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NPTE > Readings (Days 50-60) & Lectures 16-20 > Flashcards

Readings (Days 50-60) & Lectures 16-20 Flashcards

1
Q

compression of a nerve root

A

radiculopathy

(follows dermatomes)

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2
Q

Disturbance of a single nerve

A

Mononeuropathy

(ex. carpal tunnel, Guyon’s canal)

***Does not follow dermatomes

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3
Q

Median n nerve root

A

C5-T1

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4
Q

Pronator Teres syndrome involves what nerve?

A

Median n

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5
Q

Anterior Interosseous Syndrome involves what nerve?

A

Median n

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6
Q

Which syndrome causes forearm pain but NO sensory symptoms and unable to make OK sign?

A

Anterior Interosseous Syndrome

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7
Q

Compression of the median n under the transverse carpal ligament

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome

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8
Q

Nerve root of Radial n

A

C5-T1

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9
Q

Crutch palsy involves what nerve?

A

Radial n

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10
Q

Nerve roots of Ulnar n

A

C8-T1

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11
Q

Ulnar n entrapment btwn two heads of FCU

A

Cubital tunnel syndrome

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12
Q

Special tests for Cubital Tunnel Syndrome:

1=
2=
3=
4=

A

1= elbow flexion test
2= froment’s sign
3= Wartenberg sign
4= Tinel’s

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13
Q

Ulnar n entrapment btwn hook of hamate and transverse carpal ligament

A

Guyon’s Canal syndrome

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14
Q

Special tests for Guyon’s Canal Syndrome

1=
2=
3=

A

1=Froment’s
2=Wartenberg
3=Tinel’s

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15
Q

A 45 y/o female pt had gradual onset wrist pain which recently increased and NPRS 8/10. Numbness and Tingling in the thumb, index, and middle fingers which increases w typing or holding cell phone and relieved by shaking hands. Reports frequent dropping of objects. Past medical hx of obesity, works as data entry specialist, typing for extended periods daily. Tinel’s sign positive @ wrist, Thenar muscle wasting, grip strength reduced in affected hand.

Which of the following is most likely the source of her problem?

A. C6 nerve root compression
B. AIN syndrome
C. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
D. Pronator Teres Syndrome

A

C

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16
Q

A 45 y/o female pt had gradual onset wrist pain which recently increased and NPRS 8/10. Numbness and Tingling in the thumb, index, and middle fingers which increases w typing or holding cell phone and relieved by shaking hands. Reports frequent dropping of objects. Past medical hx of obesity, works as data entry specialist, typing for extended periods daily. Tinel’s sign positive @ wrist, Thenar muscle wasting, grip strength reduced in affected hand.

Which of the following special tests is most likely to be positive?

A. Fromen’ts Sign
B. Phalen’s Test
C. Wartenberg Sign
D. Finkelstein’s Test

A

B

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17
Q

A 45 y/o female pt had gradual onset wrist pain which recently increased and NPRS 8/10. Numbness and Tingling in the thumb, index, and middle fingers which increases w typing or holding cell phone and relieved by shaking hands. Reports frequent dropping of objects. Past medical hx of obesity, works as data entry specialist, typing for extended periods daily. Tinel’s sign positive @ wrist, Thenar muscle wasting, grip strength reduced in affected hand.

Which of the following would be the BEST initial intervention for the given diagnosis?

A. Ultrasound therapy with a 3 MHz frequency and 0.5 w/cm2 intensity over the volar aspect of the wrist

B. Ulnar and median n glides at the wrist joint

C. Night splint w the wrist maintained in neutral

D. Sustained stretches to the wrist flexors and extensors

A

C

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18
Q

A pt who reports a recent fx of the R proximal fibula, has developed motor and sensory deficits. Which of the following is true?

A. Pt presents w PF weakness and reduced DTR

B. Pt presents w DF weakness and sensory loss on medial aspect of lower leg and R heel

C. Pt presents w invertors weakness and reduced sensation on heel

D. Pt presents w evertors weakness and reduced sensation on the lateral side of the leg and dorsum of foot

A

D

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19
Q

APGAR

A

Appearance
Pulse
Grimace
Activity
Respiration

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20
Q

A newborn is examined at birth using the APGAR screening test. The following observations are made at 5 mins: heart rate 120 bpm, strong crying, grimace with irritability testing, kicking and arm movement are present, and the baby is pink in color throughout the body. The PT should:

A. Monitor the APGAR store again at 10 minutes

B. Expect respiratory complications due to low score on respiration

C. Expect good heart rate, good respiration and normal muscle tone

D. Expect neurological complications due to low score on reflex irritability

A

C

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21
Q

Normal HR for babies when born

A

100-140 bpm

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22
Q

Normal APGAR score

A

8-10
** if 7 or below check at 10 mins

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23
Q

Age in weeks since birth

A

Chronological age

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24
Q

Chronical age - prematurity (from 40 weeks) = _________

A

Corrected or adjusted age

*used up until 2 y/o

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25
Q

Weeks since mother’s last menstruation

A

Gestational age

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26
Q

For a baby born at 28 weeks and who is 20 weeks old….

What is the:

Gestational age= ______
Chronological age= ______
Adjusted Age= ________

A

Gestational age= 48 wks
Chronological age= 20 wks
Adjusted Age= 8 wks

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27
Q

Milestones months 2-3

1.
2.

A
  1. Prone on elbows
  2. Lift head in prone
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28
Q

Milestones Months 3-4

  1. 2.
A
  1. Supine to sidelying
  2. “army crawling” (crawling)
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29
Q

Milestones 4-5 months

1.
2.
3.
4.

A
  1. Prone to supine
  2. Pull to sit (w/o head lag)
  3. Sitting w UE support
  4. Feet to mouth
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30
Q

Milestones months 6-7

1.
2.
3.
4.

