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Anatomy > RAT 4 > Flashcards

RAT 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a core principle?

A

Basic concept that is scene throughout anatomy and physiology and relate to homeostasis

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2
Q

What are four core principles?

A

feedback loops, the relationship of structure and function, gradients, and cell-cell communication

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3
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

When the body maintains internal environment stable

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4
Q

What is a homeostatic imbalance?

A

a disturbance in homeostasis

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5
Q

What is an example of a homeostatic imbalance?

A

having too much sugar in the blood for a long term can cause there to be damage (nerves, blood vessels, kidneys, and eyes)

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6
Q

What is a regulated variable?

A

The variables in the internal environment that are controlled so that a homeostatic imbalance is prevented

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7
Q

What is a feedback loop?

A

a homeostatic control mechanism in which a change in a regulated variable causes effects that feed back and affect the same variable

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8
Q

What is a negative feedback loop?

A

Opposing the initial change and reducing the output

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9
Q

How does a negative feedback loop help maintain homeostasis?

A

It effects the initial change. When there is a variable that shifts from the normal range then a negative feedback loop will work in the opposite direction to get it back to normal.

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10
Q

What is a set point?

A

The normal range of values of a regulated variable

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11
Q

Are variables maintained at an exact set point?

A

Yes they are

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12
Q

What is the role of a receptor (sensor) in a feedback loop?

A

A receptor detects change in a variable and it sends the stimulus to the control center

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13
Q

What is the role of a control center in a feedback loop?

A

it receives a stimulus from the receptor and regulates the output of an effector

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14
Q

What is the role of an effector in a feedback loop?

A

An effector can be a cell or organ that causes a physiological response that return the variable to the normal range

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15
Q

What is a positive feedback loop?

A

A type of feedback loop in which the effectors activity increases, reinforcing the initial stimulus and amplifying the response of the effector

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16
Q

Do effects in a positive feedback loop continue indefinitely?

A

Effects in a positive feedback loop do not continue indefinitely because they eventually stop

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17
Q

Is negative feedback bad for the body?

A

not necessarily because it does promote homeostasis

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18
Q

Does homeostasis mean that the body’s internal environment is static?

A

No because changes sometimes do happen within the environment

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19
Q

Are feedback loops either “on” or “off”?

A

Since the body is a dynamic place something is always going on so that means that they are on to a certain degree

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20
Q

Can any physiological variable be controlled?

A

no, they can be controlled through feedback loops only if cells with receptors exist to detect changes in a set point

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21
Q

What is the principle of complementarity of structure and function?

A

A core principle of anatomy and physiology; states that the structure of a chemical, cell, tissue, or organ is always such that it best suits its functions

aka form follows function

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22
Q

What are examples of the principles of complementarity of structure and function?

A

-blood vessels are hollow tubes that can transport blood through the body
-hard and strong bones support and frame the body
-hollow and muscular urinary bladder stores and expels urine

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23
Q

What is a gradient ?

A

A condition in which more of something exists in one area than in another, and the two areas are connected

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24
Q

What are the three types of gradients?

A

Temperature gradient (it will be warmer at the core and as you step away it becomes cooler), concentration gradient (imagine a pill and it dissolves in water) , and pressure gradient

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25
Q

Why is cell-cell communication important in the body?

A

It is required for them to be able to work together

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26
Q

What are two major methods by which cells communicate?

A

electrical signals or chemical messengers

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27
Q

Facial bones include

A

nasal bone, lacrimal bone, palatine bone, zygomatic bone, inferior nasal concha, vomer bone, maxilla

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28
Q

Cranial bones include

A

Frontal bone, Parietal bone, Sphenoid bone, Ethmoid bone, temporal bone, occipital bone

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29
Q

Frontal bone contains (Great Sarah Farmmen Sucked Margaritas )

A

glabella, supraorbital foramen, supraorbital margin

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30
Q

Parietal bone contains (Sea coral squishes low)

A

sagittal suture, coronal suture, squamous suture, lambdoid suture

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31
Q

Occipital bone contains (fm,oc,eop,snl,inl)

A

formen magnum, occipital condyles, external occipital protuberance, superior nuchal line, inferior nuchal line

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32
Q

What passes through the foramen magnum?

A

the spinal cord

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33
Q

What articulates at the occipital condyles?

A

first cervical vertebra

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34
Q

Temporal bone contains

A

squamous region, zygomatic process, mandibular fossa, tympanic region, external acoustic meatus, styloid process, mastoid region, mastoid process, petrous region, internal acoustic meatus

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35
Q

What articulates with the mandibular fossa?

