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USMLE 2 > Rapid Review 2 > Flashcards

Rapid Review 2 Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

The most common 1° malignant tumor of bone.

A

Multiple myeloma

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2
Q

Unilateral, severe periorbital headache with tearing and conjunctival erythema.

A

Cluster headache

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3
Q

Prophylactic treatment for migraine.

A

β-blockers, Ca2+ channel blockers, TCAs

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4
Q

The most common pituitary tumor. Treatment?

A

Prolactinoma. Dopamine agonists (e.g., bromocriptine)

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5
Q

A 55-year-old patient presents with acute “broken speech.” What type of aphasia? What lobe and vascular distribution?

A

Broca’s aphasia. Frontal lobe, left MCA distribution

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6
Q

The most common cause of SAH.

A

Trauma; the second most common is berry aneurysm

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7
Q

A crescent-shaped hyperdensity on CT that does not cross the midline.

A

Subdural hematoma—bridging veins torn

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8
Q

A history significant for initial altered mental status with an intervening lucid interval. Diagnosis? Most likely etiology? Treatment?

A

Epidural hematoma. Middle meningeal artery. Neurosurgical evacuation

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9
Q

CSF findings with SAH.

A

Elevated ICP, RBCs, xanthochromia

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10
Q

Albuminocytologic dissociation.

A

Guillain-Barré (↑ protein in CSF with only a modest ↑ in cell count)

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11
Q

Cold water is flushed into a patient’s ear, and the fast phase of the nystagmus is toward the opposite side. Normal or pathological?

A

Normal

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12
Q

The most common 1° sources of metastases to the brain.

A

Lung, breast, skin (melanoma), kidney, GI tract

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13
Q

May be seen in children who are accused of inattention in class and confused with ADHD.

A

Absence seizures

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14
Q

The most frequent presentation of intracranial neoplasm.

A

Headache

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15
Q

The most common cause of seizures in children (2–10 years).

A

Infection, febrile seizures, trauma, idiopathic

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16
Q

The most common cause of seizures in young adults (18–35 years).

A

Trauma, alcohol withdrawal, brain tumor

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17
Q

First-line medication for status epilepticus.

A

IV benzodiazepine

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18
Q

Confusion, confabulation, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia.

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy due to a deficiency of thiamine

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19
Q

What % lesion is an indication for carotid endarterectomy?

A

Seventy percent if the stenosis is symptomatic

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20
Q

The most common causes of dementia.

A

Alzheimer’s and multi-infarct

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21
Q

Combined UMN and LMN disorder.

A

ALS

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22
Q

Rigidity and stiffness with resting tremor and masked facies.

A

Parkinson’s disease

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23
Q

The mainstay of Parkinson’s therapy.

A

Levodopa/carbidopa

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24
Q

Treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome.

A

IVIG or plasmapheresis

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25
Q

Rigidity and stiffness that progress to choreiform movements, accompanied by moodiness and altered behavior.

A

Huntington’s disease

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26
Q

A six-year-old girl presents with a port-wine stain in the V2 distribution as well as with mental retardation, seizures, and leptomeningeal angioma.

A

Sturge-Weber syndrome. Treat symptomatically. Possible focal cerebral resection of affected lobe

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27
Q

Café-au-lait spots on skin.

A

Neurofibromatosis 1

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28
Q

Hyperphagia, hypersexuality, hyperorality, and hyperdocility.

A

Klüver-Bucy syndrome (amygdala)

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29
Q

Administer to a symptomatic patient to diagnose myasthenia gravis.

A

Edrophonium

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30
Q

1° causes of third-trimester bleeding.

A

Placental abruption and placenta previa

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31
Q

Classic ultrasound and gross appearance of complete hydatidiform mole.

A

Snowstorm on ultrasound. “Cluster-of-grapes” appearance on gross examination

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32
Q

Chromosomal pattern of a complete mole.

A

46,XX

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33
Q

Molar pregnancy containing fetal tissue.

A

Partial mole

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34
Q

Symptoms of placental abruption.

A

Continuous, painful vaginal bleeding

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35
Q

Symptoms of placenta previa.

A

Self-limited, painless vaginal bleeding

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36
Q

When should a vaginal exam be performed with suspected placenta previa?