A
  1. Supine to prone
  2. Quad
  3. Ind Sitting
  4. Trunk rot in sitting
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31
Q

Milestones 8-9 months

  3. 4.
A
  1. Quad creeping/ sit from quad
  2. Cruises sideways
  3. Stand alone
  4. Grasping skills
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32
Q

Milestones months 10-15

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

A
  1. Walk unassisted
  2. Transition in/out of squat
  3. Floor to stand
  4. Pincer grasp
  5. Stack 2 cubes
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33
Q

PEDS poem

A

3 I lift my head
4 Lay on my side
5 prone to supine
And 6 I sit upright

7 quadruped
And at 8 I take a cruise
I creep and stand alone at 9
Then walk and stack two cubes

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34
Q

3 I lift my head
4 Lay on my side
5 _____ to ____
And 6 I sit _______

7 __________
And at 8 I take a cruise
I creep and stand alone at 9
Then _____ and stack two cubes

A

3 I lift my head
4 Lay on my side
5 prone to supine
And 6 I sit upright

7 quadruped
And at 8 I take a cruise
I creep and stand alone at 9
Then walk and stack two cubes

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35
Q

A 10 month old baby with plagiocephaly and uncomplicated birth. Has had normal developmental milestones according to mom. He can sit unsupported and transition prone to supine unassisted, but is unable to perform supine to prone and sit to quad unsupported. Pt is able to pull to stand and maintain standing, ambulates less than 10 steps, L plagiocephaly moderate, and complaint with helmet use.

Which of the following positions is LEAST expected during gait in this child?

A. High guard position of arms
B. Abd and IR of hips
C. Hips and knees slightly flexed
D. Pronated feet

A

B

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36
Q

A 10 month old baby with plagiocephaly and uncomplicated birth. Has had normal developmental milestones according to mom. He can sit unsupported and transition prone to supine unassisted, but is unable to perform supine to prone and sit to quad unsupported. Pt is able to pull to stand and maintain standing, ambulates less than 10 steps, L plagiocephaly moderate, and complaint with helmet use.

Which of the following types of grasp would be LEAST expected in this pt when attempting to pick up a crayon?

A. Pincer grasp
B. Palmar grasp
C. Three jaw chuck grasp
D. Scissors grasp

A

B

** should be integrated by 6 months

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37
Q

A 10 month old baby with plagiocephaly and uncomplicated birth. Has had normal developmental milestones according to mom. He can sit unsupported and transition prone to supine unassisted, but is unable to perform supine to prone and sit to quad unsupported. Pt is able to pull to stand and maintain standing, ambulates less than 10 steps, L plagiocephaly moderate, and complaint with helmet use.

Which of the following is MOST likely to be true in regard to the pt’s reflex development and ability to transition positions?

A. Pt has a persistent ATNR reflex
B. Pt has an integrated ATNR reflex
C. Pt has a persistent STNR reflex
D. Pt has a persistent TLR reflex

A

A (*** should be integrated by 6 months)

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38
Q

When the reflex disappears to allow for normal development

A

Integrated reflex

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39
Q

A reflex that has not integrated and indicative of central nervous system dysfunction

A

Persistent reflex

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40
Q

The flexor withdrawal reflex

Stimulus: Noxious stimulus (pinprick) to sole of foot

Response: Toes ext, foot DF, LE flex

Integrates: ______

A

1-2 months

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41
Q

Crossed Extension Reflex

Stimulus: Noxious stimulus to ball of foot of LE in extension

Response: Opposite LE flexes, add, ext

Integrates:_______

A

1-2 months

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42
Q

Rooting Reflex

Stimulus: Stoke side of baby’s cheek

Response: Head turns towards stimulus and mouth opens

Integrates: ______

A

3 months

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43
Q

Traction Reflex

Stimulus: Grasp forearm and pull up from supine into sitting position

Response: Grasp and total flexion of UE

Integration: ______

A

2-5 months

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44
Q

Asymmetrical Tonic Neck Reflex (ATNR)

Stimulus: Rotation of head to one side

Response: bow and arrow posture

Integration ______

A

4-6 months

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45
Q

Palmar Grasp Reflex

Stimulus: Maintained pressure to palm of hand

Response: Maintained flexion of fingers

Integration: ______

A

4-6 months

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46
Q

Moro Reflex

Stimulus: Drop pt backward from sitting position

Response: Ext, abd UEs, hand opening, crying, followed by flex, add of arms across chest

Integration: ______

A

5-6 months

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47
Q

Symmetrical Tonic Labyrinthine Reflex

Stimulus: Prone or supine

Response: Prone- inc flex tone of limbs (calendar baby)

Supine - inc ext tone of limbs (starfish)

Integration: ______

A

6 months

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48
Q

Positive Supporting Reflex

Stimulus: Contact to ball of foot in upright standing

Response: Rigid ext of LEs

Integration:______

A

6 months

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49
Q

Plantar Grasp Reflex

Stimulus: Maintained pressure to ball of foot under toes

Response: Maintained flexion of toes

Integration: ________

A

9 months

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50
Q

Symmetrical Tonic Neck Reflex (STNR)

Stimulus: Flex or ext of the head

Response: Flex- flex of UEs, Ext of LEs
Ext- Ext of UEs, Flex of LEs

Onset: ______
Integration: ______

A

Onset: 4-6 months
Integration: 8-12 months

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51
Q

Startle Reflex

Stimulus: Sudden loud noise

Response: Sudden Ext or Abd of UEs, crying

Integration: _____

A

Persists

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52
Q

6 month Neonatal Reflex Integration

PAM’S TP=

A

Palmar grasp
ATNR
Moro
Sucking Reflex
TLR
Positive Support

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53
Q

3 month neonatal reflex integration

A

Rooting reflex

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54
Q

Traction Neonatal Reflex

“Traction”

A

2-5 months bc c/s max is 25 lbs

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55
Q

9 Month Neonatal reflex integration

A

Plantar reflex

(9’s as toes)

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56
Q

12 month Neonatal reflex integration

“BS”

A

Babinski, STNR

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57
Q

Type of CP that is Velocity dependent resistance of a muscle to stretch and causes synergy patterns, contractures, crouched gait, and toe walking

A

Spastic CP

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58
Q

Type of CP that is a disorder of coordination, force, and timing, associated w cerebellar involvement causing floppy baby/low tone, poor balance, wide BOS, and nystagmus

A

Ataxic CP

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59
Q

Type of CP that is a disorder of the basal ganglia, characterized by involuntary movements that are slow and writhing, poor stability, intention tremor, fluctuating tone, hypo becomes hyper

A

Hypotonic/Dyskinetic CP

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60
Q

A PT is treating a pt in a pediatric clinic w a diagnosis of CP. The therapist notes nystagmus, ambulation with a wide BOS and high guard arms, and the mother explains her child was termed a “floppy” baby and has always had poor balance. Which of the following treatments is LEAST appropriate?

A. Stretching of hip flexors via spending time in prone
B. Alternating gentle perturbations in sitting to improve stability
C. Facilitating use of primitive reflexes to perform fine motor skills
D. Engaging the pt in a game that involves throwing different weighted balls into buckets at different distances

A

C

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61
Q

What GMFCS Level??

