Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Rapid Fire CP Review > Rapid Review 1 > Flashcards

Rapid Review 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what bug is this and what does it transmit

A

Reduviid bug

kissing bug

Trypanosoma cruzi aka Chagas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is this & what does it cause (via what mechanism)

A

brown recluse

Loxosceles reclusa

Phospholipase/Sphingomyelinase D causes dermonecrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is this

A

head louse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is this

A

body louse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is this

where is its anal groove

what does it transmit

A

Dermacentor

anal groove BELOW anus

Francisella

Rickettsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is this

what does it transmit

A

DERMACENTOR (variabilis) aka American dog tick

Francisella tularensis (tularemia) [also Amblyomma]

Rickettsia rickettsii (RMSF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is this

what does it transmit

A

DERMACENTOR (variabilis) aka American dog tick

Francisella tularensis (tularemia) [also Amblyomma]

Rickettsia rickettsii (RMSF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is this

where is its anal groove

what does it transmit

A

amblyomma americanum

anal groove BELOW anus

Ehrlichia

Francisella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what’s the scientific name for the lone star tick?

A

amblyomma americanum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what’s the scientific name for the american dog tick

A

dermacentor (variabilis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what’s this & what does it transmit?

A

AMBLYOMMA AMERICANUM aka THE LONE STAR TICK

Ehrlichia chafeensis (human monocytic ehrlichiosis)

Francisella tularensis (tularemia) [also Dermacentor]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what’s the scientific name for a blacklegged deer tick?

A

ixodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

clinical specificity

A

value obtained when the number of true negatives is divided by the sum of the true negatives and false positives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

clinical sensitivity

A

value obtained when the number of true positives is divided by the sum of the true positives and the false negatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how do you calculate false negative rate?

A

1 minus clinical sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

the formula for THIS relates instrument response to analyte concentration

A

calibration curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

analytical specificity

A

the performance of the assay when measuring an analyte in the presence of an interfering substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

analytical sensitivity

A

lowest possible concentration of an analyte that is accurately & reproducibly measured by an assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is this

A

dientamoeba fragilis

(1-2 nuclei, 3-5 granules of chromatin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Dense granules

A

CAAMPS

Calcium

ADP

ATP

Magnesium

Pyrophosphate

Serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Alpha granules

A

PPPvBFF

PDGF

P-selectin

PF4

vWF

β-thromboglobulin

factor V

fibrinogen

“other proteins”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what’s this

A

cyclospora cayetanensis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what’s this

A

Giardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what’s this

A

entamoeba histolytica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what’s this

A

entamoeba histolytica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what’s this

A

chilomastix mesnili

(oral groove)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Dubin-Johnson

type of bili & gene

A

CONJUGATED

MRP2 mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Rotor syndrome

type of bili & gene

A

CONJUGATED

SLCO1B1and SLCO1B3 mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Crigler-Najjar

type of bili & gene

A

UNconjugated

UGT1A1 mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Gilbert’s syndrome

type of bili & gene

A

UNconjugated

UGT1A1 mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

liver cirrhosis lab values

A

hypoalbuminemia

hypergammaglobulinemia (high total protein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

most important prognostic factor in CML

A

response to tyrosine kinase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

tube & preservative for coag studies

A

light blue top

sodium citrate 3.2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

tube & preservative for serum determinations in chemistry & serology

A

gold top serum separator tube

clot activator & gel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

tube & preservative for serum determinations in chemistry and serology PLUS drug/tox testing

A

red top

clot activator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

tube & preservative for plasma determinations in chemistry

A

green or tan top

sodium heparin or lithium heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

tube & preservative for lead determinations

A

lavender top

sodium heparin (glass)

K2 EDTA (plastic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

tube & preservative for whole blood hematology, immunohematology, ABO grouping, Rh typing, antibody screening, etc

