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RD 2017 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. 60 year old woman with new well defined mass on mammogram

a. IDC
b. ILC
c. Phyllodes
d. FA
e. Mucinous

A

a. IDC yes
2. 60 year old woman with new well defined mass on mammogram

a. IDC yes
b. ILC
c. Phyllodes
d. FA
e. Mucinous

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2
Q
  1. MRI knee in a young man, which is true?

a. Medial and lateral collaterals are not in the same plain

A
  1. MRI knee in a young man, which is true?

a. Medial and lateral collaterals are not in the same plain

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3
Q
  1. Woman with phyllodes

a. Simple excision
b. WLE
c. Follow-up
d. Mastectomy

A

b. WLE yes
4. Woman with phyllodes

a. Simple excision
b. WLE yes
c. Follow-up
d. Mastectomy

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4
Q
  1. 2 year old with increasing head size, increased T2 in forceps minor

a. Adrenoleukodystrophy
b. Alexander
c. Canavan

A

b. Alexander yes
5. 2 year old with increasing head size, increased T2 in forceps minor

a. Adrenoleukodystrophy
b. Alexander yes
c. Canavan

**LJS - Canavan also has a big noggin and presents in infancy. Can;t find anything specific about forceps minor for either

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5
Q
  1. Person with NMO (T)

a. More likely to be bilateraly
b. More common in males
c. Short segment spinal cord

A

a. More likely to be bilateraly yes
6. Person with NMO (T)

a. More likely to be bilateraly - yes
b. More common in males
c. Short segment spinal cord

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6
Q
  1. 70 year old woman with Spinal enlargement from C7-T6, one week leg weakness. High T2 some minor enhancement

a. Tx Myelitis
b. Mets
c. Haemangioblastoma
d. Astrocytoma

A

a. Tx Myelitis yes
7. 70 year old woman with Spinal enlargement from C7-T6, one week leg weakness. High T2 some minor enhancement

a. Tx Myelitis yes
b. Mets
c. Haemangioblastoma
d. Astrocytoma

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7
Q
  1. 70 year old woman with 2cm mass in the cerebellum

a. Haemangioblastoma
b. Metastasis
c. Lymphoma

A

b. Metastasis yes
8. 70 year old woman with 2cm mass in the cerebellum

a. Haemangioblastoma
b. Metastasis yes
c. Lymphoma

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8
Q
  1. 20 year old guy with 2cm vascular epididymal mass

a. Adenomatoid
b. Lipoma

A

a. Adenomatoid yes
9. 20 year old guy with 2cm vascular epididymal mass

a. Adenomatoid yes
b. Lipoma

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9
Q
  1. 35 year old asian man with multiple fat density lesions posterior and lateral to the caecum and ascending colon, recently returned from singapore

a. Epiploic appendigitis
b. Crohns
c. Diverticulitis
d. Pseudomembranous

A

a. Epiploic appendigitis yes
10. 35 year old asian man with multiple fat density lesions posterior and lateral to the caecum and ascending colon, recently returned from singapore

a. Epiploic appendigitis yes
b. Crohns
c. Diverticulitis
d. Pseudomembranous

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10
Q
  1. Which placenta has the least risk of complications

a. Bilobed
b. Succinturiate
c. Membranous
d. Circumvellate
e. Velamentous

A

a. Bilobed yes
11. Which placenta has the least risk of complications

a. Bilobed yes
b. Succinturiate
c. Membranous
d. Circumvellate
e. Velamentous

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11
Q
  1. 30 year old woman presents with PV bleeding and pain with hypoechoic region behind the placenta

a. Vasa previa
b. Placenta previa
c. Abruption

A

c. Abruption yes
12. 30 year old woman presents with PV bleeding and pain with hypoechoic region behind the placenta

a. Vasa previa
b. Placenta previa
c. Abruption yes

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12
Q
  1. 18 month year old lower leg deformity with anterolateral bowing of the tibia

a. Physiological
b. Blounts

A

*LW:
Favour this to be incomplete recall:
Bowing refers to which direction the apex of the deformity points.
Stem states tibial bowing (not knee), and anterolateral bowing.
Normal physilogical bowing at knee - genu varum upto 2yrs, then brief valgus angulation upto 3 yrs before normalisation.
Most likely implying normal physiological, although anterolateral tibial bowing is associated with NF1 and pseudo arthorosis.

a. Physiological yes
13. 18 month year old lower leg deformity with anterolateral bowing of the tibia

a. Physiological yes
b. Blounts

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13
Q
  1. 20 week scan

a. No follow up of renal pelvises 5-10mm

A

*LW:
16-28 weeks: AP renal pelvis dilation < 4mm without peripheral calyceal dilation normal and no follow up.
> 28 weeks: AP renal pelvis dilatoin < 7mm without peripheral dilatoin NORMAL with no follow up.
Anything else basically gets follow up imaging, usually at 32 weeks.