Patient will walk w/o restrictions but will have limitations in more advances gross motor skills

A

Level 1

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62
Q

What GMFCS Level??

Pt will walk w/o AD w limitations in walking outdoors and in the community

A

Level 2

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63
Q

What GMFCS Level??

Pt will walk w AD w limitations in walking outdoors and in the community

A

Level 3

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64
Q

What GMFCS Level??

Pt self mobility will be severely limited; children transported or use power mobility outdoors and in community

A

Level 4

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65
Q

What GMFCS Level??

Pt self mobility will be severely limited; even w use of AD, requires caregiver

A

Level 5

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66
Q

GMFCS Level 1

A

Patient will walk w/o restrictions but will have limitations in more advances gross motor skills

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67
Q

GMFCS Level 2

A

Pt will walk w/o AD w limitations in walking outdoors and in the community

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68
Q

GMFCS Level 3

A

Pt will walk w AD w limitations in walking outdoors and in the community

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69
Q

GMFCS Level 4

A

Pt self mobility will be severely limited; children transported or use power mobility outdoors and in community

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70
Q

GMFCS Level 5

A

Pt self mobility will be severely limited; even w use of AD, requires caregiver

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71
Q

A PT is examining a 10 y/o pt diagnosed as level 2 on GMFCS. According to the gross motor classification, what is the MOST likely ambulation status of this patient?

A. Pt will walk w/o restrictions but will have limitations in more advanced gross motor skills

B. Pt will walk w AD with limitations in walking outdoor s and in community

C. Pt self mobility will be severely limited, even with the use of AD

D. Pt will walk w/o AD w limitations in walking outdoors and in the community

A

D

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72
Q

T or F: R plagiocephaly causes ipsilateral ear displaced anteriorly on the R side

A

T

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73
Q

T or F: L plagiocephaly causes ipsilateral ear displaced anteriorly on the R side

A

F, L side displacement of ear

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74
Q

If a child has a head position with R side bend and L rotation, how are the following named?

Torticollis=
Plagiocephaly=

A

Torticollis= R
Plagiocephaly= L

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75
Q

If a child has a head position with L side bend and R rotation, how are the following named?

Torticollis=
Plagiocephaly=

A

Torticollis= L
Plagiocephaly= R

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76
Q

A 6 y/o child with down’s syndrome is being treated by a PT. The child has moderate developmental delay, hypotonia, and incoordination, and is able to walk w assistance. He likes dinosaurs and is hoping he gets a bunny for his bday and promises to take good care of it. The MOST appropriate PT treatment should include:

A. Standing and pushing a cart full of dinosaur toys

B. STS to build strength

C. Rolling and somersault activities

D. Rhythmic stabilization of postural extensors in sitting

A

A

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77
Q

Dyspraxia

A

inability to imitate movement

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78
Q

inability to imitate movement

A

Dyspraxia

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79
Q

Which of the following signs and symptoms is LEAST likely to be seen in a 7 y/o male pt w muscular dystrophy?

A. Using hand to help himself into standing from the ground
B. Enlarged calves and toe walking
C. Increased lordosis
D. Distal weakness progressing proximally

A

D

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80
Q

Disease that involves Schmorl’s Nodes and angled or wedged thoracic spine

A

Scheuermann Disease

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81
Q

SCH SCH SCH

A

Scheuermann Disease
Schmorl’s nodes
Schroth method

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82
Q

Does Scheuermann Disease result in thoracic kyphosis or lordosis?

A

Kyphosis

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83
Q

Which palsy caused at birth results in a waiter’s tip deformity?

A

Erb’s Palsy C5-C6

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84
Q

Which palsy caused at birth results in a claw hand deformity?

A

Klumpke’s C8-T1

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85
Q

Palsy caused at birth by stretching the head downward

A

Erb’s Palsy C5-C6

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86
Q

Palsy caused at birth by stretching of arm overhead

A

Klumpke’s C8-T1

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87
Q

“Pull a clump of grass”

A

Claw hand deformity = Klumpke’s Palsy

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88
Q

A pt reports loss of sensation over the ulnar side of the hand. On evaluation, there is weakness in the intrinsic hand muscles leading to nonfunctional hand. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

A. Radial n palsy
B. Erb’s Palsy
C. Klumpke’s Palsy
D. C6 Radiculopathy

A

C

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89
Q

A review of the pt’s medical chart shows BP of 168/90 mmHg, triglyceride level of 160/mg/dL, and a fasting blood glucose levels of 115 mg/dL. The pt’s BMI is 40 kg/m2 and his waistline is 54 in. These findings are suggestive of:

A. Chronic heart disease
B. Type 2 diabetes
C. Metabolic Syndrome
D. Stage 1 HTN

A

C

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90
Q

Signs and sx that are risk factors and are strongly linked to Type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and stroke

A

Metabolic syndrome

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91
Q

If 3 or more of these are present:

  1. Waist line circumference > 40 inches in men or >35 inches in women
  2. Triglyceride level of 150 mg/dL or higher
  3. High Density Lipoprotein (HDL) level <40 mg/dL in men or <50 mg/dL in women
  4. SBP= 130 mmHg and/or DBP =85 mmHg
  5. Fasting plasma glucose level > 100 mg/dL

Diagnoses…….

A

Metabolic syndrome

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92
Q

What are the requirements for diagnosis of metabolic syndrome?

Name 3 of the 5

A
  1. Waist line circumference > 40 inches in men or >35 inches in women
  2. Triglyceride level of 150 mg/dL or higher
  3. High Density Lipoprotein (HDL) level <40 mg/dL in men or <50 mg/dL in women
  4. SBP= 130 mmHg and/or DBP =85 mmHg
  5. Fasting plasma glucose level > 100 mg/dL
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93
Q

HDL is good cholesterol or bad cholesterol?

A

good

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94
Q

LDL good or bad cholesterol?

A

bad

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95
Q

Area of the brain that produces hormones that control body temp, HR, hunger, mood, sex drive, sleep, thirst (or regulates the ANS)

A

Hypothalamus

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96
Q

Which pituitary gland involves antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin?

A

Posterior pituitary

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97
Q

Which pituitary gland involves GH, ACTH, TSH, FSH & LH, Prolactin?