A

Never

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37
Q

Antibiotics with teratogenic effects.

A

Tetracycline, fluoroquinolones, aminoglycosides, sulfonamides

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38
Q

Shortest AP diameter of the pelvis.

A

Obstetric conjugate: between the sacral promontory and the midpoint of the symphysis pubis

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39
Q

Medication given to accelerate fetal lung maturity.

A

Betamethasone or dexamethasone × 48 hours

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40
Q

The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage.

A

Uterine atony

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41
Q

Treatment for postpartum hemorrhage.

A

Uterine massage; if that fails, give oxytocin

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42
Q

Typical antibiotics for group B streptococcus (GBS) prophylaxis.

A

IV penicillin or ampicillin

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43
Q

A patient fails to lactate after an emergency C-section with marked blood loss.

A

Sheehan’s syndrome (postpartum pituitary necrosis)

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44
Q

Uterine bleeding at 18 weeks’ gestation; no products expelled; membranes ruptured; cervical os open.

A

Inevitable abortion

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45
Q

Uterine bleeding at 18 weeks’ gestation; no products expelled; cervical os closed.

A

Threatened abortion

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46
Q

The first test to perform when a woman presents with amenorrhea.

A

β-hCG; the most common cause of amenorrhea is pregnancy

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47
Q

Term for heavy bleeding during and between menstrual periods.

A

Menometrorrhagia

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48
Q

Cause of amenorrhea with normal prolactin, no response to estrogen-progesterone challenge, and a history of D&C.

A

Asherman’s syndrome

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49
Q

Therapy for polycystic ovarian syndrome.

A

Weight loss and OCPs

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50
Q

Medication used to induce ovulation.

A

Clomiphene citrate

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51
Q

Diagnostic step required in a postmenopausal woman who presents with vaginal bleeding.

A

Endometrial biopsy

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52
Q

Indications for medical treatment of ectopic pregnancy.

A

Stable, unruptured ectopic pregnancy of < 3.5 cm at < 6 weeks’ gestation

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53
Q

Medical options for endometriosis.

A

OCPs, danazol, GnRH agonists

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54
Q

Laparoscopic findings in endometriosis.

A

“Chocolate cysts,” powder burns

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55
Q

The most common location for an ectopic pregnancy.

A

Ampulla of the oviduct

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56
Q

How to diagnose and follow a leiomyoma.

A

Ultrasound

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57
Q

Natural history of a leiomyoma.

A

Regresses after menopause

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58
Q

A patient has ↑ vaginal discharge and petechial patches in the upper vagina and cervix.

A

Trichomonas vaginitis

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59
Q

Treatment for bacterial vaginosis.

A

Oral or topical metronidazole

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60
Q

The most common cause of bloody nipple discharge.

A

Intraductal papilloma

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61
Q

Contraceptive methods that protect against PID.

A

OCP and barrier contraception

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62
Q

Unopposed estrogen is contraindicated in which cancers?

A

Endometrial or estrogen receptor– x0001 breast cancer

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63
Q

A patient presents with recent PID with RUQ pain.

A

Consider Fitz-Hugh–Curtis syndrome

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64
Q

Breast malignancy presenting as itching, burning, and erosion of the nipple.

A

Paget’s disease

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65
Q

Annual screening for women with a strong family history of ovarian cancer.

A

CA-125 and transvaginal ultrasound

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66
Q

A 50-year-old woman leaks urine when laughing or coughing. Nonsurgical options?

A

Kegel exercises, estrogen, pessaries for stress incontinence

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67
Q

A 30-year-old woman has unpredictable urine loss. Examination is normal. Medical options?

A

Anticholinergics (oxybutynin) or Beta-adrenergics (metaproterenol) for urge incontinence.

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68
Q

Lab values suggestive of menopause.

A

↑ serum FSH

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69
Q

The most common cause of female infertility.

A

Endometriosis

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70
Q

Two consecutive findings of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS) on Pap smear. Follow-up evaluation?

A

Colposcopy and endocervical curettage

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71
Q

Breast cancer type that ↑ the future risk of invasive carcinoma in both breasts.

A

Lobular carcinoma in situ

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72
Q

Nontender abdominal mass associated with elevated VMA and HVA.

A

Neuroblastoma

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73
Q

The most common type of tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF). Diagnosis?