  1. 20 week scan
    a. No follow up of renal pelvises 5-10mm - no
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14
Q
  1. 30 year old woman with 5.6cm haemorrhagic cyst

a. No follow-up
b. Follow-up 4 weeks
c. Follow-up 6 weeks
d. Surgery

A

c. Follow-up 6 weeks 8wks
15. 30 year old woman with 5.6cm haemorrhagic cyst

a. No follow-up
b. Follow-up 4 weeks
c. Follow-up 6 weeks 8wks
d. Surgery

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15
Q
  1. Medialisation of the ureters

a. AP resection
b. Prostate enlargement
c. Ureterocoele

A

a. AP resection yes
17. Medialisation of the ureters

a. AP resection yes
b. Prostate enlargement
c. Ureterocoele

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16
Q
  1. 3cm pancreatic mass with hypoechoic well defined lesion in segment 4b, hypoechoic irregular lesion in segment 6 and hyperechoic lesion segment 8. Best to biopsy

a. Pancreatic mass
b. Segment 4 lesion
c. Segment 8 lesion
d. Segment 6 lesion

A

*LW:
Would favour segment 6 lesion first, easier biopsy, if it proves to be non hepatic malignancy, would aid next step decision with regards to pancreas.

Previous answer
a. Pancreatic mass yes

  1. 3cm pancreatic mass with hypoechoic well defined lesion in segment 4b, hypoechoic irregular lesion in segment 6 and hyperechoic lesion segment 8. Best to biopsy

a. Pancreatic mass yes
b. Segment 4 lesion
c. Segment 8 lesion
d. Segment 6 lesion ?

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17
Q
  1. 45 year old lady with 20cm multilocular pelvic mass

a. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
b. Serous cystadocarcinoma
c. Sertoli-leydig
d. Granulosa

A

a. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma yes
16. 45 year old lady with 20cm multilocular pelvic mass

a. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma yes
b. Serous cystadocarcinoma
c. Sertoli-leydig
d. Granulosa

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18
Q
  1. 3 cm mass in a 45 year old woman with breast cancer. Hypervascular, suppresses on opposed phase, hypointense on delayed (MRI)

a. Mets
b. Adenoma
c. FNH
d. HCC

A

b. Adenoma yes
19. 3 cm mass in a 45 year old woman with breast cancer. Hypervascular, suppresses on opposed phase, hypointense on delayed (MRI)

a. Mets
b. Adenoma yes
c. FNH
d. HCC

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19
Q
  1. HIV positive man (50 year old) with multiple hypodense lesion in the liver and spleen

a. Lymphoma
b. Candidiasis
c. Sarcoid
d. SLE

A

b. Candidiasis yes
20. HIV positive man (50 year old) with multiple hypodense lesion in the liver and spleen

a. Lymphoma
b. Candidiasis yes
c. Sarcoid
d. SLE

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20
Q
  1. 35 year old woman with 3mm lumen of distal oesopahgus, smoothly tapered, 3cm dilatation proximally

a. Barrets
b. Carcinoma
c. Achalasia

A

c. Achalasia yes
21. 35 year old woman with 3mm lumen of distal oesopahgus, smoothly tapered, 3cm dilatation proximally

a. Barrets
b. Carcinoma
c. Achalasia yes

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21
Q
  1. 35 year old woman with 3mm lumen of distal oesopahgus, smoothly tapered, 3cm dilatation proximally

a. Barrets
b. Carcinoma
c. Achalasia

A

c. Achalasia yes
21. 35 year old woman with 3mm lumen of distal oesopahgus, smoothly tapered, 3cm dilatation proximally

