Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Recurrent 2024 > Recurrent Ground School Exam > Flashcards

Recurrent Ground School Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What causes automatic deployment of the oxygen masks?
a) Cabin Altitude above 11,500
b) There is no automatic deployment, flight attendants deploy them manually.
c) Cabin altitude reaching approximately 14,000 feet.
d) After the pilot presses the EMER pushbutton.

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name some of the protections a pilot will have in NORMAL LAW?
a) High Speed Protection
b) Bank Angle Protection up to 67 degrees
c) Load Factor limitations +2.5G/ -1.0G (+2.0G/0.0G) with Flaps/ slats
d) All of the above

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If a pilot over speeds the aircraft and high-speed protection becomes active can the pilot override the protection while in Normal Law?
a. Yes
b. No

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If PACK FLOW is selected LO, NORM, or HIGH and only the APU is providing BLEED AIR, what will be the PACK FLOW rate?
a) LOW flow rate
b) MED flow rate
c) HIGH flow rate

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does the RAT supply?
a) Green Hydraulic system pressure and emergency electric generator
b) Blue Hydraulic system pressure and emergency electric generator
c) Yellow Hydraulic system and emergency electric generator

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When would a pilot select the EXTRACT to OVRD?
a) When directed by the ECAM
b) If COVID-19 was suspected in the cabin
c) Heavy rain on the ground
d) Both A and C

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does the display of T.O. INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT indicate?
a. Most warnings and cautions are inhibited to avoid unnecessary distractions
during critical phases of flight.
b. Aircraft is not configured for landing.
c. Aircraft is not configured for takeoff.
d. Both B. and C.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Operating at speeds above 260 knots, a safety valve shuts off hydraulic power to the landing gear system.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What hydraulic system powers the landing gear and doors?
a. Yellow
b. Blue
c. Green

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

As a Spirit employee or Contract Vendor, your recurrent Hazardous Materials training is required every:
a. 3 years per CFR49, 2 years per the FARs, and 1 year per IATA
b. 1 year per CFR49, 2 years per the FARs
c. 1 year per Spirit company policy
d. 2 years per Spirit company policy

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the function of ALPHA LOCK?
a. Prevents flap extension or retraction during an A. FLOOR event.
b. Inhibits retracting slats from 1 to 0 at high AOA and low airspeed.
c. Applies TOGA thrust to both engines.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When are predictive windshear (WINDSHEAR AHEAD) alerts inhibited?
a. On takeoff above 100 knots and up to 50 feet.
b. Below 100 feet RA
c. During landing below 50 feet.
d. Both A and C

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which hydraulic system supplies nose wheel steering?
a. Green hydraulic system
b. Blue Hydraulic system
c. Yellow Hydraulic system

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

It’s common airbus philosophy that the Airbus cannot stall in NORMAL LAW. However, there are conditions in which it can.
a. TRUE
b. FASLE

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Spirit Airlines policy for shipping COMAT that contains Hazardous Materials?
a. Ship on any Spirit flight
b. We can ship on our aircraft with approval of Flight Operations
c. Ship on a different mode and/or carrier that is approved to carry HAZMAT.
d. Ship on Spirit ferry flights only

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of information does the IR provide?
a. Barometric altitude, overspeed warnings, temperature, AOA
b. Attitude, FPV, track, heading, acceleration, angular rates, ground speed and position.
c. AOA info, temperature, heading, barometric altitude.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does selecting the DITCHING pushbutton ON accomplish?
a. Notifies the flight attendants that ditching is imminent
b. Closes the Outflow valve.
c. Arms the Captain and FO’s emergency ejection seats
d. Closes all openings below the waterline.

