RCOA Guide to the FRCA Examination The Primary (fourth edition) - Physics, Equipment & Monitoring, and Statistics MTF Flashcards

1
Q

When measuring central venous pressure:

A catheter inserted in an adult at the antecubital fossa should be passed no more than 20 cm up the vein

A

False. The tip of the catheter should be within superior vena cava and that distance will vary between patients.

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2
Q

When measuring central venous pressure:

The optimum internal diameter for the catheter is 0.25 mm

A

False. The usual adult size catheters are 14-16 Gauge, corresponding to 1.63 and 13 mm diameter.

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3
Q

When measuring central venous pressure:

Direct subclavian vein catheterisation can be used

A

True. Either internal jugular or subclavian vein could be used as long as the catheter tip is located in the superior vena cava.

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4
Q

When measuring central venous pressure:

Microshock is a potential hazard

A

True. Microshock is a term describing the induction of ventricular fibrillation by small electrical currents (below the threshold of skin sensation, i.e. below 1 mA) when applied to very small areas of ventricular muscle, usually by vascular catheters or wires. It requires a small area of contact with heart muscle so that the current density is high despite low current.

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5
Q

When measuring central venous pressure:

The zero level should be set at the level of the angle of Louis
whatever the position of the patient

A

False. It is usually set at the point where the fourth intercostal space and mid-axillary line cross each other. This allows the measurement to be as close to the right atrium as possible with the patient in a supine position.

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6
Q

A liquid inhalational anaesthetic agent is allowed to come into equilibrium with a mixture of gases. Under these conditions, the partial pressure of the agent in the resulting gas mixture depends on:

The atmospheric pressure

A

False. At this point an inhalational agent will be at its saturated vapour pressure (SVP). It is only the temperature of the liquid that influences the SVP. The higher the temperature, the higher the SVP.

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7
Q

A liquid inhalational anaesthetic agent is allowed to come into equilibrium with a mixture of gases. Under these conditions, the partial pressure of the agent in the resulting gas mixture depends on:

The surface area of the liquid

A

False. At this point an inhalational agent will be at its saturated vapour pressure (SVP). It is only the temperature of the liquid that influences the SVP. The higher the temperature, the higher the SVP.

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8
Q

A liquid inhalational anaesthetic agent is allowed to come into equilibrium with a mixture of gases. Under these conditions, the partial pressure of the agent in the resulting gas mixture depends on:

The volume of the liquid

A

False. At this point an inhalational agent will be at its saturated vapour pressure (SVP). It is only the temperature of the liquid that influences the SVP. The higher the temperature, the higher the SVP.

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9
Q

A liquid inhalational anaesthetic agent is allowed to come into equilibrium with a mixture of gases. Under these conditions, the partial pressure of the agent in the resulting gas mixture depends on:

The composition of the gas mixture

A

False. At this point an inhalational agent will be at its saturated vapour pressure (SVP). It is only the temperature of the liquid that influences the SVP. The higher the temperature, the higher the SVP.

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10
Q

A liquid inhalational anaesthetic agent is allowed to come into equilibrium with a mixture of gases. Under these conditions, the partial pressure of the agent in the resulting gas mixture depends on:

The temperature of the liquid

A

True. At this point an inhalational agent will be at its saturated vapour pressure (SVP). It is only the temperature of the liquid that influences the SVP. The higher the temperature, the higher the SVP.

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11
Q

The correct SI unit for:

Force is the pascal

A

False. Pascal is the Sl unit of pressure. 1Pa = 1N/m^2.

Force is expressed in Newtons. 1N=1kg.m.s^-2: A force of 1 N will give a mass of 1 kg an acceleration of 1 m per second.

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12
Q

The correct SI unit for:

Mass is the gram

A

False. The Sl unit of mass is the kilogram.

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13
Q

The correct SI unit for:

Time is the second

A

True

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14
Q

The correct SI unit for:

Length is the metre

A

True

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15
Q

The correct SI unit for:

Energy is the watt

A

False. Watt is a derived unit of power (the rate of doing work, J S^-1).