a. Barrets
b. Carcinoma
c. Achalasia yes

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22
Q
  1. Pain 2nd/3rd intermetatarsal spaces with compressible hypechoic pockets in the subcutaneous fat overlying metatarsal heads

a. Adventitial bursitis
b. Intermetatarsal bursitis
c. Mortons neuroma

A

a. Adventitial bursitis yes
23. Pain 2nd/3rd intermetatarsal spaces with compressible hypechoic pockets in the subcutaneous fat overlying metatarsal heads

a. Adventitial bursitis yes
b. Intermetatarsal bursitis
c. Mortons neuroma

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23
Q
  1. MRI, what increases signal to noise ratio

a. Decreasing voxel size
b. Decreasing field strength
c. Increased phase encoding gradients

A

all wrong

  1. MRI, what increases signal to noise ratio

a. Decreasing voxel size - no, SNR linearly proportional to voxel volume. Increasing FOV or reducing matrix size would incr SNR (by incr voxel volume)
b. Decreasing field strength
c. Increased phase encoding gradients

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24
Q
  1. Sequestration

a. Intralobar drains to pulmonary veins
b. Extralobar supplied by coeliac axis
c. Most common LUL
d. Most common RML

A

a. Intralobar drains to pulmonary veins yes
25. Sequestration

a. Intralobar drains to pulmonary veins yes
b. Extralobar supplied by coeliac axis
c. Most common LUL
d. Most common RML

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25
Q
  1. Endoleak due to porous graft

a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4
e. Type 5

A

d. Type 4 yes
26. Endoleak due to porous graft

a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4 yes
e. Type 5

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26
Q
  1. Type of Choledocal cyst that bulges into duodenum

a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4
e. Type 5

A

c. Type 3 yes
27. Type of Choledocal cyst that bulges into duodenum

a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3 yes
d. Type 4
e. Type 5

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27
Q
  1. Nigerian man with calcified bladder wall and sessile mass

a. SCC
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. TCC

A

a. SCC yes
28. Nigerian man with calcified bladder wall and sessile mass

a. SCC yes
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. TCC

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28
Q
  1. Small bowel true

a. Benign mass more common than malignant
b. Carcinoid most common malignancy in the distal small bowel
c. P-J adenomatous polyposis syndrome
d. Lymphoma most common proximal small bowel
e. Intusseption the most common presentation

A

*LW:
b. Carcinoid most common malignancy in the distal small bowel: TRUE; with regards to distal small bowel most at risk for carcinoid and lymphoma, with carcinoid more common than lymphoma.
(- Mets are more common than primaries. Adenocarcinoma 30-50%, carcinoid 25-30%, leiomyosarcoma 10%, lymphoma 15-20%.)

  1. Small bowel true

a. Benign mass more common than malignant:
If referring to neoplasms, this is false with approx. 60% of small bowel neoplasms being malignant.

b. Carcinoid most common malignancy in the distal small bowel: TRUE; with regards to distal small bowel most at risk for carcinoid and lymphoma, with carcinoid more common than lymphoma.
(- Mets are more common than primaries. Adenocarcinoma 30-50%, carcinoid 25-30%, leiomyosarcoma 10%, lymphoma 15-20%.)

c. P-J adenomatous polyposis syndrome: FALSE, Peutz jehgers syndrome is non neoplastic multiple hamartomatous polyps, being one of the polyposis syndromes. Although polyps are not malignant them selves, there is an increased risk of adenocarcinoma.
d. Lymphoma most common proximal small bowel: FALSE - ileum.

e. Intusseption the most common presentation: FALSE - Abdominal pain, weight loss, nausea, and vomiting were the most common presenting symptoms for small bowel tumors, radiologically: masses, concentreic lumen narrowing, complete bowel obstruction, circumfrential wall thickening of lymphoma, ulceration. Atypical imaging findings include intussecption.
(https: //www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3473441/)

Previous answers;
29. Small bowel true

a. Benign mass more common than malignant -yes
b. Carcinoid most common malignancy in the distal small bowel -yes
c. P-J adenomatous polyposis syndrome
d. Lymphoma most common proximal small bowel
e. Intusseption the most common presentation

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29
Q
  1. Well circumscribed breast mass containing fat and stroma

a. Hamartoma

A
  1. Well circumscribed breast mass containing fat and stroma

a. Hamartoma

30
Q
  1. Test with MRI as gold standard, how to calculate prevalence disease by total population
A

*LW;