A

Anterior pituitary

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98
Q

The anterior pituitary releases ACTH which goes to the ______ cortex and releases ______ and ________

A

adrenal
cortisol; aldosterone

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99
Q

The anterior pituitary releases TSH (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone) which goes to the ______ gland and releases ____ & _____

A

Thyroid
T3 & T4

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100
Q

The anterior pituitary releases FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone) and LH (Leutinizing Hormone) and Gonadotrophins to the _____ & ______ and releases ________, ______, & ________

A

Ovaries & Testes
Estrogen, Progesterone, Testosterone

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101
Q

The anterior pituitary releases GH (Growth hormone) to the _____ & ______ which impacts _____ and ______

A

Bones & tissues
Growth and metabolism

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102
Q

The anterior pituitary releases prolactin to the ______ to produce ______

A

breasts
Milk

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103
Q

The posterior pituitary releases ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone)/Vasopressin to…….

A

regulate water and mineral balance

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104
Q

Which hormone released by the posterior pituitary regulates water and mineral balance, water retention

A

ADH/Vasopressin

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105
Q

The posterior pituitary releases Oxytocin/pitocin to…….

A

Stimulate uterine contraction during birth and secretion of milk from breast

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106
Q

Which hormone released from the posterior pituitary stimulates uterine contraction during birth and secretion of milk form the breast?

A

Oxytocin/pitocin

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107
Q

Gland that secretes endorphins and reduces a person’s sensitivity to pain

A

Pituitary gland

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108
Q

Pituitary gland function

A

secretes endorphins and reduces a person’s sensitivity to pain

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109
Q

Gland that produces hormones that act to control the rate at which cells burn the fuel from food

A

Thyroid gland

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110
Q

Thyroid gland function

A

produces hormones that act to control the rate at which cells burn the fuel from food

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111
Q

Gland that regulates calcium and phosphate metabolism

A

Parathyroid gland

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112
Q

Parathyroid gland function

A

regulates calcium and phosphate metabolism

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113
Q

Gland that produces corticosteroids that will regulate water and sodium balance, the body’s response to stress, the immune system, and metabolism

A

Adrenal gland

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114
Q

Adrenal gland function

A

produces corticosteroids that will regulate water and sodium balance, the body’s response to stress, the immune system, and metabolism

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115
Q

Which hormone (Cortisol or Aldosterone)

Inc BP
Inc BG
Dec stress
Dec inflammation?

A

Cortisol

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116
Q

What does cortisol do?

A

Inc BP
Inc BG
Dec stress
Dec inflammation

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117
Q

Which hormone (Cortisol or Aldosterone)

retains H20 & Na
kicks out K+?

A

Aldosterone

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118
Q

What does aldosterone do?

A

retains H20 & Na
kicks out K+

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119
Q

Mrs. Addison

A

Thin, brown lady walking with a stick

Bronze pigmented skin
weight loss, anorexia, GI disturbance
generalized weakness
intolerance to cold

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120
Q

What causes Addison’s disease?

A

Pituitary not being able to release ACTH due to infection, neoplasm, hemorrhage, or autoimmune process

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121
Q

Which disease causes

adrenal insufficiency
Dec BP
Dehydration
Kyperkalemia
Dec glucose
Bronze pigmented skin
weight loss, anorexia, GI disturbance
generalized weakness
intolerance to cold

A

Addison’s disease

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122
Q

Mr. Cushing

A

White, chubby guy who loves chugging beer

Ruddy appearance (red skin)
weight gain
centripetal obesity
striae on skin
round moon face

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123
Q

Which disease causes

Elevated aldosterone and cortisol
Inc BP
Water retention
Hypokalemia
Inc glucose
Ruddy appearance (red skin)
weight gain
centripetal obesity
striae on skin
round moon face
Prox mm weakness & atrophy
Inc susceptibility to infection
osteoporosis
poor wound healing

A

Cushing’s Disease

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124
Q

A male pt reports having significant weight gain in his abdomen and face. The labs show high levels of cortisol and elevated blood glucose and high levels of ACTH coming from the pituitary gland. The pt MOST likely has this diagnosis:

A. Addison’s disease
B. Hashimoto’s disease
C. Cushing’s disease
D. Cushing’s syndrome

A

C

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125
Q

Difference between Cushing’s disease and Cushing’s syndrome

A

Disease= > ACTH secreted from pituitary gland, causing the adrenal gland to release more cortisol

Syndrome= Adrenal gland secretes more cortisol causing drug toxicity

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126
Q

Does hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism have the following symptoms:

Dec BP
Inc T3 & T4
Inc HR
High BMR
heat intolerance
Dec BG
overall fatigue
diarrhea
weight loss and increased appetite
silky hair, moist palms
increased sweating
hyperreflexia
Exophthalmos
Grave’s disease

A

Hyper

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127
Q

Does hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism have the following symptoms:

Inc BP
Dec T3 & T4
Dec HR
Low BMR
Cold intolerance
High BG
Proximal mm weakness
Constipation
Brittle hair, nails, dry skin, hair
weight gain, decreased appetite
Decreased perspiration
Prolonged DTRs
Swelling of hands feet and face
Hashimoto’s disease

A

hypothyroidism

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128
Q

Lazy Husbands laying on couch all day with a comforter

A

Hypothyroidism:

cold intolerance
weight gain
proximal mm weakness

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129
Q

A pt is referred with a diagnosis of chronic periarthritis of the shoulder. The pt feels tired all the time and has noticed recent weight loss despite increased appetite. Which of the following would be seen along with these sx if his thyroid levels are elevated?

A. Inc DTR, inc HR, low BP, heat intolerance

B. Dec DTR, Inc HR, High BP, Cold intolerance

C. Inc DTR, Inc HR, Low BP, Cold intolerance

D. Dec DTR, Inc HR, High BP, heat intolerance

A

A

130
Q

Bones
Stones Groans
Moans
Sensory Loss

A

Hyperparathyroidism:

Elevated calcium and dec serum phosphate

-Osteopenia, arthralgia
-Kidney stones, renal insufficiency
-Peptic ulcers
-Proximal mm weakness, fatigue, depression/confusion, drowsiness
-glove/stocking sensory loss

131
Q

CATS are Numb

A

Hypoparathyroidism:

low calcium and high phosphorus

Convulsions
cardiac Arrhythmias
Twitching/Tetany, cramps
muscle Spasms
paresthesia of fingertips and mouth

132
Q

A pt presents to the clinic w hyperfunction of the gland shown in red in the figure. Which of the following signs and sx are MOST likely to be associated with this condition?

A. hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia
B. Convulsions and tetany
C. Osteopenia and peptic ulcers
D. Weight gain and dec appetite

A

C

133
Q

“Juvenille diabetes”

A

Type 1 DM

134
Q

increased blood glucose levels is indicative of

A

DM

135
Q

Pancreas doesn’t produce insulin so the body is dependent on external insulin

A

Type 1 DM

136
Q

PPP

A

3 P’s of Type 1 DM

Polyphagia
Polyuria
Polydipsia

137
Q

Insulin dependent DM

A

Type 1 DM

138
Q

Insulin Resistant DM

A

Type 2 DM

139
Q

Body produces insulin but the tissues don’t absorb it due to sedentary lifestyle, HTN, inactivity

A

Type 2 DM

140
Q

Ketoacidosis more common in Type 1 or Type 2 DM?

A

Type 1 DM

141
Q

Normal fasting blood glucose level

A

70-110 mg/dL

142
Q

Fasting blood glucose indicative of DM

A

126+ mg/dL

143
Q

Normal HbA1C levels

A

4-6%

144
Q

HbA1C levels indicative of DM

A

> 10%

145
Q

HE IS TIRED

A

hypoglycemia:

Headache
Excessive hunger
Insomnia
Tachycardia
Irritable
Dizziness

146
Q

Hypoglycemia is glucose levels ….

A

<70 mg/dL

147
Q

“Cold & Clammy give them a candy”

A

in hypoglycemia when extremities get cold & clammy due to know blood flow since all blood goes to brain since not eating

148
Q

Glucose <70 mg/dL

A

hypoglycemia

149
Q

Glucose >300 mg/dL

A

hyperglycemia

150
Q

Hyperglycemia is glucose levels…..

A

> 300 mg/dL

151
Q

“HOT & DRY = SUGAR HIGH”

A

dry mouth
frequent, scant urination
deep and rapid respirations
Excessive thirst

152
Q

What do you want to give someone for hyperglycemia?

A

insulin

153
Q

what do you want to give to someone with hypoglycemia?

A

candy/sugary snack

154
Q

What happens to blood glucose levels during exercise for someone w DM?

A

Exercise causes and increased insulin sensitivity so it starts to get absorbed in the tissues and blood glucose levels drop (could result in hypoglycemia)

155
Q

Peak insulin hours are ___-___ hrs

A

2-4

Should avoid exercise during this time

156
Q

When is it not safe to exercise with DM?

A

Blood glucose <70 or >300 mg/dL OR with ketones

157
Q

A 45 y/o male who is obese (BMI 33 kg/m2) w Type 2 DM is working out on the treadmill in a hospital setting. While exercising, the pt suddenly develops lightheadedness, dizziness, and instability. The MOST appropriate action is:
A. Stop treadmill, call PCP
B. Stop treadmill, give pt OJ
C. Stop treadmill, give insulin injection
D. Keep treadmill moving and have pt drink water

A

B

158
Q

FITT principles for DM:

Frequency= __-___ days/wk
Intensity = __-___ RPE
Time= Minimum of ____ mins/week
Type= _____ intensity ______ exercise involving ____ muscle groups

A

Frequency= 3-7 days/wk
Intensity = 11-13 RPE
Time= Minimum of 150 mins/week
Type= moderate intensity aerobic exercise involving larger muscle groups

159
Q

involuntary leakage of urine during coughing, sneezing, or exertion.

A

stress incontinence

160
Q

involuntary contraction of the detrusor muscle with a strong desire to void

A

Urge incontinence

161
Q

Incontinence caused by an acontractile or underactive detrusor muscle. Bladder can not empty completely and urine dribbles or leaks out.

A

Overflow incontinence

162
Q

Incontinence due to mobility, dexterity, or cognitive deficits

A

functional incontinence

163
Q

A 29 y/o female pt reports leakage of urine while coughing, sneezing, and climbing stairs. She is pregnant with her first child in the 3rd trimester.

Which of the following diagnosis is MOST likely based on the pt presentation?

A. Stress incontinence
B. Overflow incontinence
C. functional incontinence
D. Urge incontinence

A

A

164
Q

A 29 y/o female pt reports leakage of urine while coughing, sneezing, and climbing stairs. She is pregnant with her first child in the 3rd trimester.

Which of the following is MOST appropriate intervention for this pt?

A. Use of absorbent pads
B. pelvic floor exercises targeting levator ani mm
C. Scheduled toileting and prompted voiding
D. Continuous catheterization

A

B

165
Q

A 29 y/o female pt reports leakage of urine while coughing, sneezing, and climbing stairs. She is pregnant with her first child in the 3rd trimester.

What is the BEST initial PT intervention?

A. Supine and perform a max of 5 contractions held for 3 sec each

B. L side lying and perform a max of 10 contractions held for 5 sec each

C. R side lying and perform a max of 10 contractions held for 5 sec each

D. Sitting and perform a max of 10 contractions held for 10 sec each

A

B

166
Q

Laying on which side causes IVC compression?

A

R side

167
Q

For which type of incontinence would you want to strengthen pelvic floor mm?

A

Stress incontinence

168
Q

For which type of incontinence would you want to treat infections, use a voiding schedule?

A

urge incontinence

169
Q

For which type of incontinence would you want to clear clutter, improve accessibility, and prompted voiding?

A

functional incontinence

170
Q

For which type of incontinence would you want to use behavioral modification like double voiding, medication, and catheterization?

A

overflow incontinence

171
Q

Normal weight gain for pregnancy

A

20-30 lbs

172
Q

Where does the COM move when pregnant?

A

Anterior and upward

173
Q

Cardiac output generally _______ in pregnancy

A

decreases

174
Q

What happens to BP in pregnancy during the first, second, and third trimesters?

A

first: decreased
second: decreased
third: increases

175
Q

What side should pregnant people lay on to decrease compression of IVC, maximize CO, and decrease GERD?

A

L side

176
Q

How does HR change with pregnancy?

A

Inc 10-20 bpm

177
Q

A 29 y/o female pt reports leakage of urine while coughing, sneezing, and climbing stairs. She is pregnant with her first child in the 3rd trimester. She has inc lumbar lordosis, walks with wide BOS, presents with B LE edema. Vitals are = HR: 90 bpm, BP: 118/85 mmHg, RR: 22 br/min.

Which of the following is LEAST appropriate regarding physiological changes related to pregnancy?

A. BP dec in 1st & 2nd trimester and then inc in the 3rd trimester

B. CO is inc in pregnancy

C. Resting HR is dec during pregnancy

D. Metabolic rate and heat production inc during pregnancy

A

C

178
Q

A 29 y/o female pt reports leakage of urine while coughing, sneezing, and climbing stairs. She is pregnant with her first child in the 3rd trimester. She has inc lumbar lordosis, walks with wide BOS, presents with B LE edema. Vitals are = HR: 90 bpm, BP: 118/85 mmHg, RR: 22 br/min.

