum OR antibodies specific to a certain antigen (ex. Rabies or EIA titers)
Quantitative
Most commonly used to determine if there has been prior exposure to a disease, or if a booster vaccination is required
A serum sample is collected
Serial dilutions of the serum are made
Each dilution is then examined for the presence of the antibody
A high titer indicates an active infection or immunity
A low titer indicates a previous exposure or not enough antibodies to prevent disease
A very low titer can indicate no prior immunity

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9
Q

Molecular diagnostic tests are wht types of test

A

Tests that analyze DNA or RNA
Types of tests include
Testing for bacterial, viral or fungal pathogens
Tests for genetic defects
Genetic tests for pedigree
Tests for DNA and proteins associated with certain cancers and other diseases
Very complex, only performed in reference labs

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10
Q

What are the benefits of a molecular diagnostic test

A

Increased sensitivity
Increased specificity
Requires a very small amount of sample
Fast turnaround time (hours as opposed to days with bacterial cultures)
Less interference from environmental variables

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11
Q

What are the disadvatanges of a molecular diagnostic test

A

Cost, equipment required, risk of contamination, and requires specific technical skills

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12
Q

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is

A

Common molecular diagnostic test
Takes a small amount of DNA and amplifies it until it can be detected

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13
Q

What are the advantages of a PCR

A

Very specific
Tiny sample requirement (a few cells)

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14
Q

What are the disadvantages of a PCR

A

Easily contaminated
The DNA sequence of the target gene must be known

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15
Q

What are the steps of a PCR

A

Denaturation
Annealing
Extension
Amplification
Visualization

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16
Q

What happens during the denaturation of a PCR test

A

The sample containing DNA is heated to separate the double- stranded DNA molecule into two strands
Each strand becomes a template to form new strands of DNA

17
Q

What is the annealing part of a PCR

A

The sample is cooled and “Primers” are added
Primers are short pieces of DNA that bind (anneal) to the beginning and end of the sections of DNA that are to be copied

18
Q

What is the extension/elongation of a PCR test

A

The temperature is raised
DNA polymerase and free nucleotides are added to the sample
This enzyme reads the original strand of DNA and builds onto the primer piece to create a new double-stranded piece of DNA
Now have two complete DNA molecules

19
Q

What is the amplification part of the PCR test

A

Steps 1-3 are repeated 25-30 times until there is enough DNA to work with

20
Q

What is the visualization part of the PCR test

A

The last step of the PCR process is to visualize the DNA that has been amplified
There are many rapid and automated processes for reading the DNA sequence and determining how much DNA was present in the original sample
The sample may be cut into small pieces and run through an agarose gel

21
Q

What are the types of modified PCR test

A

Reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction
Real time PCR

22
Q

What does a Reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction identify

A

Identifies RNA instead of DNA in a sample
The RNA needs to be converted to double stranded DNA before the PCR can performed
RNA samples degrade very easily–storage and handling are critical to ensure test is accurate

23
Q

What is a realtime PCR test

A

Faster, more easily automated, easier to run, less contamination risk
Fluorescent probe is added to the sample mix
The probe attaches to the DNA segments if they are present
If the sample has enough fluorescence, the sample is considered positive