Prevalence is a measure of disease that allows us to determine a person’s likelihood of having a disease. Therefore, the number of prevalent cases is the total number of cases of disease existing in a population. A prevalence rate is the total number of cases of a disease existing in a population divided by the total population. So, if a measurement of cancer is taken in a population of 40,000 people and 1,200 were recently diagnosed with cancer and 3,500 are living with cancer, then the prevalence of cancer is 0.118. (or 11,750 per 100,000 persons)

Incidence is a measure of disease that allows us to determine a person’s probability of being diagnosed with a disease during a given period of time. Therefore, incidence is the number of newly diagnosed cases of a disease. An incidence rate is the number of new cases of a disease divided by the number of persons at risk for the disease. If, over the course of one year, five women are diagnosed with breast cancer, out of a total female study population of 200 (who do not have breast cancer at the beginning of the study period), then we would say the incidence of breast cancer in this population was 0.025. (or 2,500 per 100,000 women-years of study)

31
Q
  1. T3b N0 M0 rectal mass resected and irradiated 2 years ago, best next step

a. MRI
b. CT in 3 months
c. PET/CT
d. Biopsy

A

c. PET/CT yes
31. T3b N0 M0 rectal mass resected and irradiated 2 years ago, best next step

a. MRI
b. CT in 3 months
c. PET/CT yes
d. Biopsy

32
Q
  1. Shortness of breath, MEN, positive lungs on bone scan

a. Alveolar microlithiasis
b. Haemosiderosis
c. Metastatic calcification

A

**LJS - disagree
Metastatic calcification - secondary to HPT due to parathyroid adenoma. Get uptake on bone scan - often before CXR abn
*LW - agree with LJS

Previous answer:

a. Alveolar microlithiasis yes
32. Shortness of breath, MEN, positive lungs on bone scan

a. Alveolar microlithiasis yes
b. Haemosiderosis
c. Metastatic calcification

33
Q
  1. Cystic lesion in a young male anterior to SCM, posterior to the angle of the mandible tail extending between the carotid and jugular vein

a. 1st branchial cleft cyst
b. 2nd branchial cleft cyst
c. 3rd brancial cleft cyst
d. Lymphangioma

A

b. 2nd branchial cleft cyst yes
33. Cystic lesion in a young male anterior to SCM, posterior to the angle of the mandible tail extending between the carotid and jugular vein

a. 1st branchial cleft cyst
b. 2nd branchial cleft cyst yes
c. 3rd brancial cleft cyst
d. Lymphangioma

34
Q
  1. Young man with jaw lesion, partially formed tooth within cystic lesion displacing the roots of the molar

a. Odontoma
b. KCOT
c. Dentigerous cyst
d. Fibrous dysplasia

A

**LJS - unsure. Dentigerous cyst surrounds crown of unerrupted tooth. Cyst encloses crown rather than being around roots
I think odontoma - most common odontogenic tumour, contains tooth components, cystic early on
Otherwise KCOT, displaces roots but ?doesn’t contain partially formed tooth

***LW: difficult question, hope another dsicriminator would be present. I favour odontoma, as approx. half are associated with unerupted tooth (i.e. partially formed tooth stem), and initially begin as lucent (cytic component of stem). Pre test probability also favors odontoma, being most common lesion. Without mentioning crown, it makes me exclude dentigerous.

  • AJL - I think dentigerous. I suspect they are getting at the cyst that involves unerupted teeth.
    c. Dentigerous cyst yes
    34. Young man with jaw lesion, partially formed tooth within cystic lesion displacing the roots of the molar

a. Odontoma
b. KCOT
c. Dentigerous cyst yes
d. Fibrous dysplasia

35
Q
  1. ZMC fracture

a. Diplopia suggests inferior oblique entrapment
b. ZF suture involvement means may be le fort III
c. Downwards displacement of the medial canthus
d. Facial numbness suggests facial nerve involvement
e. Orbital floor involvement is rare

A

b. ZF suture involvement means may be le fort III -yes
35. ZMC fracture

a. Diplopia suggests inferior oblique entrapment - no, inferior rectus
b. ZF suture involvement means may be le fort III -yes
c. Downwards displacement of the medial canthus - lateral
d. Facial numbness suggests facial nerve involvement - V2
e. Orbital floor involvement is rare - no