After and uncomplicated vaginal delivery of her child, pt is seen again for PT. During the treatment, the pt begins to report headache and visual disturbances, and suddenly develops a seizure. Which condition is MOST likely seen?

A. Preeclampsia
B. Gestational diabetes
C. Eclampsia
D. Ectopic pregnancy

A

C

179
Q

pregnancy induced acute HTN after the 20th week of gestation

A

preeclampsia

180
Q

What must the BP be for preeclampsia diagnosis?

A

2 abnormal readings of 140/90 mmHg+ within 4 hours

181
Q

T or F: Preeclampsia is not an emergency

A

F, IT IS AN EMERGENCY

182
Q

A 20 y/o female after and] uncomplicated delivery has a 3 cm diastasis recti and weak abdominal mm. Which of the following exercises is MOST appropriate for the pt?

A. Sitting on a swiss ball
B. Head lifts w arms bracing the abdomen
C. Double leg lifts
D. Deep breathing exercises in bridging postions

A

B

183
Q

Abnormal length for diastasis recti diagnosis

A

> 2 cm

184
Q

T or F: Perform all abdominal contractions with an EXHALATION to minimize intra-abdominal pressure

A

T

185
Q

What type of incontinence is seen with DM?

A

overflow incontinence

186
Q

How to differentiate GERD from angina

A

angina gets worse with any activity
GERD gets worse in supine

187
Q

All of the following are guidelines in treating pts w GERD except:

A. Any intervention requiring a supine position should be scheduled before meals and avoided just after eating

B. Encourage the pt to sleep on R side to prevent nocturnal reflex

C. Modification of position towards a more upright posture may be required if symptoms persist during therapy

D. Encourage the pt to sleep on L side to reduce nocturnal reflex

A

B

188
Q

T or F: Laying on the L side relaxes the stomach and internal organs

A

T

189
Q

Lying on which side relaxes the stomach and internal organs?

A

L side

190
Q

T or F: Laying on the R side relaxes the stomach and internal organs

A

F, L side

191
Q

A 44 y/o male who consumes excessive amounts of alcohol, is referred to PT for knee pain. During treatment, the pt reports R side shoulder pain. Which of the following structures is the MOST likely source of the referred pain?

A. prostate
B. Appendix
C. Liver
D. Kidney

A

C

192
Q

Where does the prostate refer pain?

A

LBP, pelvic region, groin, lower abdomen

193
Q

Where does the Appendix refer pain?

A

RLQ, lower abdomen, LBP

194
Q

Where does the Liver refer pain?

A

RUQ, abdomen

195
Q

Where does the kidney refer pain?

A

Mid back, T10-T12
Mid back to groin (Flank pain)
Ipsi shoulder

196
Q

Pain referring to the mid-back/scapula could be coming from:

1.
2.
3.
4.

A
  1. esophagus
  2. gallbladder
  3. stomach
  4. pancreas
197
Q

Pain referring to the L shoulder could be coming from:

1.
2.
3.
4.

A
  1. Heart
  2. Diaphragm
  3. spleen
  4. tail of pancreas
198
Q

Pain referring to the R shoulder could be coming from:

1.
2.
3.

A
  1. gall bladder
  2. liver
  3. head of pancreas
199
Q

Pain referring to the pelvis/low back/sacrum could be coming from:

1.
2.
3.

A
  1. colon
  2. appendix
  3. pelvic viscera
200
Q

A Pancoast tumor (Upper lung tumor) mimics TOS with C8-T12 pain. What is differential diagnosis here?

A

If it is a lung issue, there would be SOB, chest pain, cough, cancer sx, weight loss

201
Q

“Good Luck Hot Pack”

A

RUQ pain:

Gallbladder, Liver, Head of Pancreas, peptic ulcers

202
Q

“AC”

A

RLQ pain:

Appendix, Crohn’s Disease

203
Q

“DUI”

A

LLQ pain:

Diverticulitis, Ulcerative colitis, IBS

204
Q

“Don’T Banana SPLit”

A

LUQ pain:

Diaphragm, Tail & Body of pancreas, Spleen

205
Q

RUQ pain:

Gallbladder, Liver, Head of Pancreas, peptic ulcers

A

Good Luck Hot Pack

206
Q

RUQ pain:

A

“Good Luck Hot Pack”

Gallbladder, Liver, Head of Pancreas, peptic ulcers

207
Q

RLQ pain:

A

“AC”

Appendix, Crohn’s Disease

208
Q

RLQ pain:

Appendix, Crohn’s Disease

A

“AC”

209
Q

LLQ pain:

Diverticulitis, Ulcerative colitis, IBS

A

“DUI”

210
Q

LLQ pain:

A

“DUI”
Diverticulitis, Ulcerative colitis, IBS

211
Q

LUQ pain:

Diaphragm, Tail & Body of pancreas, Spleen

A

“Don’T Banana SPLit”

212
Q

LUQ pain:

A

“Don’T Banana SPLit”

Diaphragm, Tail & Body of pancreas, Spleen

213
Q

A 44 y/o male pt is being evaluated by a PT. The pt reports referred pain in the L shoulder w diagnosis of a positive Kehr’s sign. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY be a potential cause of a positive Kehr’s sign and L shoulder pain?

A. Recent laparoscopy
B. Intra-abdominal bleeding
C. Rupture of the spleen
D. Trauma to head of pancreas

A

D

214
Q

What is Kehr’s sign?

A

Elevation fo the leg causes L shoulder pain d/t intra-abdominal fluid or air in cavity

215
Q

A hiatal hernia causes ______ pain

A

shoulder

216
Q

A femoral hernia causes lateral _______ pain and ____ pain

A

pelvic wall; groin

217
Q

An inguinal hernia causes ____ pain

A

groin

218
Q

A 44 y/o male pt is being evaluated by a PT. The pt underwent a hernia repair 3 weeks ago and should AVOID which of the following activities?