A

Esophageal atresia with distal TEF (85%). Unable to pass NG tube

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74
Q

Not contraindications to vaccination.

A

Mild illness and/or low-grade fever, current antibiotic therapy, and prematurity

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75
Q

Tests to rule out shaken baby syndrome.

A

Ophthalmologic exam, CT, and MRI

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76
Q

A neonate has meconium ileus.

A

CF or Hirschsprung’s disease

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77
Q

Bilious emesis within hours after the first feeding.

A

Duodenal atresia

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78
Q

A two-month-old presents with nonbilious projectile emesis. What are the appropriate steps in management?

A

Correct metabolic abnormalities. Then correct pyloric stenosis with pyloromyotomy

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79
Q

The most common 1° immunodeficiency.

A

Selective IgA deficiency

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80
Q

An infant has a high fever and onset of rash as fever breaks. What is he at risk for?

A

Febrile seizures (roseola infantum)

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81
Q

Acute-phase treatment for Kawasaki disease.

A

High-dose aspirin for inflammation and fever; IVIG to prevent coronary artery aneurysms

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82
Q

Treatment for mild and severe unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

A

Phototherapy (mild) or exchange transfusion (severe)

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83
Q

Sudden onset of mental status changes, emesis, and liver dysfunction after taking aspirin.

A

Reye’s syndrome

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84
Q

A child has loss of red light reflex. Diagnosis?

A

Suspect retinoblastoma

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85
Q

Vaccinations at a six-month well-child visit.

A

HBV, DTaP, Hib, IPV, PCV

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86
Q

Tanner stage 3 in a six-year-old female.

A

Precocious puberty

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87
Q

Infection of small airways with epidemics in winter and spring.

A

RSV bronchiolitis

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88
Q

Cause of neonatal RDS.

A

Surfactant deficiency

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89
Q

What is the immunodeficiency? ■ A boy has chronic respiratory infections. Nitroblue tetrazolium test is +.

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

90
Q

What is the immunodeficiency? ■ A child has eczema, thrombocytopenia, and high levels of IgA.

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

91
Q

What is the immunodeficiency? ■ A four-month-old boy has life-threatening Pseudomonas infection.

A

Bruton’s X-linked agammaglobulinemia

92
Q

A condition associated with red “currant-jelly” stools.

A

Intussusception

93
Q

A congenital heart disease that cause 2° hypertension.

A

Coarctation of the aorta

94
Q

First-line treatment for otitis media.

A

Amoxicillin × 10 days

95
Q

The most common pathogen causing croup.

A

Parainfluenza virus type 1

96
Q

A homeless child is small for his age and has peeling skin and a swollen belly.

A

Kwashiorkor (protein malnutrition)

97
Q

Defect in an X-linked syndrome with mental retardation,

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome (purine salvage problem with

98
Q

Defect in an X-linked syndrome with mental retardation, gout, self-mutilation, and choreoathetosis.

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome (purine salvage problem with HGPRTase deficiency)

99
Q

A newborn female has continuous “machinery murmur.”

A

Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

100
Q

First-line pharmacotherapy for depression.

A

SSRIs

101
Q

Antidepressants associated with hypertensive crisis.

A

MAOIs

102
Q

Galactorrhea, impotence, menstrual dysfunction, and ↓ libido.

A

Patient on dopamine antagonist

103
Q

A 17-year-old female has left arm paralysis after her boyfriend dies in a car crash. No medical cause is found.

A

Conversion disorder

104
Q

Name the defense mechanism: ■ A mother who is angry at her husband yells at her child.

A

Displacement

105
Q

Name the defense mechanism: ■ A pedophile enters a monastery.

A

Reaction formation

106
Q

Name the defense mechanism: ■ A woman calmly describes a grisly murder.

A

Isolation

107
Q

Name the defense mechanism: ■ A hospitalized 10-year-old begins to wet his bed.

A

Regression

108
Q

Life-threatening muscle rigidity, fever, and rhabdomyolysis.

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

109
Q

Amenorrhea, bradycardia, and abnormal body image in a young female.

A

Anorexia

110
Q

A 35-year-old male has recurrent episodes of palpitations, diaphoresis, and fear of going crazy.

A

Panic disorder

111
Q

The most serious side effect of clozapine.