The unit of energy is Joule. 1J = 1 N.m. One Joule is the energy expended when the point of application of a force of 1N moves 1 m in the direction of the force.

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16
Q

The following are true of critical temperature:

Critical temperature is the temperature above which a substance cannot be liquefied however much pressure is applied

A

True. This is a definition of critical temperature.

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17
Q

The following are true of critical temperature:

The critical temperature of oxygen is -119°C

A

True.

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18
Q

The following are true of critical temperature:

Nitrous oxide cylinders always contain liquid nitrous oxide

A

False. At the very end of its use, there is no liquid left in the cylinder only vapour. This is when the pressure in the cylinder starts to drop rapidly. In addition, at temperatures above its critical temperature the cylinder will contain only gas.

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19
Q

The following are true of critical temperature:

The critical temperature of nitrous oxide is 48.5°C

A

False. The critical temperature of nitrous oxide is 36.5°C.

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20
Q

The following are true of critical temperature:

Critical pressure is the vapour pressure of a substance at its critical temperature

A

False. The critical pressure of a substance is the pressure required to liquefy a gas at its critical temperature.

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21
Q

According to laws of physics:

Boyle’s Law assumes that molecular size is unimportant

A

True. Boyle’s Law is an ideal gas law and assumes among other things that molecular size is unimportant.

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22
Q

According to laws of physics:

Boyle’s Law states that the volume of a gas varies inversely with pressure

A

True. This is the definition of Boyle’s Law

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23
Q

According to laws of physics:

Charles Law predicts that as the temperature of a mass of gas is raised from 10°C to 20°C its volume will double.

A

False. Charles Law states that at a constant pressure, the volume of a given mass of gas varies directly to its absolute temperature. Absolute temperature is measured in Kelvin. 0°C = 273K. Hence, 10°C= 10+273=283K and 20°C=20+273=293K. So, when temperature rises from 10 to 20°C the pressure only goes up by 3.5% (it does not double). The temperature change in Kelvin is only 10K (10K is 3.5% of the initial 283K).

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24
Q

According to laws of physics:

Dalton’s Law states that a gas dissolves in proportion to its partial pressure

A

False. Dalton’s Law states that in a mixture of gases, the pressure exerted by each gas is equal to the pressure which would be exerted if that gas alone were present. Hence, the total pressure exerted by the mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of individual gases.

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25
Q

According to laws of physics:

Laplace’s Law suggests that large alveoli should collapse

A

False. Laplace’s Law for spheres reads P= 2T/r, where P is the pressure gradient across the wall, T is the tangential force acting along the length of the wall and r is the radius. So in large alveoli, the radius will be larger and consequently the resultant pressure gradient across the wall will be smaller. That is why large alveoli do not collapse and there is a tendency of small alveoli to empty into large alveoli. In normal lungs this does not occur due to the presence of surfactant lining the alveoli.

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26
Q

The Doppler effect:

Applies to both electromagnetic radiation and sound

A

True. The Doppler effect for electromagnetic waves such as light is invaluable in astronomy. It has been used to measure the speed at which stars and galaxies are approaching or receeding from us.

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27
Q

The Doppler effect:

Changes the velocity of reflected ultrasound

A

False. It is the change of frequency of a signal that is key to the Doppler effect.

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28
Q

The Doppler effect:

Depends on the piezo-electric properties of some crystals

A

False. That is the true of clinical ultrasound but not the Doppler effect.

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29
Q

The Doppler effect:

Shows a shift to lower frequency if the source is moving away from the receiver

A

True. And the opposite is correct showing the shift to a higher frequency if the source is moving towards the receiver.

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30
Q

The Doppler effect:

Can indicate the velocity of red blood cells

A

True. The sound waves reflect from surfaces of the red blood cells as they approach and move away. Analysis of the reflected frequencies allows determination of velocity of flow.

