Mneumonics Flashcards

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1
Q

Barbie Likes Clothes Cars & Mycum from my Rod

A

G+ Rods:

Bacillus
Listeria
Clostridium
Corynebacterium
Mycobacterium
Barbie = Bacillus
Likes = Listeria
Clothes = Clostridium
Cars = Corynebacterium
Mycum = Mycobacterium
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2
Q

Branch out & Act like No One Cares

A

G+ Branching Filamentous

Actinomyces
Nocardia

ACT = Actinomyces
No One CARes = NOCARdia

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3
Q

Not Likely To Be Considered G- Rods

A

G- Non-Rod Bacterium

Neisseria
Leptospira
Treponema
Borrelia
Chlamydia
Rickettsiae

Not = Neisseria - Circular
Likely To Be = Leptospira, Treponema, Borrelia - Spiral
Considered Rods = Chlamydiae, Rickettsiae - Pleomorphic

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4
Q

Treed Leapords Spiral around when Bored

A

G- Spiral

Treponema
Leptospira
Borrelia

Treed = Treponema
Leapords = Leptospira
Bored = Borrelia
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5
Q

These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color

A

Bugs that don’t Gram stain well

Treponema
Rickettsia
Mycobacteria
Mycoplasma
Legionella pneumophila
Chlamydia

Mostly Non-Rod G- (except Legionella = G- Rod)

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6
Q

PASs the sugar

A

PAS stains glycogen

Used in diagnosing Whipple’s disease (Tropheryma Whippelii)

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7
Q

to connect to Neisseria, please use your VPN client

A

Neisseria Gonorrhea culture requires VPN

Vancomycin
Polymyxin
Nystatin

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8
Q

Bordet for …….?

A

Bordet for Bordetella

B Pertussis requires Bordet-Gengou agar

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9
Q

Nagging Pests Must Breath

A

Obligate aerobes which use an O2-dependent system to generate ATP

Nocardia
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Bacillus

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10
Q

MY NO (nitric oxide) CAR BAsically Produces AER (air)

A

Obligate Aerobes

Mycobacterium
Nocardia
Bacillus
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

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11
Q

anaerobes Can’t Breathe Air

A

Obligate Anaerobes

Clostridium
Bacteroides
Actinomyces

All lack catalase & superoxide dismutase

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12
Q

stay inside when it is Really Cold

A

Obligate Intracellular bugs

Rickettsia
Chlamydia

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13
Q

Some Nasty Bugs May Live Faculatively Longer

A

Faculative Intracellular bugs

Salmonella
Neisseria
Brucella
Mycobacterium
Listeria
Francisella
Legionella
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14
Q

Kapsules produce A Shield to protect SHiN

A

Encapsulated Bacteria & IgA Proteases (SHiN)

Klebsiella
Salmonella

S. Pneumoniae
H. influenzae
Neisseria meningitidis

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15
Q

Particular Kinds Have Urease

A

Urease-Positive bugs

Proteus
Klebsiella
H. Pylori
Ureaplasma

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16
Q

Israelli’s produce Yellow Sulfur bombs

A

Pigment-producing bacteria:

Actinomyces Israelii - Yellow “sulfur” granules

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17
Q

Aureus (latin) = gold

A

S. Aureus produces yellow pigment

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18
Q

aeruGela is Green

A

pseudomonas aeruGinosa produces blue-Green pigment

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19
Q

Cholera turns the “on” switch on

A

B. Cholera toxin activates Gs

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20
Q

Pertussis turns the “off” switch off

A

Pertussis toxin disables Gi

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21
Q

N-dotoxin is an integral part of ……..?

A

N-dotoxin (endotoxin) is an integral part of gram-Negative outer membrane

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22
Q

Lysogeny: “ABCDE”

A

Toxins produced by a lysogenic phage:

shigA-like 
Botulinum
Cholera
Diphtheria
Erythrogenic toxin from S. Pyogenes
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23
Q

cAtalase positive = ?

strEptococcus is: catalase positive or negative??

A

cAtalase pos = stAphylococcus

strEptococcus = catalase nEgative

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24
Q

on the offices STAPH retreat, there was NO StRES

A

Staphylococci:

NOvobiocin - Saprophyticus is Resistant
Epidermidis is Sensitive

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25
Q

OVRPS (overpass)

A

Streptococci

Optochin - Viridans is Resistant
Pneumoniae is Sensitive

Both are alpha hemolytic

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26
Q

B-BRAS

A

Streptococci

Bacitracin - group B strep are Resistant (S. Agalactiae)
group A strep are Sensitive (S. Pyogenes)

Both are Beta hemolytic

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27
Q

MOPS

A

S. Pneumoniae causes:

Meningitis
Otitis media
Pneumonia
Sinusitis

S. Pneumo is also Most OPtochin Sensitive (MOPS)

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28
Q

rheumatic PHever has no “rheum” for SPECCulation

A

Rheumatic Fever is caused by Pharyngitis as a result of S. Pyogenes

Rheumatic fever causes:
Subcutaneous plaques
Polyarthritis
Erythema marginatum
Chorea
Carditis
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29
Q

Diptheria “ABCDEFG”

A

Corynebacterium Diphtheriae

ADP ribosylation (inhibits protein synthesis)
Beta-prophage
Corynebacterium
Diphtheriae
Elongation Factor 2 (ribosylated to inhibit protein synthesis)
Granules (metachromatic granules present on lab diagnosis)

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30
Q

PERFringens PERForates a gangernous leg

A

C. Perfingens causes myonecrosis (gas gangrene) and hemolysis

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31
Q

DIfficile causes DIarrhea

A

C. Difficile kills enterocytes, causing pseudomembranous colitis = diarrhea

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32
Q

SNAP

A

Sulfa drugs for Nocardia asteroides

Actinomyces israelii use Penicillin

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33
Q

macConKEE’S agar tests for lactose

A

Lactose + bacteria:

Citrobacter
Klebsiella
E. coli
Enterobacter
Serratia
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34
Q

When a child has “flu” mom goes to a five (V) and dime (X) store to buy some chocolate

A

H. Influenzae requires factor V and X for growth

Requires Chocolate agar for growth

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35
Q

A French legionnair with a silver helmet, sits by a campfire (charcoal) with his iron dagger - he is no sissy (cysteine)

A

Legionella Pneumophila

Requires Silver Stain for stain & Charcoal yeast for culture w/ Iron & Cysteine

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36
Q

Roundworms draw MAPps (drugs for roundworms)

A

Mebendazole
Albendazole
Pyrantel pamoate

Roundworms:  
Trichuris Trichiura
Ascaris Lumbricoides
Necator & Ancylostoma
Enterobius Vermicularis
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37
Q

Thread on Albert’s skin makes him itchy (drugs for threadworms)

A

Thiabendazole
Albendazole

Threadowrms:
Cutaneous larval migrans
Strongyloides

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38
Q

Prazaquantel looks like a spelling fluke (drug for flukes)…what are the flukes

A

Prazaquantel treats flukes:

Schistosoma
Clonorchis Sinensis
Paragonimus Westermani

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39
Q

I don’t have a clue why I smell fish in the vagina garden

A

Gardnerella Vaginalis:

Fishy smell
Clue cells present micrscopically

Gray discharge

Treatment: Metronidazole

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40
Q

Rickettsia on the wRists, Typhus on the Trunk

A

Rickettsia Rickettsii rash starts on hands & feet & travels proximal

Rickettsia Typhus rash starts on the trunk and travels distally

Treatment: Tetracycline

Remember: Both Chlamydiae & Rickettsia are G- Pleomorphic & treated w/ Tets

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41
Q

you drive CARS using your PALMS & SOLES

A

PALM & SOLE rashes:

Coxsackievirus A (hand, foot, & mouth)
Rocky mtn. spotted fever
Syphilis

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42
Q

Elementary bodies Enfect by Entering cells

Reticulate bodies Replicate through cytoplasmic RNA

A

Chlamydiae infectious spread

Elemetary bodies transfer from cell to cell

Reticulate bodies replicate inside infected cells

Treatment: Tetracycline or Erythromycin

Remember: Both Chlamydiae & Rickettsia are G- Pleomorphic & treated w/ Tets

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43
Q

Military & Prison personel are affected by this type of Pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma Pneumonia (Military & Prisons)

Treatment: Tetracycline

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44
Q

Histo Hides…where?

A

Histpolasmosis hides w/ in Macrophages

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45
Q

Blasto Buds Broadly

A

Blastomycosis replicates via Broad-based budding

46
Q

Boo Boo (the dog) carries which kind of mycoses?

A

Blastomycosis (Boo Boo)

47
Q

Cock Suckers live in the SW

A

Coccidiodomycosis

48
Q

Paracoccidio Parasails w/ the CAPTAIN’S WHEEL all the way to LATIN AMERICA

A

Paracoccidiodomycosis forms budding yeast w/ “captain’s wheel” formations

Most common in Latin America

49
Q

Cold = Mold

Heat = yeast

A

Dimorphic fungi lifecycles (except coccidiodomycosis which is a SPHERULE in tissue)

50
Q

“Spaghetti & meatballs” on KOH prep

A

Tinea versicolor caused by Malassezia Furfur

Collects on skin surface and bleaches skin below infection by masking sun exposure

51
Q

Pseudohyphae & budding yeast is a buzz for which fungus?

A

Candida Albicans

Treatment:  Nystatin (superficial infection)
Amp B (systemic infections)
52
Q

think “A” for Acute Angles in which kind of fungal infection?

A

A for Acute Angles in Aspergillus

Branching septate hyphae form 45 degree angles

53
Q

INDIA INK is used to stain which kind of fungal infection?

A

Cryptococcus Neoformans

“Indians are creepy (crypto) informants (neoformans)”

54
Q

Which fungal disease is most commonly associated w/ ketoacidotic diabetic & leukemic pts? They often have “wide-angled branching” nonseptate hyphae

A

Mucor & Rhizopus

“Ketoacidotic diabetics have nasty mucus (mucor) that smells like rotting puss (rhizopus)”

55
Q

Diffuse interstitial pneumonia in an AIDS pt. What is the most likely agent and at what CD4 level must they be below?

A

Pneumocystitis Jiroveci

CD4<400

Treatment: TMP-SMX

56
Q

ROSE GARDERNER’S disease/infection

Local pustule or ulcer w/ nodules associated w/ thorns

A

Sporothrix Schenckii

-thrix = thorn

57
Q

Protozoan associated w/ foul-smelling, fatty diarrhea seen in campers/hikers

What is the treatment?

A

Giardia Lamblia

Treatment: Metronidazole

58
Q

Protozoan which ingests RBCs
Produces bloody diarrhea, LIVER ABSCESSES & RUQ pain

What is its treatment?

A

Entamoeba Histolytica

Treatment: Metronidazole (treats liver abscess) & Iodoquinol (treats luminal parasite in lg intestine)

59
Q

ACID-FAST protozoan associated w/ SEVERE DIARRHEA IN AIDS

A

Cryptosporidium

60
Q

RING-ENHANCING BRAIN LESIONS

“CHIC” causes triad of CHORIORETINITIS, HYDROCEPHALUS & INTRACRANIAL CALCIFICATIONS in fetus from being around cat feces

A

Toxoplasma Gondii

Treatment: Sulfadiazine + Pyrimethamine (also used for emergency treatment of Plasmodium Falciparum (malaria))

61
Q

think NALGENE bottle filled w/ FRESHWATER containing this protozoite that causes rapid fatal meningoencephalitis

A

Naegleria Fowleri

Naegleria = Nalgene

Fowleri = Freshwater waterfowl

62
Q

Tsetse Fly transmits which protozoan?

A

Trypanosoma (African sleeping sickness)

63
Q

SURe is nice to go to sleep; MELAtonin helps w/ sleep

Which treatment is this mneumonic describing?

A

SURamin for blood-borne Trypanosoma disease

MELArsoprol for CNS Trypanosoma infection

64
Q

The KISSING BUG causes MEGACOLON & MEGAESOPHAGUS by transmitting which protozoan?

A

Trypanosoma Cruzi

Treatment: Nifurtimox

65
Q

The SANDFLY causes SPIKING FEVERS & CUTANEOUS ULCERATIONS by spreading which protozoan?

A

Leishmania Donovani

Treatment: Sodium Stibogluconate

66
Q

What are your 3 options for treating non-emergent (i.e. prophylaxis or dormant) Plasmodium Falciparum or Plasmodium Vivax/Ovale?

A

Chloroquine (1st line prophylaxis)

Mefloquine (2nd line prophylaxis if CQ resistant)

Primaquine for dormant forms (P. Vivax/Ovale)

67
Q

MALTESE CROSS formation in RBCs is associated w/ which protozoan?

A

Babesia

Note: Think Babies being babtized w/ a Priest holding a cross

Babesia causes hemolytic anemia due to the RBC destruction

68
Q

“Burning green itching weed causes a foul smell that is worse than an infected vagina”

What is it’s treatment?

A

Trichomonas Vaginalis

Description: Foul-smellling, greenish discharge, burning & itching
Transmitted through sexual contact

Treatment: Metronidazole

Similar treatment to Gardnerella Vaginalis but slightly different description

69
Q

“Strong Ass Nectar Entered my Airway & Tricked Ne(matode)”

Nematodes treated w/ -bendazoles

A
Strongyloides stercoralis
Ancylostoma duodenale
Necator americanus
Enterobius vermicularis
Ascaris lumbricoides 
Trichinella spiralis
70
Q

IVERmectin is used to treat rIVER blindness…which bug is treated w/ IVERmectin?

A

Onchocerca Volvulus causes rIVER blindness

It is transmitted by BLACKflies, causes BLACK skin (hyperpigmentation), and BLACK sight (blindness)

Treated w/ IVERmectin

71
Q

“Toxic Canines can Lowly Lie, Waiting to Bite Ne(matode)”

Nematodes treated w/ Diethylcarbamazine

A

Toxocara Canis
Loa Loa
Wuchereria Bancrfoti

All treated w/ Diethylcarbamazine

72
Q

Helminths that have T S…l in their name are associated w/ pork.
Which helminiths are these?

A
Trichenella SpiraLis (pork roundworm/nematode)
Taneia SoLium (pork tapeworm/cestode)
73
Q

“Strong enough to produce AUTOINFECTION/HYPERINFECTION”

This describes which nematode?

A

Strongylides Stercoralis

74
Q

“Ten Soldiers Tried Acid & Each Entered Veronica’s Veluptuous Labia”

Helminths transfered through Eggs

A
Taenia solium
Trichuris trichuria
Ascaris lumbricoides
Echinococcus granulosus
Enterbious vermicularis
Visceral Larval migrans
75
Q

diphylloBothrium latum is associated w/ which kind of anemia?

A

Macrocytic Anemia due to a B12 deficiency

76
Q

“DIe From Lightly Cooked Salmon”

These helminths are associated w/ Raw Fish:

A

Diphyllobothrium Latum

Clonorchis Sinesis

77
Q

“Pretty Wild how Trematodes Can Swim through **

Trematodes treated w/ Praziquantel

A

Paragonimus Westermani
Clonorchis Sinensis
Schistosoma

78
Q

Clono = Cholo

What would you think Clonorchis Sinesis would be associated w/?

A

Clono = Cholo

Choloangiocarcinoma

79
Q

nematodes transmitted through the SANd

A

Strongyloides
Ancylostoma
Necator

80
Q

brain cysts & seizures are associated w/ which helminth?

A

Taenia Solium (cysticercosis)

81
Q

Liver cysts are associated w/ which helminth?

A

Echinococcus Granulosus

82
Q

B12 deficiency is associated w/ which helminth?

A

Diphyllobothrium Latum

83
Q

Biliary tract disease is associated w/ which helminth?

A

Clonorchis Sinensis (Cholo = Clono)

84
Q

Hemoptysis is associated w/ which helminth?

A

Paragonimus Westermani

85
Q

Portal HTN is associated w/ which helminth?

A

Schistosoma Mansoni

86
Q

Hematuria & bladder cancer are associated w/ which helminth?

A

Schistosoma Haematobium

87
Q

Microcytic anemia is associated w/ which helminth?

A

Ancylostoma & Necator

88
Q

Perianal pruritus is associated w/ which helminth?

A

Enterbius Vermicularis

89
Q

“LIVE! One night only! See SMALL YELLOW CHICKENS get vaccinated w/ SABIN’S and MMR!”

Which vaccines are live attenuated?

A
Smallpox
Yellow fever
Chickenpox
Sabin's polio virus
MMR
90
Q

“RIP Always”

Which vaccines are killed (RIP)?

A

Rabies
Influenza
salk Polio
hAv (Hepatitis A)

91
Q

all DNA viruses are double stranded except the one that is PART-OF-A-VIRUS.
Which virus is this?

A

Parvovirus is PART-OF-A-VIRUS & is single stranded

92
Q

all RNA viruses are single stranded except the one that is a REPEATOVIRUS.
Which virus is this?

A

Reovirus is a REPEATOVIRUS & is double stranded

93
Q

CPR & PAPP smears require you to be NAKED…just like these viruses:

A

Calcicivurs (RNA)
Picornavirus (RNA)
Reovirus (RNA)

Parvovirus (DNA)
Adenovirus (DNA)
Papillomavirus (DNA)
Polyomavirus (DNA)

94
Q

all DNA viruses are HHAPPPy

A
Hepadnavirus
Herpesevirus
Adenovirus
Parvovirus
Papillomavirus
Polyomavirus
Poxvirus
95
Q

you can get herpes in a CHEVrolet…name the different herpes virus family members

A

CMV
HSV
EBV
VZV

96
Q

CMV = cytOWLmegalovirus.

Which characteristic feature is receognized microscopically?

A

OWL’s eyes

97
Q

HSV = Herpes Spreads Viciously to MULTIPLE CELLS

What characteristic feature is recognized microscopically in HSV?

A

MULTINUCLEATED GIANT CELLS

May also see intranuclear COWDRY A INCLUSIONS

98
Q

Picornavirus sits on a PERCH

Name the viruses which are part of the Picornavirus family

A
Poliovirus
Echovirus
Rhinovirus
Coxsackievirus
HAV
99
Q

“Dang that West St. Louis Yellow Hot Cheese Venison has great Flavor”

Which viruses are part of the Flavivirus family?

A
Dengue
West nile virus
St. Louis encephalitis
Yellow fever
HCV
100
Q

Think of Germans wearing Togas on Horses for all of the Togavirus family members

A

Rubella (German measles)
eastern EQUINE encephalitis
western EQUINE encephalitis

101
Q

Orthomyxovirus

ortho = mouth = flu

myx = mixed = segmented

A

Orthomyxovirus is a SEGMENTED RNA virus which causes the FLU

102
Q

PaRaMyxovirus - Name all of the members of the paramyxovirus family

A

Parainfluenza - croup
RSV
Rubeola (measles)
Mumps

103
Q

“Wait 4 Fever to CLEAR”

Associated w/ Kawasaki disease

A

Fever > 4-5 days

Conjunctivitis
Lip cracking
Erythema of hands & feet
Adenopathy (cervical)
Rash (desquamative)

ONLY time you ever give ASPIRIN to a child for treatment

104
Q

“FAN My Skin Asian Whore”

Associated w/ Takayasu’s Arteritis

A
Fever
Arthritis
Night sweats
Myalgia
Skin nodules
Asian women
Weak pulses in upper extremities
105
Q

“Queen Proclaims Di’s Pyramid More Sizzlin”

Which class of drugs is this?

A

Class 1A (Na+ channel) Antiarrhythmatics

Quinidine
Procainamide
Disopyramide
Morcizine

Blocks Na+ in phase 0 & K+ in phases 2 & 3
Increases QT
Used for ALL arrhythmias

106
Q

“I’d Buy Lidy’s Mexican Phen Phen Tacos”

Which class of drugs is this?

A

Class 1B (Na+ Channel) Antiarrhythmatics

Lidocain
Mexiletine
Phenytoin
Tocainide

Used 1st for Ventricular arrhythmias

107
Q

“Chipotle’s Food has Excellent Produce”

Which class of drugs is this?

A

Class 1C (Na+ Channel) Antiarrhythmatics

Flecainide
Encainide
Propafenone

Contraindicated post MI

108
Q

Which class of antiarrhythmatic drugs is CONTRAINDICATED post MI?

Which is BEST post-MI?

A

1C is Contraindicated post-MI

1B is Best post-MI

109
Q

“2 Darrens & 2 Tilides Sat along the Potassium block”

Which class of drugs is this?

A

Class III (K+ Channel) Antiarrhythmatic

2 Darrens: AmioDARONE, DroneDARONE

2 Tilides: IbuTILIDE, DofeTILIDE

Sat along = Sotalol

Used when all other antiarrhythmatics fail
Block K+ channels to increse ERP & QT

Amiodarone AEs: Pulmonary fibrosis, Hepatotoxicity, Hypo/Hyperthyroidism

110
Q

Which class of antiarrhythmatic drugs primarily affects the AV nodal cells?

A

Class IV (Ca2+ channel blockers)

Verapamil & Diltiazem