36
Q
  1. Young man with palm mass, patchy T1 high signal with partial suppression, patchy enhancement

a. Haemangioma
b. Lipoma

A

a. Haemangioma yes
36. Young man with palm mass, patchy T1 high signal with partial suppression, patchy enhancement

a. Haemangioma yes
b. Lipoma

37
Q
  1. Twin peak sign in a pregnancy

a. MCDA
b. MCMA
c. 2 placentas

A

c. 2 placentas yes
37. Twin peak sign in a pregnancy

a. MCDA
b. MCMA
c. 2 placentas yes

38
Q
  1. Older man with bicuspid valve, expected finding on MRI

a. Dilatation and hypertrophy of the left ventricle

A
  1. Older man with bicuspid valve, expected finding on MRI

a. Dilatation and hypertrophy of the left ventricle

39
Q
  1. Infective endocarditis, not an expected finding

a. Perforated leaflets
b. Thickened chordae
c. Fusion of leaflets
d. Perivalve abscess
e. Annular pseudoaneurysm

A

**LJS -disagree. Chordae tendinae are involved (Robbins does not mention but radiopedia and papers do). I think fusion of leaflets if characteristic of chronic RHD and unexpected in infective endocarditis

*LW:
RObbins states infective endocarditis can affect the chordae or myocardium, resulting in destruction (figure 11.20 pg 428)
Preferred answers:
a. Perforated leaflets - true
b. Thickened chordae - thickened and then can rupture
c. Fusion of leaflets - think this is false, occurs in chronic rheumatic heart disease
d. Perivalve abscess - true
e. Annular pseudoaneurysm - true

*AJL - To confuse things, one could argue that RHD causes fusion of the leaflets and therefore is not an unexpected finding in infective endocarditis even if not caused by endocarditis (what I’m trying to say is it’s a stupid question)

Previous answer:
b. Thickened chordae no spared

  1. Infective endocarditis, not an expected finding

a. Perforated leaflets
b. Thickened chordae no spared
c. Fusion of leaflets
d. Perivalve abscess
e. Annular pseudoaneurysm

40
Q
  1. Least likely place for red marrow

a. Femoral diaphysis
b. Ribs
c. Spine
d. Skull

A

a. Femoral diaphysis yes
40. Least likely place for red marrow

a. Femoral diaphysis yes
b. Ribs
c. Spine
d. Skull

41
Q
  1. Inverted papilloma
    a. Associated with SCC
    b. Starts in nasal septum
    c. Cause of isolated frontal sinus opacification
A

a. Associated with SCC yes
41. Inverted papilloma

a. Associated with SCC yes
b. Starts in nasal septum
c. Cause of isolated frontal sinus opacification

42
Q
  1. Mass in pterygopalatine fossa, where is it least likely to spread

a. Into cranium
b. Nose
c. Infratemporoal fossa
d. Maxillary sinus

A

d. Maxillary sinus yes
42. Mass in pterygopalatine fossa, where is it least likely to spread

a. Into cranium
b. Nose
c. Infratemporoal fossa
d. Maxillary sinus yes

*LW:
Pterygopalatine communications:
- medially: communicates with the nasal cavity via the sphenopalatine foramen, which transmits the sphenopalatine artery, the nasopalatine nerve and the posterior superior nasal nerves

  • laterally: communicates with the masticator space (or infratemporal fossa) via the pterygomaxillary fissure
  • anteriorly: communicates with the orbit via the inferior orbital fissure (superiorly)
  • posteriorly and superiorly: communicates with the Meckel cave and cavernous sinus (of the middle cranial fossa) via the foramen rotundum
  • posteriorly and inferiorly: communicates with the middle cranial fossa via the vidian canal, which transmits the Vidian nerve
  • posteriorly and medially: the palatovaginal canal transmits the pharyngeal nerve and the pharyngeal branch of maxillary artery to the nasopharynx.
  • inferiorly: communicates with the palate via the greater and lesser palatine canals (often these canals arise from the one canal, referred to as either the greater palatine canal or the pterygopalatine canal)
43
Q
  1. Post partum woman with hypodense thalami

a. Central venous sinus thrombosis

A
  1. Post partum woman with hypodense thalami

a. Central venous sinus thrombosis

44
Q
  1. 30 year old guy, subtle loss of grey white differentiation in the right frontoparietal region. Sudden onset headache after all night party 1 week ago

a. RCVS
b. Dural venous sinus thrombosis

A

a. RCVS?
* LW: ? implying cocaine use on a all night bender, and resultant reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome, with resultant ischaemic changes…

