RD 2014 March - VIC: Formatted

Question 1

96. What is most correct regarding venous thromboembolism in pregnant patients?

a. Five times more likely in pregnancy than if not pregnant
b. D-dimer is diagnostic
c. Excluded by negative lower limb ultrasound
d. should be investigated with CTPA
e. routinely detected with MR pulmonary angiography

Answer 1

a. Five times more likely in pregnancy than if not pregnant
96. What is most correct regarding venous thromboembolism in pregnant patients?

a. Five times more likely in pregnancy than if not pregnant
b. D-dimer is diagnostic
c. Excluded by negative lower limb ultrasound
d. should be investigated with CTPA VQ scan
e. routinely detected with MR pulmonary angiography not routinely.

Question 2

97. Least likely to represent a VIABLE fetus?

a. gestational sac measuring 28 mm with no embryo or yolk sac
b. transvaginal ultrasound identifying an embryo measuring 3mm in CRL but with no fetal heart beat
c. transabdominal ultrasound identifying anbut with no fetal heart beat
d. a fetus detected at 6 weeks gestation onheart beat
e. no fetus detected with a beta-HCG of 700

Answer 2

a. gestational sac measuring 28 mm with no embryo or yolk sac also a criteria (should have embryo >25mm)Absence of embryo with heart beat >2weeks after a scan that showed a GS with no yolk sac.Absence of embryo with heart beat >11 days after scan with GS and yolk sac,Suspcious:no embryo 6 weeks after LMP, enlarged yolk sac (>7mm), empty amnion,

Question 3

98. 46 year old female with a painful forefoot. Ultrasound identifies an effusion at the second MTPJ with thickened synovium and increased vascularity on Doppler. Findings are best in keeping with:

a. Morton’s neuroma
b. intermetatarsal bursitis
c. metatarsal stress fracture
d. adventitial bursitis
e. synovitis of the second MTPJ

Answer 3

e. synovitis of the second MTPJ

Question 4

99. Which is false regarding NAI:

a. metaphyseal fractures are characteristic (I can’t remember if it included ‘metasphyseal corner’ in the stem)
b. depressed occipital skull fractures are highly suspicious
c. posterior rib fractures have a higher specificity for abuse than anterolateral fractures
d. subdural collections of varying ages are highly suspicious
e. dislocations are highly suspicious

Answer 4

e. dislocations are highly suspicious depends. Pulled elbow can be suspicious. Monteggia/galleazi etc aren’t so much

Question 5

100. 25 year old with amenorrhoea and hyperangrogenism, US identifies a 4cm ovarian mass. Most likely in keeping with:
     a. granulosa cell tumour
     b. Leydig cell tumour
     c. mucinous cystadenoma
     d. Sertoli-Leydig tumour
     e. serous cystadenoma

Answer 5

d. Sertoli-Leydig tumour