A

Agranulocytosis

112
Q

A 21-year-old male has three months of social withdrawal, worsening grades, flattened affect, and concrete thinking.

A

Schizophreniform disorder (diagnosis of schizophrenia requires ≥ 6 months of symptoms)

113
Q

Key side effects of atypical antipsychotics.

A

Weight gain, type 2 DM, QT prolongation

114
Q

A young weight lifter receives IV haloperidol and complains that his eyes are deviated sideways. Diagnosis? Treatment?

A

Acute dystonia (oculogyric crisis). Treat with benztropine or diphenhydramine

115
Q

Medication to avoid in patients with a history of alcohol withdrawal seizures.

A

Neuroleptics

116
Q

A 13-year-old male has a history of theft, vandalism, and violence toward family pets.

A

Conduct disorder

117
Q

A five-month-old girl has ↓ head growth, truncal dyscoordination, and ↓ social interaction.

A

Rett’s disorder

118
Q

A patient hasn’t slept for days, lost $20,000 gambling, is agitated, and has pressured speech. Diagnosis? Treatment?

A

Acute mania. Start a mood stabilizer (e.g., lithium)

119
Q

After a minor fender bender, a man wears a neck brace and requests permanent disability.

A

Malingering

120
Q

A nurse presents with severe hypoglycemia; blood analysis reveals no elevation in C peptide.

A

Factitious disorder (Munchausen syndrome)

121
Q

A patient continues to use cocaine after being in jail, losing his job, and not paying child support.

A

Substance abuse

122
Q

A violent patient has vertical and horizontal nystagmus.

A

Phencyclidine hydrochloride (PCP) intoxication

123
Q

A woman who was abused as a child frequently feels outside of or detached from her body.

A

Depersonalization disorder

124
Q

A man has repeated, intense urges to rub his body against unsuspecting passengers on a bus.

A

Frotteurism (a paraphilia)

125
Q

A schizophrenic patient takes haloperidol for one year and develops uncontrollable tongue movements. Diagnosis? Treatment?

A

Tardive dyskinesia. ↓ or discontinue haloperidol and consider another antipsychotic (e.g., risperidone, clozapine)

126
Q

A man unexpectedly flies across the country, takes a new name, and has no memory of his prior life.

A

Dissociative fugue

127
Q

Risk factors for DVT.

A

Stasis, endothelial injury and hypercoagulability (Virchow’s triad)

128
Q

Criteria for exudative effusion.

A

Pleural/serum protein > 0.5; pleural/serum LDH > 0.6

129
Q

Causes of exudative effusion.

A

Think of leaky capillaries. Malignancy, TB, bacterial or viral infection, pulmonary embolism with infarct, and pancreatitis

130
Q

Causes of transudative effusion.

A

Think of intact capillaries. CHF, liver or kidney disease, and protein-losing enteropathy

131
Q

Normalizing PCO2 in a patient having an asthma exacerbation may indicate?

A

Fatigue and impending respiratory failure

132
Q

Dyspnea, lateral hilar lymphodenopathy on CXR, noncaseating granulomas, increased ACE, and hypercalcemia.

A

Sarcoidosis

133
Q

PFT showing ↓ FEV1/FVC.

A

Obstructive pulmonary disease (e.g., asthma)

134
Q

PFT showing ↑ FEV1/FVC.

A

Restrictive pulmonary disease

135
Q

Honeycomb pattern on CXR. Diagnosis? Treatment?

A

Diffuse interstitial pulmonary fibrosis. Supportive care. Steroids may help

136
Q

Treatment for SVC syndrome.

A

Radiation

137
Q

Treatment for mild, persistent asthma.

A

Inhaled β-agonists and inhaled corticosteroids

138
Q

Acid-base disorder in pulmonary embolism.

A

Hypoxia and hypocarbia

139
Q

Non–small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) associated with hypercalcemia.

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

140
Q

Lung cancer associated with SIADH.

A

Small cell lung cancer (SCLC)

141
Q

Lung cancer highly related to cigarette exposure.

A

Small cell lung cancer

142
Q

A tall white male presents with acute shortness of breath. Diagnosis? Treatment?

A

Spontaneous pneumothorax. Spontaneous regression. Supplemental O2 may be helpful

143
Q

Treatment of tension pneumothorax.