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31
Q

Sevoflurane vapour:

Concentration can be measured using a refractometer

A

True. The refractometer, sometimes called the interferometer can measure the concentration of any inhalational agent. It measures the extent to which light is bent (i.e. refracted) when it moves from air into a sample.

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32
Q

Sevoflurane vapour:

Is less dense than air

A

False.

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33
Q

Sevoflurane vapour:

Absorbs ultraviolet radiation

A

False. It absorbs infrared radiation.

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34
Q

Sevoflurane vapour:

Can be measured by absorption of infrared radiation

A

True. That is the principle of infrared analyser when used to measure the concentration of sevoflurane and other substances containing two dissimilar atoms in a molecule.

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35
Q

Sevoflurane vapour:

Can be measured by mass spectrometry

A

True. Mass spectrometry works by ionising chemical compounds to generate charged molecules or molecular fragments. Their mass-to-charge ratios are then measured.

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36
Q

The Bain coaxial breathing system:

Delivers the fresh gas flow in the outer tube

A

False. The inner tube carries the fresh gas flow. By contrast, the coaxial Mapleson A system (Lack) carries the fresh gas flow in the outer tube.

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37
Q

The Bain coaxial breathing system:

Requires a fresh gas flow equal to the patient’s minute volume to prevent rebreathing with spontaneous respiration

A

False. Rebreathing would definitely occur at a fresh gas flow equal to minute ventilation. To prevent rebreathing, a fresh gas flow of 2-4 times per minute ventilation is usually quoted.

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38
Q

The Bain coaxial breathing system:

Can be used in a child weighing 20 kg

A

True. In fact, it has been safely used in children weighing less than 20 kg.

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39
Q

The Bain coaxial breathing system:

Has a dead space which is increased if the inner tube is dislodged at the machine end

A

True. Apparatus dead space is that volume of a breathing system that contains alveolar gases that are inhaled on a subsequent breath. Following this disconnection, it is increased. Alveolar gases would be pushed towards (rather than away from) the patient by the fresh gas flow risking dangerous accumulation of carbon dioxide.

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40
Q

The Bain coaxial breathing system:

Can function as a Mapleson C system

A

False. It is Mapleson D. The Mapleson classification is specific about the spatial relationship between fresh gas flow input, reservoir bag, APL valve and tubing in the system.

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41
Q

The following are true of piped gases:

The normal pipeline pressure for nitrous oxide is 4.1 Bar

A

True. Nitrous oxide, oxygen and medical air are all supplied at a pipeline pressure of 4.1 Bar.

42
Q

The following are true of piped gases:

The changeover valve incorporated in a cylinder bank works on a pneumatic shuttle mechanism

A

True. As the pressure within the in-use bank of cylinders falls, a passive shuttle is pushed over by the higher pressure within the adjacent full cylinder bank and a continuous downstream pressure is maintained. No power supply is required, other than to sound an alarm.

43
Q

The following are true of piped gases:

The non interchangeability of Schrader valves depends on varying sizes of collars on the probes

A

True. For safety, the collars are pipeline specific and non-interchangeable. Alongside non-interchangeable screw threads (NIST) on pipeline connections and the pin index system on cylinder yokes, they are key to the safe delivery of the correct gases through an anaesthetic machine.

44
Q

The following are true of piped gases:

The Schrader outlet contains an internal non-return valve

A

True. The outlets feature on both the positive pressure gas and sub atmospheric vacuum pipelines.

45
Q

The following are true of piped gases:

When reinstating oxygen pipelines after servicing, testing with an oxygen analyser ensures the integrity of the system

A

False. An oxygen analyser would detect the presence of oxygen, but not the maintenance of pressure within the pipeline. The latter would also be needed to comment on the integrity of the system.

46
Q

The following are true of the measurement of oxygen concentration:

Oxygen is a paramagnetic gas because its molecule has paired electrons in the outer shell

A

False. Unpaired electrons in the outer shell are needed for paramagnetism. Therefore, magnesium, lithium, molybdenum and tantalum also exhibit paramagnetism.