  1. 30 year old guy, subtle loss of grey white differentiation in the right frontoparietal region. Sudden onset headache after all night party 1 week ago

a. RCVS?
b. Dural venous sinus thrombosis

45
Q
  1. 40 year old woman with headache post MVA, infarct in the frontal region on MRI
    a. Carotid artery injury
A
  1. 40 year old woman with headache post MVA, infarct in the frontal region on MRI
    a. Carotid artery injury
46
Q
  1. 40 year old woman with enlargement of the medial rectus muscle with mild stranding

a. TED
b. Orbital pseudotumour
c. Lymphoma
d. Metastases

A

b. Orbital pseudotumour ?
46. 40 year old woman with enlargement of the medial rectus muscle with mild stranding

a. TED
b. Orbital pseudotumour ?
c. Lymphoma
d. Metastases

47
Q
  1. 3 year old with a calcified retinal mass

a. Retinoblastoma
b. Coats disease
c. PPV

A

a. Retinoblastoma yes
47. 3 year old with a calcified retinal mass

a. Retinoblastoma yes
b. Coats disease
c. PPV

48
Q
  1. Regarding dissections (T)

a. Expands the out diameter
b. Intracranial more common
c. Vertebral more common than carotid
d. Spontaneous or due to injury

A

d. Spontaneous or due to injury yes
48. Regarding dissections (T)

a. Expands the out diameter
b. Intracranial more common
c. Vertebral more common than carotid
d. Spontaneous or due to injury yes

49
Q
  1. 40 year old woman with sinusitis and hypertension, vasculitis of medium and small renal vessels

a. PAN
b. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
c. Takayasu

A

b. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis yes
49. 40 year old woman with sinusitis and hypertension, vasculitis of medium and small renal vessels

a. PAN
b. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis yes
c. Takayasu

50
Q
  1. Regarding thymus

a. Thymolipoma doesn’t compress the mediastinal structures
b. Benign lesions spread along the pleura
c. Hyperplasia most common form of enlargement in adolescents

A

**LJS - unsure.
Thymolipoma commonly asx and conforms to surrounding structures, but when they have sx, it is due to mass effect on heart and lung (stat dx)
Thymic hyperplasia is rare during adolescence (most anterior mediastinal masses are neoplasms)
*AJL - Thymic hyperplasia is relatively uncommon so I would favour thymolipoma option overall. Don’t really know though.

a. Thymolipoma doesn’t compress the mediastinal structures yes
50. Regarding thymus

a. Thymolipoma doesn’t compress the mediastinal structures yes
b. Benign lesions spread along the pleura
c. Hyperplasia most common form of enlargement in adolescents

51
Q
  1. Plasma cell mastitis
A
  1. Plasma cell mastitis
52
Q
  1. DCIS – (Mass on MRI, amorphous calcification
A
  1. DCIS – (Mass on MRI, amorphous calcification
53
Q
  1. ILC presentation

a. Mamms >75%
b. US <15 %

A

b. US <15 % no
53. ILC presentation

a. Mamms >75%
b. US <15 % no

54
Q
  1. Medullary

a. Poor prognosis
b. Elderly
c. Well defined
d. Spiculated

A

c. Well defined
54. Medullary

a. Poor prognosis
b. Elderly
c. Well defined
d. Spiculated

55
Q
  1. 50 year old Woman with well defined masses in the superficial parotids bilaterally, partially cystic with debris and septa on USS

a. Sjogrens
b. Mikulicz
c. Pleomorphic adenoma
d. Warthins
e. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

A

a. Sjogrens yes
55. 50 year old Woman with well defined masses in the superficial parotids bilaterally, partially cystic with debris and septa on USS

a. Sjogrens yes
b. Mikulicz (IgG4 disease with non-specific enlargement of 2 or more salivary/lacrimal glands and xerostomia (dry mouth))
c. Pleomorphic adenoma
d. Warthins
e. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

