Rationales and questions did not get or want to know Flashcards

1
Q

Bullous impetigo is most commonly caused from

A

Staph aureus

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2
Q

bacteria most commonly assoicated with otitis externa is

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

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3
Q

CDC recommends check for 45 year old check for AIC is to be done

A

twice a yr and goal is <7

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4
Q

Which of the following signs and symptoms would be present in a patient with viral conjunctivitis?

A

Preauricular lymphadenopathy

known commonly by the layman’s term “pink eye” typically presents with watery discharge. As well, discharge may begin in one eye, and progress to the other. Preauricular lymphadenopathy is also common with viral conjunctivitis.

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5
Q

According to AHA guidelines, the nurse practitioner should begin initiating medications for a hypertensive patient when their BP is 130-139/80-89 at what ASCVD cutoff point?

A

10%
According to the AHA/ACC Hypertension guidelines, a patient is in Stage 1 Hypertension when the systolic BP is 130-139 mmHg or the diastolic BP is 80-89 mmHg. For patients in Stage 1, it is appropriate to initiate antihypertensives if their ASCVD risk score is 10% or greater.

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6
Q

Which electrolyte is regulated by the hormone made by the parathyroid gland?

A

Calcium

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7
Q

A 47-year-old male patient presents with vague abdominal complaints, and you order a hepatitis B panel. Here are the results: + IgM, - IgG, + HBsAg, - Anti-HBs. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of these results?

A

Acute Hep B infection

+IgM can be used as a hallmark sign of an acute infection. When IgM is positive on a hepatitis B panel, this indicates that the patient is acutely infected. Furthermore, the +HBsAg is a marker of the protein on the surface of the hepatitis B virus that is positive when the virus is present, either in acute or chronic hepatitis b. IgG becomes positive when infection is cleared, or there is a chronic infection. Anti-HBs would be positive if the patient is vaccinated, or immune from exposure to hepatitis B.

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8
Q

When is it appropriate to do Alpha-Fetoprotein (AFP) testing in pregnant patients to test for possible Down syndrome or neural tubal defects?

A

15 to 20 weeks
low levels mean down syndrome
High levels indicate spina bifida

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9
Q

Your middle-aged patient decides to begin lifestyle modifications such as diet and exercise to avoid the risk of going from labs being consistent with pre-diabetes to being consistent with type 2 diabetes. This is an example of which of the following?

A

Health belief models
The health belief model is used for health promotion and disease prevention. According to the health belief model, patients will take positive health actions to avoid perceived negative health outcomes. In this scenario, the patient will modify diet and exercise to avoid the negative outcome of diabetes.

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10
Q

A 39-year-old female patient is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) today during her visit. She has no significant past medical history. Which of the following is the most effective medication that can be administered for GERD?

A

Omeprazole (prilosec(
PPI

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11
Q

Which of the following tests would be the most helpful in diagnosing a patient with a meniscal injury?

A

Apley Grind test

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12
Q

Patient complains of an acute onset of muscle pain (not related to physical exertion), muscle weakness, and dark urine (myoglobinuria). Muscle tenderness and swelling may be seen, which rules out compartment syndrome. Myoglobins released from damaged muscle result in reddish-brown or tea-colored urine.

A

Rhabdomyolysis

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13
Q

Acute Pyelonephritis

A

Patient presents with acute onset of high fever, chills, nausea/vomiting, dysuria, frequent urination, and unilateral flank pain. The flank pain is described as a deep ache. May complain of nausea (with/without vomiting) and may have a recent history of urinary tract infection (UTI). Indications for hospitalization include inability to maintain oral hydration, persistently high fever (>101.0°F/>38.4°C), toxic appearance, immune compromise, or suspicion of sepsis or noncompliance to treatment.

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14
Q

Patient presents with abrupt onset of oliguria, edema, and weight gain (fluid retention) and complains of lethargy, nausea, and loss of appetite. The condition is characterized by rapid decrease in renal function and elevated serum creatinine.

A

Acute kidney injury

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15
Q

Some of the most common causes of drug-induced AKI are

A

aminoglycosides, contrast agents, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, and protease inhibitors.

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16
Q

Elderly male patient (median age at diagnosis: 73 years) who smokes presents with painless hematuria. The hematuria can be microscopic or gross (pink- to reddish-color urine). Some patients only notice this problem after they see a blood-tinged stain on underwear (males, menopausal females). The hematuria may only appear at the end of voiding. May have irritative voiding symptoms (dysuria, frequent urination, nocturia) that are not related to a UTI.

A

bladder cancer

17
Q

bladder cancer order what

A

Order a urinalysis (UA), urine culture and sensitivity (C&S), and urine for cytology.

18
Q

Creatinine Clearance - 24 hour urine

A

This test is ordered to evaluate patients with proteinuria, albuminuria, and microalbuminuria. It is a more sensitive test than serum creatinine alone because it reflects the renal function within a 24-hour period

19
Q

EGFR should be above what

A

90

20
Q

African americans GFR is what

A

higher

21
Q

how much RBC is considered normal

A

<3 cells

22
Q

Quad screen is routinely done to test for

A

trisomy 18 and 21 for down syndrome

23
Q

primary horomone secreted by the corpus luteum is the

A

progesterone - to help support preganancy

24
Q

complication of untreated chlamydia is

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease

25
Q

A patient presents to the clinic reporting vaginal itching. Vulvar erythema, edema, and white vaginal discharge are present on exam.

The nurse practitioner diagnoses vulvovaginal candidiasis.

Which is a risk factor for this condition?

A

Increased estrogen levels

26
Q

The nurse practitioner is reviewing a chest X-ray of an adult patient. Which of the following is a diagnostic feature of cardiomegaly?

A

cardiothoracic ration >50%

27
Q

mitral stenosis causes a

A

thrill and can be palpated on adult

28
Q

lichen simplex chornicus is due to

A

repeated scratching or rubbing, commonly associated with atopic dermatitis

29
Q
A