47
Q

The following are true of the measurement of oxygen concentration:

In a paramagnetic analyser, the two glass spheres are filled with oxygen

A

False. The glass spheres are full of nitrogen which is weakly diamagnetic (slightly repelled by the magnetic field).

48
Q

The following are true of the measurement of oxygen concentration:

In a paramagnetic analyser, rotation of the dumb-bell is balanced by torsion in a suspending filament

A

True. The tension of suspending ligament determines the orientation of the dumb-bell in the magnetic field.

49
Q

The following are true of the measurement of oxygen concentration:

In a null-deflection analyser, an opposing magnetic field prevents movement of the dumb-bell

A

True. In this device, photocells are used to control a variable current that induces a magnetic field that exactly offsets the movement due to the paramagnetic effect of the oxygen. The current is used to calculate the oxygen concentration.

50
Q

The following are true of the measurement of oxygen concentration:

Water vapour affects paramagnetic oxygen analysis

A

True. Water vapour affects the accuracy of many gas analysers including the paramagnetic gas analyser. The water vapour can also coat the internal mechanism.

51
Q

The following are true of viscosity:

Established turbulent flow is independent of viscosity

A

True. In contrast to laminar flow and transitional flow (at the Reynolds number), viscosity changes do not affect established turbulent flow.

52
Q

The following are true of viscosity:

Viscosity of blood increases with plasma protein concentration

A

True. Plasma protein concentration and haematocrit are the two key determinants of blood viscosity. Pathological increases in plasma proteins (such as seen in multiple myeloma) cause a hyperviscosity syndrome.

53
Q

The following are true of viscosity:

Increased viscosity reduces blood flow

A

True. The Hagen-Poiseuille equation states that laminar fluid flow exhibits a reciprocal relationship with viscosity.

54
Q

The following are true of viscosity:

Low temperature raises blood viscosity

A

True. This relationship is true of most liquids.

55
Q

The following are true of viscosity:

Helium improves gas flow through an orifice by reducing viscosity

A

False. It is the density of helium that is most important.

56
Q

The following are true of manometers:

7.5 mm mercury is equivalent to 10.2 cm water

A

True. 1 kPa = 1000 Nm2, 0.01 Bar, 0.01 atmospheres, 7.5mm Hg
and 10.2 cm H2O

57
Q

The following are true of manometers:

1 kPa is equal to a pressure of 7.5 mm mercury

A

True. 1 kPa = 1000 Nm2, 0.01 Bar, 0.01 atmospheres, 7.5mm Hg
and 10.2 cm H2O

58
Q

The following are true of manometers:

The top of a mercury manometer is closed to prevent contamination and spillage

A

False. It is essential that the top be open to allow pressure measurement relative to a constant atmospheric pressure. A manometer therefore measures gauge pressure.

59
Q

The following are true of manometers:

A mercury barometer used to measure atmospheric pressure is sealed with a vacuum above the surface of the liquid

A

True. Compared to a manometer, a barometer specifically measures atmospheric pressure. Therefore, the top is closed to allow generation of a Torricellian vacuum. This allows absolute ambient pressure to be measured by the height of the mercury column.

60
Q

The following are true of manometers:

Aneroid gauges do not contain liquid

A

True. The word ‘aneroid’ means ‘no liquid.

61
Q

Measurement of peak expiratory flow rate:

Reveals a normal diurnal variation of less than 10%

A

True. PEFR shows a nocturnal and early morning dip of up to 10%. A diurnal variation of 20% and above has been suggested as a useful indicator of asthmatic tendency.

62
Q

Measurement of peak expiratory flow rate:

Is made ideally using a Vitalograph

A

False. A peak flow meter is more appropriate. A Vitalograph could be used in theory, but is bulky and would require subsequent analysis of its graphical output.