56
Q
  1. Which of these would you do an amniocentesis for (at 20 weeks)?

a. Cisterna magna 8mm
b. Renal pelvis 4mm
c. Cerebellum 19mm
d. Lateral ventricles 14mm

A

d. Lateral ventricles 14mm yes
56. Which of these would you do an amniocentesis for (at 20 weeks)?

a. Cisterna magna 8mm
b. Renal pelvis 4mm
c. Cerebellum 19mm
d. Lateral ventricles 14mm yes

57
Q
  1. Hydroxyapatite presents as

a. Periarticular foci of calcification
b. Intraarticular calcification

A

a. Periarticular foci of calcification yes
57. Hydroxyapatite presents as

a. Periarticular foci of calcification yes
b. Intraarticular calcification

58
Q
  1. Man getting stent post failed endarterectomy of extracranial internal carotid with PCA infarct. Most likely:

a. Trigeminal artery
b. Hypoglossal
c. Fetal Pcom
d. Azygous artery

A

c. Fetal Pcom yes
58. Man getting stent post failed endarterectomy of extracranial internal carotid with PCA infarct. Most likely:

a. Trigeminal artery
b. Hypoglossal
c. Fetal Pcom yes
d. Azygous artery

59
Q
  1. 25 year old male post MVA with chest pain. Left sided pulmonary contusions. Smooth bulge at the anterior medial aspect of the aortic isthmus. No mediastinal haematoma, normal vital signs.

a. Ductus diverticulum
b. Transection
c. Pseudoaneurysm
d. Dissection

A

a. Ductus diverticulum yes
59. 25 year old male post MVA with chest pain. Left sided pulmonary contusions. Smooth bulge at the anterior medial aspect of the aortic isthmus. No mediastinal haematoma, normal vital signs.

a. Ductus diverticulum yes
b. Transection
c. Pseudoaneurysm
d. Dissection

60
Q
  1. 35 year old from africa with T2 hyperintense regions surrounding the anterior commissure, some with diffusion restriction, basal meningeal thickening, mild hydrocephalus

a. Cystercercosis
b. Cryptococcus
c. Lymphoma

A

b. Cryptococcus yes
60. 35 year old from africa with T2 hyperintense regions surrounding the anterior commissure, some with diffusion restriction, basal meningeal thickening, mild hydrocephalus

a. Cystercercosis
b. Cryptococcus yes
c. Lymphoma

61
Q
  1. What is least likely to cause T2 hyerintensity and T1 hypointensity of the L5/S1 endplates

a. Modic type 2
b. Infection
c. TB
d. Ankylosing spondylitis
e. Intravertebral disc herniation

A

a. Modic type 2 yes
61. What is least likely to cause T2 hyerintensity and T1 hypointensity of the L5/S1 endplates

a. Modic type 2 yes
b. Infection
c. TB
d. Ankylosing spondylitis
e. Intravertebral disc herniation

62
Q
  1. Least likely to have abnormal pulmonary vasculature

a. TOF
b. Coarctation
c. PDA
d. ASD
e. VSD

A

b. Coarctation yes
62. Least likely to have abnormal pulmonary vasculature

a. TOF
b. Coarctation yes
c. PDA
d. ASD
e. VSD

63
Q
  1. Most likely with regard to TB

a. Secondary not uncommonly presents with pneumothorax
b. Primary associated with effusions
c. Primary associated with cavitation

A
  • LW:
    a. Secondary not uncommonly presents with pneumothorax: FALSE, no mention of penumothorax in radiopedia.

b. Primary associated with effusions: TRUE - radiopedia states primary can present with effusions.
c. Primary associated with cavitation: FALSE, usually dense consolidation mid - lower zones, peripherally.