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In what position do the WING and ENGINE anti ice valves fail if electrical power is lost?
a. Both Wing and Engine valves CLOSE
b. Both Wing and ENGINE valves OPEN
c. Wing CLOSE, Engine OPEN
d. Engine CLOSE, Wing OPEN

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage?
a. 25.3v
b. 25.5v
c. 25.8v
d. 25.6v

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If AC BUS 1 fails, how is the AC ESS bus powered?
a. Automatically from the DC ESS BUS
b. AC BUS 2 automatically feeds AC ESS BUS
c. Pilot manually selects AC ESS BUS

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If the BLUE system lost pressure, the RAT would automatically deploy and restore pressure.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE

A

B

22
Q

How many igniters fire during a normal automatic ground start sequence?
a. FADEC alternates between ignitors A and B every 2 seconds
b. One igniter with the other serving as a backup
c. FADEC uses both igniters A and B simultaneously
d. No igniters are used during Auto start, as the fuel compresses it reaches its kindling point (autoignition temperature) and combusts.

A

B

23
Q

What controls the engine LP fuel valves?
a. ENGINE FIRE pushbutton
b. Thrust lever angle
c. Engine MASTER switch
d. Both A and C.

A

D

24
Q

What would cause an external horn to sound?
a. Brake overtempterature.
b. APU fire.
c. ADIRS alignment

A

B

25
Q

What is the active range of the A/THR system?
a. Just above IDLE to MCT detent (Single Engine)
b. From IDLE to TOGA
c. Just above IDLE to CL detent (both engines)
d. Both A and C.

A

D

26
Q

How is alternate law indicated on the PFD?
a. Amber “USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM” message.
b. Amber Xs and no message on FMA’s.
c. Green double markers

A

B

27
Q

A new Airworthiness release is required:
a. The first flight of each day
b. After a scheduled check/Inspection
c. After any maintenance is complete

A

B

28
Q

A primary focus of CRM / Threat-Error Management (TEM) is:
a. Eliminate the possibility of any errors occurring.
b. Reduce the Likelihood of errors occurring.
c. Manage errors and threats when they occur.
d. Both b and c.

A

D

29
Q

How is MECHANICAL BACKUP indicated on the PFD?
a. Red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”
b. Red Xs (Indicating lack of ALTERNATE LAW protections)
c. Amber Xs (Indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)
d. Both a and c

A

D

30
Q

What is the maximum tailwind component for landing on runways less than 6000 feet?
a. 10 knots
b. 7 knots
c. No limit
d. 5 knots

A

D

31
Q

What is the significance of a flashing FAULT light on the IR?
a. The IR can be fully recovered
b. Navigation function is lost, Attitude and Heading may be recovered in ATT mode.
c. The IR is receiving and recording multiple faults
d. None of the above.

A

B

32
Q

When would a pilot perform a full alignment?
a. If the IR mode selectors are currently off.
b. First flight of the day
c. If there is a change of Flight Crew.
d. All of the above

A

D

33
Q

Can the WING anti ice be used on the approach and landing?
a. No, second segment climb performance could be affected if a go-around is performed.
b. Yes, but should only be considered in severe icing because second segment climb performance could be affected.
c. Yes, but must be switched off once landing is assured.

A

B

34
Q

Where are the engine fire loops (heat) sensors located?
a. Pylon nacelle
b. Engine core
c. Fan section
d. All of the above

A

D

35
Q

In which of the following scenarios should Engine Anti-Ice be used?
a. Descending through FL 240 in visible moisture, TAT -22, SAT -45
b. Descending through 10,000, visible moisture, TAT 11, SAT 4
c. Climbing through FL195, no visible moisture, TAT -24, SAT -49

A

A

36
Q

Are there any times where the Captain may determine that deicing is not required to remove frost or snow from the aircraft?
a. When he determines another Spirit Airlines aircraft is taking off without deicing.
b. A layer of hoar frost which is thin enough to distinguish surface features underneath, such as paint lines, markings, or lettering is acceptable on the upper surface of the fuselage provided all critical surfaces are free of adhering contaminants.
c. A light coating of frost up to 3 mm thick on wing lower surfaces between the frontand aft spars is permissible. The frost must be free of all ice build-up.
d. Both B and C

A

D

37
Q

If ground deicing/anti-icing is performed, the flaps, slats, and flight controls may be moved:
a. At the normal time.
b. Approximately 5 minutes before takeoff.
c. Approximately 3 minutes before takeoff.
d. Only as directed by the Old Farmers Almanac.