63
Q

Measurement of peak expiratory flow rate:

With a Wright’s peak flow meter uses the principle of a constant orifice with a variable pressure drop

A

False. It is a variable orifice device.

64
Q

Measurement of peak expiratory flow rate:

Can be achieved using a’rapid’ capnograph

A

False. A rapid capnograph only measures partial pressure of carbon dioxide against time and not gas flow or volume. In any event, the physiological dead space volume of expiration would not be detected

65
Q

Measurement of peak expiratory flow rate:

Produces a reading which is normally 450 - 650 L min in the adult

A

True.

66
Q

Transducers:

Convert one form of energy into another

A

True. This is the definition of a transducer.

67
Q

Transducers:

Amplify the original signal

A

False. Their only function is to convert one form of energy to another. They cannot therefore increase it. To amplify a signal, a separate amplification system is required.

68
Q

Transducers:

Can be active or passive

A

True. Active transducers generate electric current or voltage directly in response to environmental stimulation. (For example thermocouples and piezoelectric accelerometers.) Passive transducers produce a change in a passive electrical quantity, such as capacitance, resistance, or inductance, as a result of stimulation.
(For example strain gauges, resistance temperature detectors and thermistors.)

69
Q

Transducers:

Display a physiological event on an oscilloscope

A

False. Their only function is to convert one form of energy to another. They cannot therefore increase it. To amplify a signal, a separate amplification system is required.

70
Q

Transducers:

Are used in the measurement of body temperature

A

True.

71
Q

The following are true of the measurement of body fluid volumes:

Total blood volume can be measured directly using inulin

A

False. Inulin is used to measure ECF volume (as well as GFR).

72
Q

The following are true of the measurement of body fluid volumes:

Extracellular fluid volume is measured using deuterium oxide or tritium

A

False. Deuterium oxide or tritium are isotopes of water, so can be used to measure total body water; ECF volume can be subtracted from this to give ICF volume.

73
Q

The following are true of the measurement of body fluid volumes:

Intracellular fluid volume is measured indirectly from extracellular volume and total body water

A

True. IF volume cannot be measured directly, so must be inferred from extracellular and total body water.

74
Q

The following are true of the measurement of body fluid volumes:

Plasma volume is measured with radio-iodinated albumin

A

True. Albumin is a large molecule which stays in plasma.

75
Q

The following are true of the measurement of body fluid volumes:

Total red cell volume is measured with chromium-labelled red cells

A

True. 51Cr is an isotope that can be used to tag RBCs; thereby it can be used to calculate RBC volume.

76
Q

Anaesthetic gas cylinders:

Are made of galvanised steel

A

False. Steel alloy cylinders are made of either manganese molybdenum steel, chromium molybdenum steel or nickel chromium molybdenum steel.

77
Q

Anaesthetic gas cylinders:

For nitrous oxide contain it as a liquid

A

True. Nitrous oxide is stored in cylinders below its critical temperature, so is a vapour in equilibrium with its liquid.

78
Q

Anaesthetic gas cylinders:

Filling ratio is the volume of the cylinder contents divided by the volume of water the cylinder could hold

A

False. Filling ratio is the weight of the cylinder contents divided by the weight of water it could hold.

79
Q

Anaesthetic gas cylinders:

Filling ratio for nitrous oxide in the UK is 0.9

A

False. The ratio in UK is 0.75.

80
Q

Anaesthetic gas cylinders:

May cool if gas flow rates are high

A

True. Adiabatic expansion of the gas being released at high flow rate will result in the gas cooling and therefore the cylinder will cool as well.

81
Q

In a well designed clinical study:

A power of 50% is satisfactory

A

False. The power of a trial is the probability of avoiding a type Il statistical error (when the null hypothesis is incorrectly accepted).
A power of 80% is required in a well designed trial.

82
Q

In a well designed clinical study:

Double blinding ensures only the investigators are aware of the nature of the treatment

A

False. Double blinding means both investigators and participants are unaware of the nature of the treatment.