A

Immediate needle thoracostomy

144
Q

Characteristics favoring carcinoma in an isolated pulmonary nodule.

A

Age > 45–50 years; lesions new or larger in comparison to old films; absence of calcification or irregular calcification; size > 2 cm; irregular margins

145
Q

Hypoxemia and pulmonary edema with normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure.

A

ARDS

146
Q

Increased risk of what infection with silicosis?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

147
Q

Causes of hypoxemia.

A

Right-to-left shunt, hypoventilation, low inspired O2 tension, diffusion defect, V/Q mismatch

148
Q

Classic CXR findings for pulmonary edema.

A

Cardiomegaly, prominent pulmonary vessels, Kerley B lines, “bat’s-wing” appearance of hilar shadows, and perivascular and peribronchial cuffing

149
Q

Renal tubular acidosis (RTA) associated with abnormal H+ secretion and nephrolithiasis.

A

Type I (distal) RTA

150
Q

RTA associated with abnormal HCO3 − and rickets.

A

Type II (proximal) RTA

151
Q

RTA associated with aldosterone defect.

A

Type IV (distal) RTA

152
Q

“Doughy skin.”

A

Hypernatremia

153
Q

Differential of hypervolemic hyponatremia.

A

Cirrhosis, CHF, nephritic syndrome

154
Q

Chvostek’s and Trousseau’s signs.

A

Hypocalcemia

155
Q

The most common causes of hypercalcemia.

A

Malignancy and hyperparathyroidism

156
Q

T-wave flattening and U waves.

A

Hypokalemia

157
Q

Peaked T waves and widened QRS.

A

Hyperkalemia

158
Q

First-line treatment for moderate hypercalcemia.

A

IV hydration and loop diuretics (furosemide)

159
Q

Type of ARF in a patient with FeNa < 1%.

A

Prerenal

160
Q

A 49-year-old male presents with acute-onset flank pain and hematuria.

A

Nephrolithiasis

161
Q

The most common type of nephrolithiasis.

A

Calcium oxalate

162
Q

A 20-year-old man presents with a palpable flank mass and hematuria. Ultrasound shows bilateral enlarged kidneys with cysts. Associated brain anomaly?

A

Cerebral berry aneurysms (AD PCKD)

163
Q

Hematuria, hypertension, and oliguria.

A

Nephritic syndrome

164
Q

Proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, hyperlipiduria, edema.

A

Nephrotic syndrome

165
Q

The most common form of nephritic syndrome.

A

Membranous glomerulonephritis

166
Q

The most common form of glomerulonephritis.

A

IgA nephropathy (Berger’s disease)

167
Q

Glomerulonephritis with deafness.

A

Alport’s syndrome

168
Q

Glomerulonephritis with hemoptysis.

A

Wegener’s granulomatosis and Goodpasture’s syndrome

169
Q

Presence of red cell casts in urine sediment.

A

Glomerulonephritis/nephritic syndrome

170
Q

Eosinophils in urine sediment.

A

Allergic interstitial nephritis

171
Q

Waxy casts in urine sediment and Maltese crosses (seen with lipiduria).

A

Nephrotic syndrome

172
Q

Drowsiness, asterixis, nausea, and a pericardial friction rub.

A

Uremic syndrome seen in patients with renal failure

173
Q

A 55-year-old man is diagnosed with prostate cancer. Treatment options?

A

Wait, surgical resection, radiation and/or androgen suppression

174
Q

Low urine specific gravity in the presence of high serum osmolality.

A

DI

175
Q

Treatment of SIADH?

A

Fluid restriction, demeclocycline

176
Q

Hematuria, flank pain, and palpable flank mass.

A

Renal cell carcinoma (RCC)

177
Q

Testicular cancer associated with β-hCG, AFP.

A

Choriocarcinoma

178
Q

The most common type of testicular cancer.

A

Seminoma—a type of germ cell tumor

179
Q

The most common histology of bladder cancer.

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

180
Q

Complication of overly rapid correction of hyponatremia.

A

Central pontine myelinolysis

181
Q

Salicylate ingestion → in what type of acid-base disorder?

A

Anion gap acidosis and 1° respiratory alkalosis due to central respiratory stimulation

182
Q

Acid-base disturbance commonly seen in pregnant women.