A

the mandible

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36
Q

What does the external acoustic meatus lead to?

A

the middle ear

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37
Q

Which surface is considered the petrous region?

A

it is located in the internal or medial surface of the temporal bone

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38
Q

Sphenoid bone contains

A

body, sphenoidal sinuses, sella turcica, greater wings, lesser wings, pterygoid process

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39
Q

How is the sphenoid bone unique?

A

it articulates with every other cranial bone

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40
Q

Ethmoid bone contains

A

cribriform plate, cribriform foramina, crista galli, perpendicular plate, ethmoidal sinuses, superior nasal concha, middle nasal concha

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41
Q

What pass through the cribriform foramina?

A

nerves that detect smell

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42
Q

What is the role of the crista galli?

A

it serves as an attachment for the membranes surrounding the brain

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43
Q

What structure is formed (in part) by the perpendicular plate?

A

nasal septum

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44
Q

Lacrimal bones contain

A

lacrimal fossa

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45
Q

What substance drains through the lacrimal fossa?

A

tears

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46
Q

Zygomatic bones contain

A

zygomatic arch

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47
Q

What is a common name for the zygomatic bones?

A

cheek bones

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48
Q

Palatine bones are shaped like what letter of the alphabet?

A

L shaped

49
Q

The top of the perpendicular plates form a small piece of what structure?

A

the large perpendicular plates form part of the lateral walls of the nasal cavity and a tiny piece of the orbit

50
Q

The horizontal plates for (in part) what structure?

A

posterior part of the hard palate

51
Q

Mandible contains

A

Mandibular body, mandibular rami, mandibular angles, coronoid process, condylar process, mandibular condyle

52
Q

What is the function of the coronoid process?

A

It serves as an attachment for a major chewing muscle

53
Q

What articulates with the mandibular condyles?

A

the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone

54
Q

Maxillae contains

A

Palatine process, maxillary sinus

55
Q

What is the singular form of maxillae?

A

maxilla

56
Q

Which nasal conchae are part of another bone?

A

the middle nasal conchae

57
Q

Which bone is the middle nasal conchae part of?

A

the ethmoid bone

58
Q

What is the singular form of conchae?

A

concha

59
Q

What is the vomer?

A

It is the deepest facial bone

60
Q

What is the vertebral column?

A

the spine that has 33 bones called the vertebrae

61
Q

What are the different types of vertebrae?
cookies at 7, tea at 12, linner at 5

A

cervical vertebrae
thoracic vertebrae
lumbar vertebrae

62
Q

How many of each is found is a typical adult?

A

7 cervical vertebrae
12 thoracic vertebrae
5 lumbar vertebrae

63
Q

What is the abbreviation system used for vertebrae?

A

We refer to each individual vertebra with a letter abbreviation, which signifies its type, and a subscript number that indicates its position, from superior to inferior, in the vertebral column

64
Q

What is an intervertebral foramen?

A

The space between most of the moveable unfused vertebrae

65
Q

What emerges through these openings in the unfused vertebrae?

A

spinal nerve roots

66
Q

What is the normal spinal curvatures?

A

concave cervical curvature
lumbar curvature
thoracic curvature
sacral curvature

67
Q

Which curvatures are considered primary curvatures?

A

thoracic curvature and sacral curvature are considered primary curvatures because they were present in the fetus’ original c shaped vertebral column

68
Q

Which curvatures are considered secondary curvatures?

A

cervical and lumbar curvatures are considered secondary curvatures because they develop after

69
Q

What are three abnormal spinal curvatures?

A

Scoliosis
Lordosis
Kyphosis

70
Q

What are characteristics of Scoliosis?

A

characterized by lateral curvatures in the vertebral column that give it a C or S shape when viewed from the posterior or anterior side

71
Q

What are characteristics of Lordosis?

A

characterized by exaggerated cervical and lumbar curvatures

72
Q

What are characteristics of Kyphosis?

A

the thoracic curvature is exaggerated, giving a “hunchback” appearance. It is caused by joint conditions such as arthritis, bone conditions such as osteoporosis and vertebral fractures, and developmental abnormalities of the skeleton.

73
Q

What is the plural form of vertebra?

A

vertebrae

74
Q

What are some features unique to cervical vertebrae?

A

the holes in their transverse processes, called transverse foramina.

75
Q

What is the name given to C1?

A

Atlas

76
Q

What is unique about C1?

A

It holds the head
It has no vertebral body or spinous process, and instead has two anterior arches that meet at the anterior tubercle, and two posterior arches that meet at the posterior tubercle.