A

royal blue top

K2 EDTA

(dipotassium ethylenediaminetetra acetic acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

tube & preservative for trace-element, tox, nutritional determinations

A

gray top

sodium heparin

Na2 EDTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

tube & preservative for glucose determinations

A

gray top

potassium oxalate/sodium fluoride

sodium fluoride/Na2 EDTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

blood tube draw order

A

blue (jan)

red (feb)

gold (march)

green (april)

purple & blue (may)

gray (june)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

convex, smooth colonies w/ musty odor

gram negative rod

won’t grow on MacConkey

susceptible to penicillin

A

Pasteurella multocida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

major hCG @ 3-5 weeks of gestation

A

hyperglycosylated hCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

major hCG in choriocarcinoma

A

hyperglycosylated hCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

major hCG past 5 weeks gestation

A

intact hCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

major hCG in postgestational choriocarcinoma or after removal of hydatidiform mole

A

nicked hCG

(inactivated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

sensitive marker for testicular cancer (blood)

A

free beta-hCG levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

pathogenesis of TRALI

A

anti-human neutrophil antigen antibodies (HNA-Abs) [CLASS II] {or HLA class I Abs} bind to marginated neutrophils in pulmonary vasculature > neutrophil activation > pulmonary leak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

newborn screening for cystic fibrosis

A

measure immunoreactive trypsinogen

+

DNA analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

whose egg is this

A

paragonimus westermani

(opercular shoulders)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

whose egg is this

A

clonorchis sinensis

(abopercular knob)

(v smol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

whose egg is this

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

(NO shoulders on its operculum)

(tiny abopercular knob)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

whose egg is this?

A

fasciola hepatica

(no shoulders, no knob)

(rather lorge)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

whose egg is this?

A

fasciolopsis buski

(transparent, no shoulders)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

sensitive to tyrosine kinase inhibitors (EGFR)

A

L858R

(you die L8R if you have this mutation cause the drugs work)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

resistance to tyrosine kinase inhibitors (EGFR)

A

T790M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

troponin complex components

A

troponin C (smallest)

troponin I

troponin T (biggest)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

which troponin binds calcium?

A

troponin C

c = calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

which troponin is an actomyosin-ATP–inhibiting protein?

A

troponin I

i = inhibit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

which troponin binds tropomyosin?

A

troponin T

t = tropomyosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

gene for Duffy antigen

A

DARC

[Fy(a-b-) is commonest in DARC-skinned pts]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Duffy Fy(a-b-) is most likely what race?

A

black

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what does a DARC mutation do?

A

in Duffy antigen Fy(a-b-) phenotype

disrupts binding site for erythroid specific GATA-1 transcription factor

usu you get Duffy on other tissues, but not RBCs

if no Duffy on tissues OR RBCs, you can make Anti-Fy3 Abs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

vector for Lyme

A

Ixodes tick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

White footed mouse & white tailed deer are vectors for what bacteria?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

When do Lyme/Borrelia IgG Abs peak?

A

after 4-6 months of illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

gold standard for enumerating reticulocytes

A

new methylene blue (NMB) or brilliant cresyl blue

[supravital dyes]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

normal frequency for CAP inspections

A

every 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

hypoparathyroidism

PTH & Ca

A

both low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

hyperparathyroidism

PTH & Ca

A

primary & tertiary: both high

secondary has low-normal Ca with high PTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

pseudohypoparathyroidism

PTH & Ca

A

high PTH

low Ca

(peripheral PTH resistance)

you know what else you see this in? Rickets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism

PTH & Ca

A

both normal!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Fanconi anemia

inheritance & defect

A

autosomal recessive (mostly)

abnormal chromosome breakage studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

most helpful lab in evaluation of primary amenorrhea

A

FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

hematopoietic progenitor cell transport shipper requirements

A

portable liquid nitrogen “dry” shippers

must maintain a temp of -150 C or less for at least 48 hours past the time of delivery to the facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what needs to be on the HIV Western blot for it to be positive?