A

Respiratory alkalosis

183
Q

Three systemic diseases → nephrotic syndrome.

A

DM, SLE, and amyloidosis

184
Q

Elevated erythropoietin level, elevated hematocrit, and normal O2 saturation suggest?

A

Renal cell carcinoma or other erythropoietin-producing tumor; evaluate with CT scan

185
Q

A 55-year-old man presents with irritative and obstructive urinary symptoms. Treatment options?

A

Likely BPH. Options include no treatment, terazosin, finasteride, or surgical intervention (TURP)

186
Q

Class of drugs that may cause syndrome of muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, autonomic instability, and extrapyramidal symptoms.

A

Antipsychotics (neuroleptic malignant syndrome)

187
Q

Side effects of corticosteroids.

A

Acute mania, immunosuppression, thin skin, osteoporosis, easy bruising, myopathies

188
Q

Treatment for DTs.

A

Benzodiazepines

189
Q

Treatment for acetaminophen overdose.

A

N-acetylcysteine

190
Q

Treatment for opioid overdose.

A

Naloxone

191
Q

Treatment for benzodiazepine overdose.

A

Flumazenil

192
Q

Treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

A

Dantrolene or bromocriptine

193
Q

Treatment for malignant hypertension.

A

Nitroprusside

194
Q

Treatment of AF.

A

Rate control, rhythm conversion, and anticoagulation

195
Q

Treatment of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT).

A

Rate control with carotid massasge or other vagal stimulation

196
Q

Causes of drug-induced SLE.

A

INH, penicillamine, hydralazine, procainamide

197
Q

Macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia with neurologic symptoms.

A

B12 deficiency

198
Q

Macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia without neurologic symptoms.

A

Folate deficiency

199
Q

A burn patient presents with cherry-red flushed skin and coma. SaO2 is normal, but carboxyhemoglobin is elevated. Treatment?

A

Treat CO poisoning with 100% O2 or with hyperbaric O2 if severe poisoning or pregnant

200
Q

Blood in the urethral meatus or high-riding prostate.

A

Bladder rupture or urethral injury

201
Q

Test to rule out urethral injury.

A

Retrograde cystourethrogram

202
Q

Radiographic evidence of aortic disruption or dissection.

A

Widened mediastinum (> 8 cm), loss of aortic knob, pleural cap, tracheal deviation to the right, depression of left main stem bronchus

203
Q

Radiographic indications for surgery in patients with acute abdomen.

A

Free air under the diaphragm, extravasation of contrast, severe bowl distention, space-occupying lesion (CT), mesenteric occlusion (angiography)

204
Q

The most common organism in burn-related infections.

A

Pseudomonas

205
Q

Method of calculating fluid repletion in burn patients.

A

Parkland formula

206
Q

Acceptable urine output in a trauma patient.

A

50 cc/hour

207
Q

Acceptable urine output in a stable patient.

A

30 cc/hour

208
Q

Cannon “a” waves.

A

Third-degree heart block

209
Q

Signs of neurogenic shock.

A

Hypotension and bradycardia

210
Q

Signs of ↑ ICP (Cushing’s triad).

A

Hypertension, bradycardia, and abnormal respirations

211
Q

↓ CO, ↓ pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP), ↑ peripheral vascular resistance (PVR).

A

Hypovolemic shock

212
Q

↓ CO, ↑ PCWP, ↑ PVR.

A

Cardiogenic shock

213
Q

↑ CO, ↓ PCWP, ↓ PVR.

A

Septic or anaphylactic shock

214
Q

Treatment of septic shock.

A

Fluids and antibiotics

215
Q

Treatment of cardiogenic shock.

A

Identify cause; pressors (e.g., dobutamine)

216
Q

Treatment of hypovolemic shock.

A

Identify cause; fluid and blood repletion

217
Q

Treatment of anaphylactic shock.

A

Diphenhydramine or epinephrine 1:1000

218
Q

Supportive treatment for ARDS.

A

Continuous positive airway pressure

219
Q

Signs of air embolism.

A

A patient with chest trauma who was previously stable suddenly dies

220
Q

Trauma series.

A

AP chest, AP/lateral C-spine, AP pelvis

USMLE 2 (5 decks)

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