A. Walking at a metabolic equivalent of “4” three weeks after surgery

B. Stretching of the anterior spinal and hip musculature before the incision is fully healed

C. Stretching of the posterior spinal and hip musculature before the incision is fully healed

D. Wall sits performed in an upright position

A

B

218
Q

Umbilical hernia causes pain around umbilical ring in the mid to lower _______

A

abdomen

218
Q

4 MET = ______

A

4 MPH

218
Q

Blockage or impaction of gallstones in the cystic duct resulting in inflammation of the gallbladder

A

Cholecystitis

219
Q

Special test for Cholecystitis

A

Murphy’s sign

220
Q

Murphy’s sign (RUQ)

A

Palpate near R subcostal margin as pt takes deep breath. If pain and tenderness is elicited during inspiration, test=positive

221
Q

Name the test:

Palpate near R subcostal margin as pt takes deep breath. If pain and tenderness is elicited during inspiration, test=positive

A

Murphy’s sign (RUQ)

222
Q

cholecystitis is inflammation of the _____

A

gallbladder

223
Q

ulcerative lesions in the stomach caused by chronic use of NSAIDs, stress, anxiety, H. pylori bacteria

A

Gastric ulcers

224
Q

ulcerative lesions in the duodenum caused mainly by H. Pylori infection

A

Duodenal ulcers

225
Q

When pain increases w the presence of food due to acid secretion, and pain after eating, it is a _________ ulcer

A

gastric

226
Q

When pain increases with absence of food, early morning, and in between meals, it is a ______ ulcer

A

duodenal

227
Q

coffee ground emesis and melena tarry stools are characteristic of

A

peptic ulcer disease and duodenal ulcers

228
Q

uLcerative colitis

A

LLQ pain

229
Q

cRohn’s disease

A

RLQ pain

230
Q

Inflammatory bowel disease that:

-Is only in the large intestine & rectum
-continuous lesions

A

Ulcerative colitis

231
Q

Inflammatory bowel disease that:

-occurs anywhere in the GI tract
-Skip lesions
-pain relieved by flatulence

A

Crohn’s disease

232
Q

“Can’t see
Can’t Pee
Can’t Climb a Tree”

A

Inflammatory Bowel Disease–> Crohn’s disease

Conjunctivitis
Urethritis
Knee OA

233
Q

“NPTE Syndrome”

A

IBS

caused by emotional stress, anxiety

234
Q

spastic, nervous or irritable colon

A

Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

235
Q

Ribbon like stools

A

IBS

236
Q

Pain is relieved by defecation
Sharp cramps in morning or after eating
N/V, bloating, foul breath, diarrhea
Sx disappear while sleeping

A

IBS

237
Q

A pt reports L lower abdominal pain. The pt reports LBP accompanied with weight loss, nausea, vomiting, and has had bloody stool lately. The pt’s pain is MOST likely due to which diagnosis?

A. Crohn’s disease
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Appendicitis
D. Acute pancreatitis

A

B

238
Q

3 special tests for appendicitis

A

McBurney’s point tenderness
Rovsing’s sign for pain migration
Blumberg’s sign for rebound tenderness

239
Q

Point between ASIS and umbilicus on R side

A

McBurney’s point

240
Q

Where is McBurney’s point?

A

between ASIS and umbilicus on R side

241
Q

psoas sign

A

passive hip ext or resisted hip flexion causes pain (appendicitis)

242
Q

Special test for appendicitis where passive hip ext or resisted hip flexion causes pain

A

Psoas sign

243
Q

Special test for appendicitis where you push on abdomen and release, causing pain

A

Blumberg’s sign

244
Q

Blumberg’s sign

A

push on abdomen and release, causing pain

245
Q

special test where you palpate LLQ and pain is elicited in RLQ

A

Rovsing’s sign (Appendicitis)

246
Q

Rovsing’s sign (Appendicitis)

A

special test where you palpate LLQ and pain is elicited in RLQ

247
Q

A 30 y/o male pt presents w R lower abdominal pain. The PT performed the “pinch-an-inch,” resulting in a positive finding. Which condition below is MOSTLY related to the sx described?

A. Appendicitis
B. Diverticulitis
C. Crohn’s Disease
D. IBS

A

A

248
Q

pouch like herniations on colon area causing LLQ pain

A

Diverticulitis

249
Q

“pinch-an-inch” test

A

LLQ, test for diverticulitis

250
Q

melena tarry stools are characteristic of

A

duodenal ulcers

251
Q

coffee ground emesis is indicative of

A

gastric ulcers

252
Q

UMN or LMN: Spasticity, hyperreflexia, sensation

A

UMN

253
Q

Ascending tracts of the SC: ____ & ___

A

DCML, ALS

254
Q

Descending tracts of SC

A

Corticospinal

255
Q

Which tract is responsible for vibration, proprioception, stereognosis and 2 pt discrimination?

A

DCML

256
Q

The DCML is responsible for:
1.
2.
3.
4.

A
  1. vibration
  2. proprio
  3. stereognosis
  4. 2 pt discrimination
257
Q

The Anterior STT is responsible for:
1.

A
  1. crude touch
258
Q

Which tract is responsible for crude touch?

A

Ant STT

259
Q

Which tract is responsible for pain and temperature?

A

Lat STT

260
Q

What is the Lateral STT responsible for?

A

pain and temperature

261
Q

Which tract is responsible for movements?

A

CST

262
Q

The CST is responsible for:
1.

A
  1. movements
263
Q

“Poor Val got GBS Twice”

A

DCML

Proprio
Vibration
Graphesthesia
Barognosis
Sterognosis

264
Q

Draw alphabet letter on patient’s hand while their eyes are closed and have them guess the letter is

A

graphesthesia

265
Q

Lifting two objects and telling which is heavier is

A

barognosis

266
Q

close eyes, place object in hand and tell what it is by touching it is

A

sterognosis

267
Q

“Licensed PT”

A

Lateral STT
Lat= Pain and Temp

268
Q

A pt presents w the inability to sense and name the alphabets that the PT is drawing on the pt’s hand. Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected along with this presentation?

A. Temp sensation
B. Joint proprio
C. Pain sensation
D. Crude touch sensation

A

B

269
Q

Which cord syndrome is caused by medical error (Iatrogenic)?

A

Posterior Cord Syndrome

270
Q

What tract is shown in blue?

A

DCML

271
Q

What tract is shown in yellow?

A

CST

272
Q

Posterior cord syndrome impacts what tract?

A

DCML

Poor Val got GBS twice

273
Q

Which cord syndrome is caused by hyperflexion injury?

A

Anterior cord syndrome

274
Q

Anterior cord syndrome impacts what tracts?

A

Bilateral STT and CST

275
Q

Brown Sequard Syndrome is AKA

A

Hemi-cord syndrome

276
Q

Brown Sequard Syndrome impacts what tract?

A

R DCML
R CST
R ALS

277
Q

Which cord syndrome is caused by gunshot wounds or stab injuries?