A

p160/120

OR

p41 env + p24 gag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what is the HIV window period

A

6 weeks

(time of exposure til the time Abs show up)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what do you do if you have discrepant HIV screening? (positive EIA but negative Western blot)

A

HIV qualitative nucleic acid test

(can also be used before Abs are detectable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

deferral period for toxoids; synthetic or killed viral, bacterial, or rickettsial vaccines; recombinant vaccines; intranasal live attenuated flu vaccine

A

NONE

includes anthrax, cholera, diphtheria, hep A, hep B, flu, Lyme, paratyphoid, pertussis, plague, pneumococcal polysaccharide, polio/Salk/injection, rabies, RMSF, tetanus, typhoid (injection, NOT oral), HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

deferral period after live attenuated viral and bacterial vaccines for:

measles/rubeola

mumps

polio/Sabin/oral

typhoid/oral

yellow fever

A

2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

deferral period after smallpox vaccine without complications OR after the vax scab has spontaneously separated

A

21 days

whichever is later between the OR

82
Q

deferral period following unlicensed vaccines

83
Q

deferral period after live attenuated viral and bacterial vaccines for:

German measles/rubella

chickenpox/VZV

84
Q

deferral after smallpox if the scab was removed before separating spontaneously

85
Q

deferral after vaccination with complications (smallpox)

A

2 weeks after resolution of complications

86
Q

what’s this

A

Fusarium

septate hyphae with canoe-shaped macroconidia having 3-5 septations

87
Q

what’s this?

88
Q

what’s this?

89
Q

what’s this?

A

Alternaria

PIGMENTED large brown conidia with transverse & longitudinal septations

90
Q

what’s this?

A

Exophiala

PIGMENTED with single-celled conidia aggregated at apex of conidiophore

91
Q

what’s this?

A

Geotrichum

hyphae break into segmented cells > arthroconidia

92
Q

what does this transmit?

A

Mansonella perstans

(biting midge)

93
Q

what is this & what does it transmit?

A

IXODES

Borrelia burgdorferi(Lyme)

Anaplasmaphagocytophilum (anaplasmosis)

Babesia microti

94
Q

what is this & what does it transmit?

A

IXODES

Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme)

Anaplasmaphagocytophilum (anaplasmosis)

Babesia microti

95
Q

what is this & what does it transmit?

A

IXODES

Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme)

Anaplasmaphagocytophilum (anaplasmosis)

Babesia microti

96
Q

what is this & what does it transmit?

A

ixodes

anal groove ABOVE anus

Borrelia burgdorferi

Anaplasma phagocytophilum

Babesia microti

97
Q

what is this & what does it transmit?

A

ixodes

anal groove ABOVE anus

Borrelia burgdorferi

Anaplasma phagocytophilum

Babesia microti

98
Q

what’s this

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

99
Q

what’s this?

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

100
Q

what’s this

A

coccidioides

101
Q

what’s this

A

coccidioides

102
Q

what’s this

A

histoplasma capsulatum

103
Q

what’s this

A

histoplasma capsulatum

104
Q

what’s this

A

histoplasma capsulatum

105
Q

what’s this

A

Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

106
Q

what’s this

A

Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

107
Q

what’s this

A

sporothrix schenkii

108
Q

what’s this

A

sporothrix schenkii

109
Q

what’s this

A

sporothrix schenkii

110
Q

what’s this

A

talaromyces (penicillium) marneffei

111
Q

what’s this

A

talaromyces (penicillium) marneffei

112
Q

what’s this

A

aspergillus fumigatus

113
Q

what’s this

A

aspergillus fumigatus

114
Q

what’s this

A

aspergillus niger

115
Q

what’s this

A

aspergillus niger

116
Q

what’s this

A

aspergillus flavus

117
Q

what’s this

A

aspergillus flavus

118
Q

what’s this

A

aspergillus terreus

119
Q

what’s this

A

aspergillus terreus

120
Q

what’s this

A

aspergillus terreus

121
Q

what’s this

A

aspergillus terreus

122
Q

what’s this

A

aspergillus flavus

123
Q

what’s this

A

aspergillus fumigatus

124
Q

what’s this

A

aspergillus niger

125
Q

what’s this

A

talaromyces (penicillium) marneffei

126
Q

what’s this

127
Q

what’s this

A

balantidium coli

128
Q

which aspergillus species are biseriate?

A

niger & terreus

sometimes flavus

129
Q

which aspergillus species are uniseriate?

A

fumigatus

sometimes flavus

130
Q

what’s this

A

chromoblastomycosis

131
Q

what’s this?

what is it frequently associated with?

A

scopulariopsis brevicaulis

onychomycosis

132
Q

what is birdseed agar for?