83
Q

In a well designed clinical study:

A pilot study can predict the number of patients required

A

True. Pilot studies are used for this purpose before committing to the expense of a larger trial.

84
Q

In a well designed clinical study:

Confidence intervals in each group are large

A

False. A wide confidence interval means that there is less confidence that a variable under study lies within a well defined range; a well designed trial will therefore possess narrow confidence intervals.

85
Q

In a well designed clinical study:

A Chi Squared test can compare the sex distribution

A

True. The Chi Squared test is designed to test the difference between expected and observed observations and therefore lends itself to testing differences in sex distribution in a well designed trial.

86
Q

The standard deviation of a sample from a normally distributed characteristic in a population:

Describes the degree of bias in choosing the sample

A

False. Standard deviation (SD) describes the scatter in the observations around their mean value, and says nothing about bias.

87
Q

The standard deviation of a sample from a normally distributed characteristic in a population:

Determines the deviation about the mean which half the values might be expected to show

A

False.

88
Q

The standard deviation of a sample from a normally distributed characteristic in a population:

Is the square root of the variance

A

True. This is the definition of SD.

89
Q

The standard deviation of a sample from a normally distributed characteristic in a population:

Identifies limits of the deviation either side of the mean which include approximately two-thirds of the values

A

True. In a normally distributed population, 68.3 % of the values lie within 1 SD of the mean, 95.4% lie within 2 SD, and 99.7% lie within 3 SD of the mean.

90
Q

The standard deviation of a sample from a normally distributed characteristic in a population:

Is greater than the standard error of the mean

A

True. The SEM is the SD/(number in sample), so SD > SEM.

91
Q

For the eight observations: 0,1,1, 1,2,4,5, 10:

The range is 1 to 10

A

False. The range is 0 to 10.

92
Q

For the eight observations: 0,1,1, 1,2,4,5, 10:

The standard deviation is a good measure of dispersion

A

False. This is clearly an asymmetric distribution skewed towards lower values.

93
Q

For the eight observations: 0,1,1, 1,2,4,5, 10:

The median is 1.5

A

True. As there are an even number of observations, the median (the middlemost value) is the average of the two either side of the hypothetical middle value.

94
Q

For the eight observations: 0,1,1, 1,2,4,5, 10:

The distribution is skewed

A

True. The distribution is positively skewed.

95
Q

For the eight observations: 0,1,1, 1,2,4,5, 10:

The distribution is bimodal

A

False. The most frequent observation in this sample is 1 (three observations), all the other values occur once only; the sample is therefore a skewed, unimodal set, not bimodal.

96
Q

The following are true of electrical safety:

Skin impedance is increased if faulty apparatus is touched with wet hands

A

False. Wetting the skin reduces its electrical impedance and increases the risk of shock.

97
Q

The following are true of electrical safety:

Electrical shock is not a risk with potentials below 24V AC or 50V DC

A

False. Although 24 V AC or 50 V DC are the upper values in Class 3 (low voltage) electrical equipment, and macroshock is unlikely, it is not impossible and does not preclude microshock.

98
Q

The following are true of electrical safety:

The modern diathermy return plate is not connected directly to earth

A

True. The principle of electrical safety is to prevent leakage currents to earth. The diathermy plate could form an electrical pathway to earth for a leakage current from any circuit with a patient attachment, not just the diathermy circuit. So modern thinking precludes earthing.

99
Q

The following are true of electrical safety:

Microshock can cause ventricular fibrillation via an intracardiac catheter with current of 150 microamps

A

True. Microshock, which is shock from an electrical contact placed within the body, can cause ventricular fibrillation at currents above 100 microamps.

100
Q

The following are true of electrical safety:

Leakage currents may be caused by voltages induced in other circuits by alternating mains current

A

True. There are a number of causes of leakage current. All current carrying conductors have an associated magnetic field; a changing magnetic field from an alternating current induces a voltage in neighbouring conductors, which may be the cause of an unintended leakage current.