A

Brown Sequard Syndrome

278
Q

Hemi cord syndrome is AKA

A

Brown Sequard Syndrome

279
Q

POT

A

Brown Sequard Syndrome

lose Pain & Temp on Oppo side

280
Q

Which cord syndrome has the best prognosis for walking?

A

Central cord syndrome

281
Q

Walking SCI IS AKA

A

CENTRAL CORD SYNDROME

282
Q

Central cord syndrome is AKA

A

Walking SCI

283
Q

For a small lesion with Central Cord syndrome, what is impacted?

A

Pain and Temp bilaterally

(LST crosses at central cord)

284
Q

For a large lesion with Central Cord syndrome, what is impacted?

A

Bilateral

DCML lost
Pain and Temp lost
CST lost (motor)

285
Q

Which cord syndrome impacts UE more than LE

A

central cord syndrome

286
Q

Which cord syndrome is caused by hyperextension injury?

A

central cord syndrome

287
Q

“MUD-E”

A

Central cord syndrome

Motor
UE
Distal > Prox
hyperExtension injury

288
Q

In stroke, _____ side is affected whereas with SCI, _____ side is affected (except POT)

A

oppo; same

289
Q

A pt w hx of stab wound disrupting L side of SC is being evaluated by the PT. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY presentation for this pt?

A. Sx of damage to CST and STT seen on R side of body and sx of damage to DCML on L side of body

B. Sx of damage to CST and DCML seen on R side of body and sx of damage to STT on L side of body

C. Sx of damage to CST & STT on L side of body w sx of damage to DCML on R side of body

D. Sx of damage to CST and DCML on L side of body and sx of damage to STT on R side of body

A

D

(Same side except POT)

POT= ALSTT - Pan and Temp lost on R in this scenario

290
Q

At what vertebral level does the SC end?

A

L1 vertebral level

291
Q

What has bilateral saddle distribution, symmetric sensory and symmetric motor, and is UMN & LMN?

A

Conus Medullaris

292
Q

What has Unilateral saddle distribution, asymmetric sensory, asymmetric motor and is LMN?

A

Cauda Equina

293
Q

No sensory or motor function in the lowest sacral segments (S4 & S5) is a ______ injury

A

complete

294
Q

What is a complete SCI?

A

No sensory or motor function in the lowest sacral segments (S4 & S5)

295
Q

What is an incomplete SCI?

A

Motor and/or sensory fx below the neurological level including sensory and/or motor function at S4 & S5

296
Q

Motor and/or sensory fx below the neurological level including sensory and/or motor function at S4 & S5 is a ______ SC injury

A

incomplete

297
Q

Anterior cord syndrome, Posterior cord syndrome, brown sequard syndrome, and central cord syndrome are examples of _______ SC injuries

A

Incomplete

298
Q

ASIA A

A

Complete SCI
S & M loss at S4 & S5 (no sacral sparing)

299
Q

ASIA B

A

Incomplete

No motor function 3 segments below lesion level

Sensory spared

300
Q

ASIA C

A

Incomplete

Sensory intact

Motor intact (Majority of mm below lesion <3/5)

301
Q

ASIA D

A

Incomplete

Sensory intact

Motor intact (majority of mm below lesion >3/5)

302
Q

ASIA E

A

Best= normal

“E is ME”

303
Q

“E is ME”

A

ASIA E = ME = Normal sensory and motor

304
Q

Pt with 40% mm below lesion have >3/5 = ASIA ____

A

ASIA C

  • 60% <3/5
305
Q

Pt w/
* 49% mm below lesion <3/5
* 51% mm below lesion >3/5= ASIA____

A

ASIA D

306
Q

Pt w/
* 51% mm below lesion 3/5= ASIA ____

A

ASIA D

307
Q

Pt w/
* 50% mm below lesion >3/5= ASIA ___
* 50% <3/5

A

ASIA D

308
Q

The most caudal segment of the spinal cord with normal sensory function on BOTH sides of the body

A

Sensory level

309
Q

The most caudal segment of the spinal cord with normal motor function on BOTH sides of the body

A

Motor level

310
Q

The most caudal segment of the spinal cord with normal sensory and motor function on BOTH sides of the body

A

Neurological/Functional Level

311
Q

A PT is treating a 22 y/o male pt who has been classified as ASIA C. Which of the following is TRUE about this pt?

A. Motor function is preserved with only 1/3 of the key muscles below
the neurological level of injury have a muscle grade of less than 3

B. Motor function is preserved with at least 1/2 of the key muscles
below the neurological level of injury have a muscle grade of more than 3

C. Motor function is preserved with all of the key muscles below the neurological level of injury have a muscle grade of more than 3

D. Motor function is preserved with more 1/2 of the key muscles below the neurological level of injury have a muscle grade of less than 3

A

D

312
Q

Autonomic Dysreflexia occurs at or above ___

A

T6

313
Q

diagnosis of Autonomic dysreflexia is a rise in SBP of ___ to ___ mmHg

A

20-30

314
Q

PT intervention for AD episode

1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Sit up and Lower legs (drops BP)
  2. Remove painful stimuli
  3. Monitor vitals
315
Q

24 y/o female in OP neuro, anterior cord syndrome status post 3 months

Past medical hx: multiple fx of LE status post car accident, whiplash associated disorder, post concussion syndrome, cervical level injury

Based on the pt’s diagnosis, which of the following functions is MOST likely to be intact?

A. Ability to sense cold and hot
objects
B. Ability to name the number
drawn on hand
C. Ability to button the shirts
D. Ability to ambulate using
bilateral AFOs

A

B

316
Q

24 y/o female in OP neuro, anterior cord syndrome status post 3 months

Past medical hx: multiple fx of LE status post car accident, whiplash associated disorder, post concussion syndrome, cervical level injury

The image shows the patient’s assessment on ASIA. What is the MOST appropriate conclusion based on this finding?
A. C7 ASIA B
B. C6 ASIA A
C. C5 ASIA A
D. C6 ASIA B

A

C

317
Q

24 y/o female in OP neuro, anterior cord syndrome status post 3 months

Past medical hx: multiple fx of LE status post car accident, whiplash associated disorder, post concussion syndrome, cervical level injury

During the treatment session today, the therapist had to stop the intervention because the patient developed blurriness in the vision and reported a severe headache. The therapist suspects the patient to have autonomic dysreflexia. What other signs and symptoms are MOST likely to be present in that case?

A. Bradycardia and hypertension

B. Hypotension and bradycardia

C. Tachycardia and hypertension

D. Hypotension and tachycardia

A

A

318
Q
A

NPTE (10 decks)

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