Primary pulmonary tuberculosis manifests as five main entities:

1) parenchymal disease: usually manifests as dense, homogeneous parenchymal consolidation in any lobe however, predominance in the lower and middle lobes (subpleural sites) is suggestive of the disease, especially in adults 1
2) lymphadenopathy
3) miliary opacities
4) Clustered parenchymal opacification may give a galaxy sign
5) pleural effusion

Post primary / secondary:
Parenchymal disease
- ill-defined patchy consolidation
- clustered parenchymal opacification may give rise to a galaxy sign
- cavitation usually develops within the consolidation
- fibroproliferative disease with coarse reticulonodular densities
- endobronchial spread with “tree-in-bud” appearance,
- healing results in fibrosis, volume loss and traction bronchiectasis
- lymphadenopathy occurs only in 5% cases
Airway disease
- Central airway involvement results in bronchial stenosis which may lead to lobar collapse associated with traction bronchiectasis and mucoid impaction.
Pleural disease
- occurs in a minority of cases (18%)
- small pleural effusion
- pleural thickening
- pleural calcification

Previous answers:
a. Secondary not uncommonly presents with pneumothorax yes

  1. Most likely with regard to TB

a. Secondary not uncommonly presents with pneumothorax yes
b. Primary associated with effusions
c. Primary associated with cavitation

64
Q
  1. Most true regarding popliteal artery entrapment

a. Reduced doppler waveform in posterior tibial artery with calf activation
b. Medial displacement of the popliteal artery with knee extension

A

a. Reduced doppler waveform in posterior tibial artery with calf activation yes
64. Most true regarding popliteal artery entrapment

a. Reduced doppler waveform in posterior tibial artery with calf activation yes
b. Medial displacement of the popliteal artery with knee extension - no, medial displacement on ankle plantarflexion

65
Q
  1. Young person inversion injury of ankle with anteriolateral pain most likely injured:

a. Deltoid ligament
b. ATFL
c. PTFL
d. Tibiofibular ligament

A

b. ATFL yes
65. Young person inversion injury of ankle with anteriolateral pain most likely injured:

a. Deltoid ligament
b. ATFL yes
c. PTFL
d. Tibiofibular ligament

66
Q
  1. Older person with patellofemoral dominant arthropathy, most likely associated:

a. Shoulder destruction
b. Erosions of MCPJ’s
c. Well corticated metatarsal erosions
d. Sacroilitits
e. Pubis symphysis calcification

A

e. Pubis symphysis calcification yes
66. Older person with patellofemoral dominant arthropathy, most likely associated:

a. Shoulder destruction
b. Erosions of MCPJ’s
c. Well corticated metatarsal erosions
d. Sacroilitits
e. Pubis symphysis calcification yes

67
Q
  1. True regarding shoulder ultrasound

a. Subscapularis injury associated with long head of biceps rupture
b. Rotator cuff tear excluded if no fluid in subdeltoid bursa
c. Long head of biceps best viewed with shoulder extension
d. Supraspinatus best view with shoulder in flexion

A

a. Subscapularis injury associated with long head of biceps rupture yes
* LW: can be associated with both long head biceps tear or dislocation.

  1. True regarding shoulder ultrasound

a. Subscapularis injury associated with long head of biceps rupture yes
b. Rotator cuff tear excluded if no fluid in subdeltoid bursa
c. Long head of biceps best viewed with shoulder extension
d. Supraspinatus best view with shoulder in flexion

68
Q
  1. Young man with low T1, High T2 expansile lesion with diffusion restriction in the petrous apex

a. Cholesteatoma
b. Cholesterol granuloma
c. Petrous apicitis
d. Hamartoma

A

a. Cholesteatoma yes
68. Young man with low T1, High T2 expansile lesion with diffusion restriction in the petrous apex

a. Cholesteatoma yes
b. Cholesterol granuloma
c. Petrous apicitis
d. Hamartoma

69
Q
  1. Most true at anatomy scan

a. Single vessel cord associated with renal or CHD in the absence of chromosomal abnormality
b. Echogenic bowel is insignificant if normal chromosomes

A

a. Single vessel cord associated with renal or CHD in the absence of chromosomal abnormality yes
*LW:
Agree:
Isolated finding in approx 65% of time.
Can be associated with chromosomal abnormalities.
In absence of chromosomal abnormalities, can result in IUGR.
Other associations include renal anomalies / agrenesis, usually on same side as absent renal artery

  1. Most true at anatomy scan

a. Single vessel cord associated with renal or CHD in the absence of chromosomal abnormality yes
b. Echogenic bowel is insignificant if normal chromosomes

70
Q
  1. Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia

a. Bilateral asymmetric
b. Delayed bone age
c. Early osteoarthritis

A

c. Early osteoarthritis
70. Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia

a. Bilateral asymmetric
b. Delayed bone age
c. Early osteoarthritis

Z Back up RD (25 decks)

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