A

C

38
Q

Who is responsible for reviewing the aircraft logbook prior to flight, including deferred maintenance items, to determine the aircraft airworthiness?
A. The Captain
B. The First Officer
C. Maintenance
D. The Captain and First Officer

A

D

39
Q

If weather conditions at the airport of departure are below landing minimums for that airport, the aircraft may not be dispatched unless the release contains a departure alternate airport with the following:
A. Within one (1) hour at normal cruising speed with both engines operative
B. Within one (2) hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative
C. Within two (2) hours at normal cruising speed
D. Within one (1) hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative, dispatch may use 345 NM

A

D

40
Q

With respect to turbulence, on what value does the OFP categorizes shear?
A. Values of 0-3 indicate weak, 4-5 indicate moderate, 6-7 indicate large shear, and 8 or
higher indicate extreme shear
B. Values 0-10
C. Values 1-3 indicating weak, moderate, high
D. Values 1-5

A

A

41
Q

With respect to FAR 117, A Flight Crew Member is limited to how many hours in a 365-day period?
A. 1,200 hours
B. 365 hours
C. 1,000 hours
D. 730 hours

A

C

42
Q

What is the Emergency command given by the Captain in the event an evacuation is required?
A. “EVACUATE THE AIRCRAFT”
B. “UP – UP – AND AWAY”
C. “EVACUATE – EVACUATE – EVACUATE”
D. “LEAVE YOUR BELONGINS AND EXIT THE AIRCRAFT”

A

C

43
Q

What are the different classes of fires?
A. Flammable solid, Flammable liquid, and Electrical fires
B. Medium, big, and small
C. Wood, and Flammable gas
D. Paper products, and Flammable liquids

A

A

44
Q

In the event of Cockpit Crew Member becomes incapacitated, what is the first step for the remaining crew member?
A. Request medical assistance from any medically qualified passenger
B. Contact Flight Attendant via CALLS pb or PA
C. Tighten and manually lock the shoulder harness of incapacitated Crew Member
D. Contact Maintenance

A

B

45
Q

What are the levels of disruptive behavior with respect to categorizing threat?
A. Threat Level 1, 2, 3, and 4
B. Disruptive, unpleasant, and aggressive
C. Threat levels 1 and 2
D. Threat levels 1, 2, and 3

A

A

46
Q

HAZMAT is divided into three types. Which type can Spirit Airlines transport?
A. Forbidden
B. Acceptable
C. Exceptions
D. None of the Above

A

C

47
Q

When operating in RVSM airspace, the Flight Crew shall not allow the aircraft to overshoot or undershoot the assigned FL by more than _______ feet.
a. 150ft.
b. 75 ft.
c. 200 ft.
d. 300 ft.

A

A

48
Q

What must you do should Volcanic Ash be encountered in flight inadvertently?
a. Immediately execute a 180 turn and exit as soon as possible.
b. Report encounter to ATC and Dispatch
c. Write up in the maintenance logbook
d. All of the above

A

D

49
Q

You encounter a runway with 3” of dry snow. What is the Runway Condition Code?
a. 1 – Dirty
b. 2 – Medium to Dirty
c. 3 – Medium
d. 4 – Dry

A

C

50
Q

A flight crew detects thunderstorms by using their weather radar – flight operations policies recommend to (Select all that apply):
a. Overfly the thunderstorm if the flight crew visibly determines it is below their flight path
b. Fly 10 nm to either side of the storm cell
c. Avoid all yellow, red, or magenta areas by at least 20 nm.
d. Enter the storm cell as long as the flight crew slows down to turbulence penetration speed

A

C

Recurrent 2024 (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions