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Rapid Fire CP Review > Rapid Review 2 > Flashcards

Rapid Review 2 Flashcards

1
Q

neutralizing substance for
Sda

A

guinea pig urine

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2
Q

neutralizing substance for
P1

A

hydatid cyst fluid
and
pigeon eggs

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3
Q

neutralizing substance for
H

A

saliva
Ulex europaeus
lotus tetragonolobus

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4
Q

neutralizing substance for
Le a

A

saliva

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5
Q

neutralizing substance for
I (big i)

A

breast milk

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6
Q

neutralizing substance for
chido

A

plasma

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7
Q

neutralizing substance for
rodgers

A

plasma

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8
Q

neutralizing substance for
A1

A

dolichos biflorus

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9
Q

neutralizing substance for
B

A

bandeiraea simplicifolia

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10
Q

neutralizing substance for
T

A

arachis hypogaea

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11
Q

neutralizing substance for
N

A

vicea graminea

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12
Q

generally insignificant allo antibodies

A

LoveLy & Pretty MeaNingless
Le a
Le b
P1
M
N

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13
Q

when should you use an F test?

A

to decide if one test is more precise than the other

(i.e. how different are the distributions of 2 data sets)

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14
Q

on a Lineweaver Burke plot, what is the y intercept?

A

1 over Vmax

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15
Q

on a Lineweaver Burke plot, what is the x intercept?

A

1 over Km (Michaelis constant)

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16
Q

how do competitive inhibitors relate to a drug without an inhibitor?

A

same y intercept

different x intercept (bc Km increases)

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17
Q

how do non-competitive inhibitors relate to a drug without an inhibitor?

A

same x intercept

different y intercept (bc they alter V and Vmax)

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18
Q

on a Lineweaver Burke plot, what is the x axis?

A

1 over [S]

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19
Q

on a Lineweaver Burke plot, what is the y axis?

A

1 over V

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20
Q

put the thyroid hormones in order from most to least metabolically active

A

T3 > T4 > rT3

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21
Q

Best marker for pancreatic insufficiency

A

fecal elastase test (abnormal = low, <100)

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22
Q

what happens to the pH, pO2, and pCO2 of blood if you leave it in the tube/syringe for a while?

A

pH goes down

pO2 goes down

pCO2 goes up

pO2 goes down & pCO2 goes up bc the pyruvate cycle is going

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23
Q

what happens to the pH, pO2, and pCO2 of blood if you leave it open to ambient air for a while?

A

pH goes up

pO2 goes up

pCO2 goes down

it starts to ~become the air

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24
Q

Wilson disease

mode of inheritance & gene

A

auto recessive

ATP7B mutation

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25
Q

what’s this

A

cryptococcus neoformans

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26
Q

what’s this

A

cryptococcus neoformans

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27
Q

what’s this

A

cryptococcus neoformans

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28
Q

what’s this

A

cryptococcus neoformans

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29
Q

what’s this

A

coccidioides immitis

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30
Q

what’s this

A

coccidioides

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31
Q

what’s this

A

coccidioides

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32
Q

fungus from southwestern US

A

coccidioides

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33
Q

what’s this

A

coccidioides

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34
Q

what’s the bat guano fungus

A

histoplasmosis

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35
Q

what’s this

A

histoplasma

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36
Q

what’s this

A

histoplasmosis

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37
Q

what’s this

A

entamoeba histoloytica

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38
Q

what’s this

A

balamuthia mandrillaris

amoeba

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39
Q

what’s this

A

balamuthia mandrillaris

amoeba

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40
Q

what’s this

A

babesia

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41
Q

what’s this

A

babesia

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42
Q

what’s this

A

plasmodium falciparum

banana = gametocyte

rings in RBC = trophozoite

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43
Q

which malaria is quotidian?

A

plasmodium knowlesi

DAILY - fevers spike q24

quotidian = quotidien (Fr) = daily

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44
Q

which malaria is quartan?

A

plasmodium malariae

3 day cycle

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45
Q

which malaria is tertian?

A

B9: vivax & ovale

Malignant: falciparum

fevers q2days

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46
Q

which malaria is BENIGN tertian?

A

vivax more commonly than ovale

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47
Q

which malaria is MALIGNANT tertian

A

falciparum

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48
Q

what stage of RBCs does vivax preferentially penetrate?

A

young/reticulocytes

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49
Q

how does vivax enter the RBC

A

via Duffy blood group antigens

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50
Q

which malaria enters the RBC via the Duffy blood group antigen?

A

vivax

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51
Q

most diagnosed infections of P. vivax are thought to be due to what stage of the life cycle (and doing what)?

A

hypnozoite reactivation

hypnozoite = dormant in liver, released days-years after initial infxn

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52
Q

which malaria can reach higher levels of parasitemia than other species, and why?

A

falciparum

bc it infects ALL stages of RBCs, not just young ones

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53
Q

why is the malignant tertian malaria malignant?

A

FALCIP > inserts Pfemp1 into infected RBC membranes > adheres to CD36 on endothelial cells > microcirculation obstruction > organ dysfxn

this is called sequestration

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54
Q

what organ does falcip go to first?

A

after bloodstream

liver

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55
Q

what causes the cyclical fever in malaria?

A

the blood stages, where RBCs synchronously rupture to release merozoites

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56
Q

which malaria can have applique forms?

A

falciparum

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57
Q

which malaria can have maurer’s clefts?

A

falciparum

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58
Q

what malignancy is associated with p. falciparum?

A

Burkitt!

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59
Q

which malaria has Schuffner’s dots?

A

vivax and ovale

(the benign tertian ones)

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60
Q

which malaria prefers older RBCs?

A

p. malariae

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61
Q

which malaria has the characteristic band/basket form?

A

p. malariae

(it’s the trophozoite)

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62
Q

which malaria has comet/fimbriated cells?

A

ovale

(the RBCs will be ovoid)

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63
Q

which malaria is this?

A

ovale

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64
Q

which malaria is this?

A

ovale

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65
Q

which malaria is this?

A

vivax

(Schuffner’s dots)

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66
Q

which malaria has a headphone-shaped ring/merozoite form?

A

falciparum

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67
Q

which malaria is this?

A

falciparum

(left arrow = headphone, right arrow = applique form)

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68
Q

which malaria is this?

A

malariae

(band form)

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69
Q

which malaria is this?

A

malariae

(band form)

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70
Q

which malaria is this?

A

p. malariae

(basket)

(schizont)

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71
Q

which malaria is this?

A

falciparum

(Maurer’s clefts = the red dots in the RBCs)

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72
Q

what’s this

A

coccidioides immitis

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73
Q

what’s this

A

balantidium coli (ciliated)

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74
Q

what’s this?

A

entamoeba histolytica

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75
Q

what’s this

A

entamoeba histolytica

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76
Q

what’s the big difference between necator americanus and ancylostoma duodenale?

A

necator has cutting plates

ancylostoma has teeth

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77
Q

what’s the other word for roundworms?

A

nematodes

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78
Q

whose egg is this?

A

hookworm

(could be necator or ancylostoma, they look the same)

hookworms are under the umbrella “roundworm/nematode”

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79
Q

whose egg is this?

A

ascaris lumbricoides

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80
Q

whose egg is this?

A

ascaris lumbricoides

unfertilized on left, fertilized on right

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81
Q

what is the largest and most common intestinal nematode of humans?

A

ascaris lumbricoides

82
Q

whose egg is this?

A

trichuris trichiura

83
Q

whose egg is this?

A

trichuris trichiura

84
Q

which worm is the whipworm?

A

trichuris trichiura

(also a nematode/roundworm)

85
Q

who is this

A

brugia malayi

86
Q

who is this

A

brugia malayi

87
Q

what’s the vector for brugia & wuchereria

A

mosquitos :(

88
Q

who is this

A

wuchereria bancrofti

89
Q

which 3 filarial worms are sheathed?

A

wuchereria bancrofti

brugia malayi

loa loa

90
Q

which 2 filarial worms are NOT sheathed?

A

mansonella (ozzardi, perstans, streptocerca)

onchocerca

91
Q

whose egg is this

A

schistosoma haematobium

92
Q

where do adult schistosoma haematobum worms live in a person?

A

in the bladder veins

“venous plexus of bladder”

93
Q

where does the schistosoma haematobium worm lay its eggs in a person?

A

the bladder wall

94
Q

where do adult schistosoma mansoni worms live in a patient?

A

portal vasculature

mesenteric venules of bowel/rectum/colon

95
Q

whose egg is this?

A

schistosoma mansoni

96
Q

whose egg is this?

A

schistosoma mansoni

97
Q

where do adult schistosoma japonicum worms live in a patient?

A

portal vasculature

mesenteric venules of small bowel/rectum

98
Q

whose egg is this?

A

schistosoma japonicum

99
Q

whose egg is this?

A

schistosoma japonicum

100
Q

whose egg is this?

A

taenia solium/saginata

101
Q

whose egg is this?

A

taenia solium/saginata

102
Q

who is this

A

taenia saginata

15-20 uterine branches in gravid proglottid

103
Q

who is this

A

taenia solium

7-13 uterine branches in gravid proglottid

104
Q

what is the longest tapeworm in humans?

A

diphyllobothrium latum

105
Q

what is the bug in a hydatid cyst?

A

echinococcus

106
Q

how do you screen for echinococcosis?

A

ELISA with monoclonal antibodies

107
Q

how do you confirm a diagnosis of echinococcosis after a positive screen?

A

immunoblot assays using specific antibodies that recognize hydatid antigens

108
Q

what’s this

A

echinococcal hydatid cyst

109
Q

what’s this

A

echinococcal hydatid cyst

110
Q

what’s this?

A

echinococcus (hydatid cyst)

111
Q

what’s this

A

echinococcus (hydatid cyst)

112
Q

what is this

A

rhizopus

113
Q

what is this

A

mucor

114
Q

what is this

A

mucor

115
Q

what is this

A

aspergillus

116
Q

what is this

A

aspergillus flavus

(phialides point in all directions)

117
Q

what is this

A

aspergillus terreus

(densely packed, biseriate)

118
Q

what is this

A

aspergillus terreus

(biseriate, thingies don’t go all the way around)

119
Q

what is this

A

aspergillus niger

(biseriate, all the way around)

120
Q

what’s this

A

fusobacterium

(gram negative, almost filamentous)

121
Q

what’s this

A

fusobacterium

(gram negative, almost filamentous)

122
Q

what’s this?

A

bacteroides fragilis

(Gram-negative pale-staining pleomorphic bacilli with rounded ends. Swellings and vacuoles are often present)

123
Q

what pigment does pseudomonas make?

A

pyocyanin

green & water-soluble

124
Q

what’s this

A

pseudomonas

bottom right has pigment

and it’s fucking beta hemolytic for some reason

125
Q

what’s the “mobile phase” of HPLC?

A

solvent

126
Q

what’s the “stationary phase” of HPLC?

A

separation column

127
Q

what are the 3 costs incurred for proficiency testing?

A

indirect costs

fixed costs

operating expenses

128
Q

on a Levey-Jennings plot, what is the x-axis?

A

run #

129
Q

on a Levey-Jennings plot, what is the y-axis?

A

concentration

130
Q

what are the 2 ways you can measure serum aluminum?

A

ICP-MS (inductively coupled plasma mass spec)

or

AAS (atomic absorption spectroscopy)

131
Q

what are the chromosomal alterations in CCRCC?

A

3p21 mutation

(BAP1, SETD2, PBRM1)

132
Q

what are the chromosomal alterations in papillary RCC?

A

+7

+17

loss of Y

if aggro: +12/+16/+20

it has a Y in the name so it loses Y

133
Q

what are the chromosomal alterations in chromophobe RCC?

A

modal chromosome number 38-39

loss of 1/2/6/10/13/17/21

134
Q

what are the chromosomal alterations in renal oncocytoma?

A

-1/-14/-Y

11q13 rearrangement

(it has a Y in it so it loses Y)

135
Q

which 5 chromosomes are the most likely to cause supernumerary marker chromosomes, and which is the MOST most likely?

A

MOST most: 15

13/14/15/21/22

136
Q

what’s the NCEP ATP III goal for LDL?

A

<100 if CHD/risk equiv

<130 with 2+ risk factors or Framingham 20%+

<160 if 0 or 1 risk factors

137
Q

what’s the NCEP ATP III goal for total cholesterol?

A

<200

138
Q

what’s the NCEP ATP III goal for triglycerides?

A

<150

139
Q

which anti-mitochondrial antigen is targeted by autoantibodies in syphilis?

A

M1

140
Q

which anti-mitochondrial antigen is targeted by autoantibodies in primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

M2 & M4

i think also M8 and M9

141
Q

which anti-mitochondrial antigen is targeted by autoantibodies in venocuran-induced pseudolupus?

A

M3

142
Q

which anti-mitochondrial antigen is targeted by autoantibodies in collagen vascular disease & SLE?

A

M5

143
Q

which anti-mitochondrial antigen is targeted by autoantibodies in ipronazid-induced hepatitis?

A

M6

144
Q

which anti-mitochondrial antigen is targeted by autoantibodies in cardiomyopathy?

A

M7

145
Q

what’s Lemierre syndrome?

A

fusobacterium necrophorum infxn > thrombophlebitis of IJ > carotid sheath invasion > septic emboli (usu pulmonary)

recent h/o pharyngitis

146
Q

cytochrome for

warfarin

A

CYP2C9

VKORC1

147
Q

cytochrome for

clopidogrel

A

CYP2C19

(LoFxn alleles CYP2C19*2 a/w higher rates of cardio events in pts on clopidogrel)

148
Q

cytochrome for

tamoxifen

A

CYP2D6

(metabolized to a more potent endoxifen)

149
Q

cytochrome for

azathioprine

A

TPMT

150
Q

cytochrome for

ADD drugs

A

D4D4

151
Q

cytochromes for

codeine

(ugh)

A

CYP3A4: to norcodeine

UGT2B7: to codeine-6-glucuronide

CYP2D6: to morphine and then…

to normorphine (nobody is involved i guess)

UGT2B7 & UGT1A1: to morphine-3-glucuronide and morphine-6-glucuronide

152
Q

3 things in an ideal PCR primer

A
  1. melting point 52-58C
  2. 18-22 nucleotides long
  3. GC content 60-70%
153
Q

HLA disease association

Graves

A

HLA-DR3

154
Q

HLA disease association

rheumatoid arthritis

A

HLA-DRB1

155
Q

HLA disease association

granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A

HLA-DPBI*0401

156
Q

HLA disease association

ankylosing spondylitis

A

HLA-B27

157
Q

HLA disease association

Behcet’s disease

A

HLA-B51

158
Q

HLA disease association

narcolepsy/cataplexy

A

HLA-DQB1*06:02

***tightest known association with an HLA allele***

159
Q

HLA disease association

celiac disease

A

HLA-DQ2/DQ8

160
Q

what are the type 1 cryoglobulins

A

single monoclonal protein, usu IgG or IgM

161
Q

what are the type 2 cryoglobulins?

A

monoclonal usu IgM

WITH

polyclonal usu IgG

(this is the “mixed” one)

162
Q

what are the type 3 cryoglobulins

A

polyclonal, usu IgG or IgM

163
Q

which cryoglobulinemia is a/w Waldenstrom/myeloma/lymphoma?

A

type 1

monoclonal only

164
Q

which cryoglobulinemia is a/w hep C?

A

type 2 (mixed monoclonal and polyclonal)

and

type 3 (polyclonal only)

165
Q

which PROcoagulants are synthesized in the liver ONLY?

A

factors: 2, 7, 9, 10, 11, 12

fibrinogen

alpha2-antiplasmin

TAFI

166
Q

which ANTIcoagulants are synthesized in the liver ONLY?

A

plasminogen

167
Q

which PROcoagulants are made in the liver and at extrahepatic sites?

A

factor 5, 8

PAI-1

168
Q

which ANTIcoagulants are made in the liver & at extrahepatic sites?

A

antithrombin

protein C

protein S

TFPI

169
Q

which cardiac marker increases FIRST after MI?

A

myoglobin

170
Q

what is the ORDER of the 4 cardiac marker elevations after MI?

A
  1. myoglobin
  2. troponin T or I
  3. CK or CK-MB
  4. LD-1

my tropCKLe

(tropcicle)

171
Q

which disease has “targets and tacos” on peripheral smear?

A

hemoglobin SC disease

beta S + beta C

172
Q

in a transplant crossmatch, what do CDC and FC show you?

A

CDC: IgG and IgM Abs

FC: IgG only

173
Q

in a transplant crossmatch, how do you tell if you have an IgG or IgM antibody?

A

FC is only IgG

CDC is IgG and IgM > add DTT to denature IgM (DTT reveals IgG)

174
Q

in an FC transplant crossmatch, which HLAs correspond with B & T?

A

B & T: HLA-I A/B/C

B only: HLA-II DR/DQ/DP

175
Q

transplant crossmatch

predict CDC and FC results for

IgM antibodies

A

CDC both +

FC both -

176
Q

transplant crossmatch

predict CDC and FC results for

Class II HLA Ab

A

CDC: B + only

FC: B + only

177
Q

in a transplant crossmatch, if you have CDC T+, how will FC look?

A

both T & B should be +

if only T is +, you could have a non-HLA Ab

178
Q

what is the order of complement fixing ability for IgG Abs?

A

IgG3 > 1 > 2 > 4

179
Q

which HLA is restricted to only antigen-presenting cells?

A

HLA-II

180
Q

mechanism for hyperacute rejection & time course

A

Preformed Abs to MHC Ags

minutes-hours

181
Q

mechanism for acute rejection & time course

A

antibody-mediated: 3 months

cell-mediated: 1-6 weeks to years

182
Q

what’s the difference between direct & indirect allorecognition?

A

direct: donor-derived dendritic cells/APCs
indirect: recipient-derived dendritic cells/APCs

183
Q

what is the minimum number of cells in a hematopoietic progenitor/stem cell transplant?

A

2 X 106 CD34+ CELLS PER KILOGRAM

184
Q

which source of HPCs has the fastest engraftment?

slowest engraftment?

A

fastest: peripheral blood

in the middle: bone marrow

slowest: cord blood

185
Q

what’s passenger lymphocyte syndrome?

(what is it due to, what’s the etiology, and what does it cause)

A

due to minor blood group mismatch

donor B-cells transplanted with the organ make antibodies to recipient red cell antigens (anti-A or anti-B)

causes delayed hemolysis

186
Q

how do you cryopreserve peripheral blood derived HPC products?

A

suspend cells in a soln of 10% DMSO + autologous plasma

controlled-rate freezing: 1-2oC per minute to range of -30 to -50oC

OR 2-10oC per minute to -90oC

187
Q

how do you STORE cryopreserved HPCs?

A

mechanical freezer oC

liquid nitrogen freezer: liquid phase -196oC

vapor phase -150oC

188
Q

how long (and at what temp) can you store HPCs prior to/without cryopreservation?

A

can be stored at 4-15oC overnight/for up to 48 hours

189
Q

if you’re giving your patient G-CSF, when will the HPCs in peripheral blood peak?

A

on day 5, after 4 days of treatment

190
Q

what layer of the tube are the cells for donation in?

A

the buffy coat/PBMC layer (smallest layer, between plt/plasma layer and Ficoll layer)

191
Q

what is the difference between a MAJOR and a MINOR ABO mismatch in HPC transplant?

A

MAJOR: donor RBCs are incompatible with recipient plasma

MINOR: donor plasma is incompatible with recipient RBCs

192
Q

what scenarios are there in a major ABO mismatch HPC transplant?

A

O recipient w/ A, B, or AB donor

A recipient with B or AB donor

B recipient with A or AB donor

193
Q

in MAJOR ABO-incompatible HPC transplant, what would cause an acute hemolytic rxn at the time of infusion?

A

ABO-incompatible RBCs in the donor pdt & circulating anti-*** Abs in recipient

(like the basis for the whole thing)

194
Q

in MAJOR ABO-incompatible HPC transplant, what would cause delayed engraftment?

A

anti-*** Abs made by residual recipient plasma cells that weren’t eradicated by the conditioning regimen

195
Q

how can you prevent sequela of a major ABO-incompatible HPC transplant?

A

red-cell-deplete the product via centrifugation, density gradient depletion, or CD34 selection

196
Q

what scenarios are there in a minor ABO-mismatch HPC transplant?

A

O donor w/ A, B, or AB recipient

A or B donor w/ an AB recipient

(the order of this card [donor-recip] is backwards from the major card)

197
Q

in MINOR ABO-incompatible HPC transplant, what would cause an acute hemolytic rxn at the time of infusion?

A

infusion of incompatible plasma containing (the wrong) Abs

198
Q

how can you prevent sequela of a minor ABO-incompatible HPC transplant?

A

plasma depletion

199
Q

does passenger lymphocyte syndrome happen in major or minor ABO-mismatched HPC transplants?

A

minor

delayed hemolysis d/t anti-*** Abs by donor lymphocytes

prevent with plasma depletion

200
Q

what’s a bidirectional mismatch (HPC transplant) and how do you prevent it?

A

major AND minor mismatch simultaneously

type A donor & type B recipient (or vice versa)

prevent via depleting both RBCs (major) and plasma (minor)

Rapid Fire CP Review (7 decks)

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