RBC Flashcards

1
Q

Insufficient erythropoisis refers to the production of _____ RBC ______

A

Low number; RBC precursors

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2
Q

Term referring to the total mass of RBC in the blood and marrow

A

ERYTHRON

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3
Q

What type of abnormal eythropoeisis do thalassemia and sideroblastic anemia, vit b12/folate deficiency produce?

A

INEFFECTIVE erythropoeisis

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4
Q

3 conditions that result in the decrease in the production of RBC count (insufficient erythropoeisis)

A
  1. IDA
  2. RENAL DISEASE
  3. ACUTE LEUKEMIA
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5
Q

Colony Forming Unit- Erythroid is a type of what RBC cell

A

Progenitor = morphologically UNIDENTIFIABLE

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6
Q

Classical marker of HSC

A

CD 34

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7
Q

Earliest marker of erythroid differentiation is ______

It also functions as ______

A
  1. CD 71

2. Aka TRANSFERRIN RECEPTOR

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8
Q

The major mechanism of EPO that increases RBC mass is via

A

Prevention of apoptosis

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9
Q

Primary cell source of EPO is

A

Peritubular interstitial cell

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10
Q

Progenitor cells such as CFU-E is target by what hormone?

A

EPO

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11
Q

3 mechanisms why EPO can increase RBC count

A
  1. Decrease maturation time
  2. Early reticulocyte release
  3. Apoptosic Rescue
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12
Q

This is a non-dialyzable and thermos table hormone

A

EPO

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13
Q

What is labelled to RBC in order to determine survival time? This is reported in ___

A
  1. Chromium-51

2. 51Cr half survival time

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14
Q

What is the normal RBC survival time range

A

28-38 days

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15
Q

What hormone has an application in enabling autologous predonation

A

EPO

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16
Q

Hormone produced by the testes is ______

Action: ______

Affects what organ:______

A
  1. Testosterone
  2. Indirect stimulation of EPO
  3. Signals kidney to produce EPO
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17
Q

Which 2 hormones directly stimulate erythropoeisis. Which organs secrete/produce them?

A

GH (pituitary gland)

Prolactin (Ant. Pituitary gland)

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18
Q

Main reason why males have higher RBC mass than females

A

Hormones. Females have ESTROGEN = inhibits EPO (INDIRECTLY)

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19
Q

Estrogen mechanism of action

A

Inhibits EPO production by suppressing its production in kidney

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20
Q

Which hormone secreted by the pituitary gland that affects the BM

A

GH

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21
Q

Blood doping may result to what condition/s

A

Arterial and venous thrombosis

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22
Q

In order for HIV-anemic patients to use Zidovudine (AZT), what is needed?

A

EPO

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23
Q

One BFU-E matures, how long does it stay in the bone marrow being a recognizable precursor

A

6 days

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24
Q

How long does BFU-E mature?

A

18-21 days

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25
Q

Examples of supravital stains

A
  1. New methylene blue

2. Brilliant cresyl blue

26
Q

Other names of EARLY NORMOBLAST

A
  1. Basophilic normoblast/ erythroblast

2. Prorubricyte

27
Q

Metarubricyte is also known as

A

Orthochromatic normoblast/ erythroblast

28
Q

When reticulocytes are Wright-stained, they are now termed as:

A
  1. Polychromatophilic erythrocytes

2. Diffusely basophilic erythrocytes

29
Q

Which stage is the pink acidophilic stain visible on red cells

A

Rubricyte/ polychromatic normoblast

30
Q

How many nucleolus can be seen in prorubricytes/ basophilic normoblasts

A

None to 1

31
Q

It is in this stage that nuclear membrane becomes thick

A

Rubricyte/ polychromatic

32
Q

Most helpful criteria to distinguish rubriblast from prorubricyte

A

PRORUBRICYTE:

  1. Coarser chromatin
  2. No nucleoli
33
Q

Which RBC precursor is often confused with lymphocytes?

A

Rubricyte

34
Q

Blueness/ basophilic intensity correlates with the _____

A

Amount of rRNA

35
Q

Last stage capable of dividing

A

rubricyte

36
Q

1st stage that Hb is produced

A

Prorubricyte

37
Q

Earliest recognizable precursor ____ N:C ratio is ____

A
  1. Rubriblast

2. (8:1)

38
Q

Checkered nucleus is a helpful distinguishing criteria of which precursor. This helps the RMT from confusing it from what cell

A

Rubricyte has checker nucleus; gray cytoplasm to differentiate it from LYMPHOCYTE

39
Q

Appearance of lymphocyte to differentiate it from orthochromatic normoblast

A

Nucleus - crushed velvet

Cytoplasm - sky blue or robin egg

40
Q

Which stage you begin to notice acidophilia/ pink color in cytoplasm

A

Polychromatophilic/ Rubricyte

41
Q

Which RBC precursor cytoplasm has same color with a mature RBC

A

Late normoblast/ orthochromatic/ Metarubricyte

42
Q

3 alternative name of Metarubricyte

A
  1. Acidophilic
  2. NRBC
  3. Pyknotic
43
Q

The presence of _____may indicate that a patient has no spleen

A

Howell-Jolly bodies

44
Q

Last stage with a nucleoli

A

Prorubricyte/ basophilic/early

45
Q

Last stage with a nucleus

A

Metarubricyte/ orthochromatic/ late

46
Q

_____ is an enveloped extruded nucleus

A

Pyrenocyte

47
Q

Small DNA fragments left in a cell is called ____

A

Howell jolly body

48
Q

A dense mass of degenerated chromatin is referred as

A

Pyknotic

49
Q

Which part of ACIDOPHILIC erythroblast is seen as color salmon pink?

A

Cytoplasm

50
Q

Before becoming a mature RBC, reticulocytes spend how many days in the peripheral blood

A

1 day

51
Q

Reticulocytes spend ______ days in the bone marrow before maturing

A

2 to 3 days

52
Q

Severe conditions such as hemolytic anemia cause the appearance of what type of reticulocytes??

A

Stress reticulocyte a.k.a MACROreticulocyte

53
Q

Polychromatophilic macrocytes is also known as ______; this is seen in what cases?

A
  1. SHIFT retics

2. Seen in increased RBC production

54
Q

What 3 components are still present in reticulocyte that enable the production of hemoglobin and aerobic metabolism

A

RNA, Golgi body, mitochondria remnants

55
Q

1st stage of Hemoglobinization

A

Prorubricyte / basophilic / early

56
Q

Last stage of hemoglobinization

A

Reticulocyte

57
Q

Production of ____ WBC & ___ PLT = ____ RBC ____RBC, respectively

A

1 WBC = 600 RBC

1 PLT = 15 RBC

58
Q

How many Metarubricyte is made from 1 rubricyte?

A

2

59
Q

1 basophilic normoblast can produce ______

A

1 prorubricyte = 4 rubricyte

60
Q

1 rubriblast can produce _____

A

2 prorubricyte

61
Q

Color of cytoplasm in reticulocyte

A

Polychromatophilic since there are still small amounts of RNA left