77
Q

What is name given to C2?

A

Axis

78
Q

What is unique about C2?

A

its most notable feature is a superior projection from the body known as the Dens or odontoid process

79
Q

What are some features that are unique to thoracic vertebrae?

A

their heart-shaped bodies, circular vertebral foramina, and long spinous processes that point inferiorly

80
Q

What are some features unique to lumbar vertebrae?

A

heir large kidney-shaped bodies, thick spinous processes that point posteriorly, and vertebral foramina shaped like a flattened triangle make them easy to recognize

81
Q

Which part of the sacrum articulates with the pelvic bones?

A

The sacrum’s two lateral surfaces, the auricular surfaces, articulate with the two pelvic bones.

82
Q

What other bones articulate with the sacrum?

A

Its superior surface, the flattened base, articulates with the fifth lumbar vertebra at its superior articular processes. The inferior surface, which articulates with the coccyx, is called the apex.

83
Q

Which surface of the sacrum is very bumpy?

A

posterior (median sacral crest)

84
Q

Which surface of the sacrum is relatively smooth?

A

Anterior

85
Q

What are the transverse lines?

A

the result of fused sacral bodies and indicates the former limits of the individual vertebrae.

86
Q

What is the continuation of the vertebral canal called in the sacrum?

A

sacral canal

87
Q

What is found in Sacral canal ?

A

contains nerve roots from the spinal cord as well as surrounding connective tissue membranes

88
Q

Where are the intervertebral discs located?

A

between two vertebrae
ex: the first one is between C2 and C3, and the final one is between L5 and S1

89
Q

What are intervertebral discs made of?

A

fibrocartilage

90
Q

Describe fibrocartilage

A

it is tough, flexible and bounces back into shape when stretched

91
Q

What are the two components of an intervertebral disc?

A

The nucleus pulposus (soft, inner, jelly like substance), and the Annulus fibrosus (surrounds the nucleus pulposus and holds it place and the vertebrae together)

92
Q

Which bones compose the thoracic cage?

A

the sternum, the 12 pairs of ribs, and the thoracic vertebrae

93
Q

What are the three portions of the sternum?

A

Manubrium -top part
Body
Xiphoid process

94
Q

What is the notch on the superior surface of the sternum?

A

suprasternal notch

95
Q

What are the two notches on the lateral surfaces of the sternum?

A

Clavicular notches

96
Q

What is the sternal angle?

A

where the cartilages of the second ribs attach where the manubrium and the body meet

97
Q

How many ribs are in the typical man or women?

A

12 pairs (24 individual)

98
Q

What is the term for the space between ribs?

A

intercostal spaces

99
Q

What is the costal cartilage composed of?

A

the hyaline cartilage which provides strong but flexible support

100
Q

Which ribs are considered false ribs?

A

ribs 8-12

101
Q

Why are they considered false ribs?

A

they do not attach to the sternum directly

102
Q

Which ribs are considered floating ribs?

A

ribs 11 and 12

103
Q

Why are they considered floating ribs?

A

they do not attach at all to the sternum

104
Q

What two key properties must the molecules of the plasma membrane have ?

A

it has to be hydrophilic and hydrophobic

105
Q

What is the basic processes of cells?

A
106
Q

Give examples of cell specialization

A
107
Q

How is cell specialization achieved?

A
108
Q

Describe the components found in human cells

A
109
Q

What are their functions

A
110
Q

Where are intracellular and extracellular fluids located?

A
111
Q

Give examples of structural variation found in human cells

A
112
Q

How does this relate to a core principle

A
113
Q

What molecules have these properties?

A
114
Q

What happens when phospholipids are placed in water?

A

The heads face the water and the tails face away from the water

115
Q

How does the Fluid Mosaic Model of the Plasma Membrane demonstrate a mosaic and fluidity?

A

The model that describes the plasma membrane as a dynamic structure consisting of a phospholipid bilayer with multiple components interspersed throughout and throughout the phospholipid bilayer of the plasma membrane are various proteins, other kinds of lipids and carbohydrates. Together they resemble a mosaic.

116
Q

What is a membrane protein?

A

a protein molecule that is attached or associated with the membrane of a cell or an organelle

117
Q

What are five functions of membrane protein?

A

acting as channels, acting as carriers, acting as receptors, acting as enzymes, providing structural support and linking adjacent cells

118
Q

What are the other components of the plasma membrane?

A
119
Q

What is their function?

A

Anatomy (6 decks)

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