A

cryptococcus neoformans

produces melanin

(will also grow crypto gattii - use CGB)

133
Q

what is CGB agar for?

A

cryptococcus gattii

C G B

crypto - gattii - blue

134
Q

what agar grows talaromyces (penicillium) marneffei?

A

sabouraud (dextrose) agar

also grows Nocardia

135
Q

what’s going on here & who is doing it?

A

positive germ tube test

candida albicans

136
Q

what’s this?

A

Chlamydoconidia on pseudohyphae and spherical collections of blastoconidia at regular intervals when grown on cornmeal agar

137
Q

what color is candida albicans on CHROMagar?

A

blue-green

138
Q

what color is candida tropicalis on CHROMagar?

139
Q

what’s this?

A

random blastoconidia on cornmeal

candida tropicalis

140
Q

what color are candida krusei and candida glabrata on CHROMagar?

A

pink or violet

141
Q

what is this

A

candida krusei

oval to elongated blastopores found at the tip of pseudohyphae on cornmeal

“cross-matchsticks” appearance

142
Q

what is this

A

candida glabrata

single oval & terminal budding

NO pseudohyphae

cornmeal

143
Q

what’s this

A

pneumocystis jirovecii

usu in vacuolated foamy casts in BAL of symptomatic HIV pts

GMS: crushed ping pong balls

144
Q

what’s this

A

trichophyton rubrum

micro & macroconidia

macroconidia have thin walls

145
Q

what’s this

A

trichophyton tonsurans

micro & macroconidia

macroconidia have thin walls

146
Q

what’s this & what is the most common causative bug?

A

scalp ringworm (tinea capitis)

d/t trichophyton tonsurans (in the US)

147
Q

what’s this

A

microsporum canis

148
Q

what’s this

A

microsporum canis

149
Q

what’s this

A

epidermophyton floccosum

150
Q

which mycobacterial species are rapid growers?

A

abscessus

chelonae

fortuitum + parafortuitum

mucogenicum

FORTunately, ABSCESSes and MUCOus CHEL (chill out) fast!

151
Q

which mycobacterial species are photochromogens?

A

simiae

szulgai at 24

asiaticum

marinum

kansasii

SIMon SZULGAI, age 24, took PHOTOs of the ASIATIC SEA (marinum) in KANSASii

152
Q

which mycobacterial species are scotochromogens?

A

gordonae

szulgai at 37

scrofulaceum

xenopi

(simon’s brother) GORDON SCOT SZULGAI, age 37, is a SCROFUL (awful) XENOphobe

153
Q

which mycobacterial species are nonchromogens?

A

MAC (avium + intracellulare)

TB

ulcerans

leprae

haemophilum

MAC got TB, leprosy, and an invisible (nonchromo) ulcer in his blood (haemophilum)

154
Q

which biochemical tests can you use to tell some mycobacteria apart?

A

[photo]

marinum: niacin +, nitrate -, catalase -
kansasii: niacin -, nitrate +, catalase +
simiae: niacin +, nitrate -, catalase +

[scotochromogens]

scrofulaceum: niacin -, nitrate -, catalase +
xenopi: niacin -, nitrate -, arylsulfatase +

[nonchromo]

TB: niacin +, nitrate +, catalase -

[rapid]

fortuitum: only rapid that is nitrate +
chelonae: citrate +
abscessus: citrate -

155
Q

which mycobacteria is arylsulfatase positive?

156
Q

which is the only rapid-growing mycobacterial species that is nitrate test positive?

157
Q

what is the gold standard for subtyping strains of mycobacteria?

A

IS6110 restriction length polymorphism analysis

158
Q

which mycobacteria have an ERM gene & what does it do?

A

fortuitum & abscessus (both rapid)

ERM = erythromycin ribosomal methyltransferase

confers resistance to macrolides (clarithromycin, erythromycin)

159
Q

SZULGAI @ 24

choose from photo, scoto, nonchromo, or rapid

A

photochromogen

pigmented when exposed to light

160
Q

SIMIAE

choose from photo, scoto, nonchromo, or rapid

A

photochromogen

pigmented when exposed to light

161
Q

ASIATICUM

choose from photo, scoto, nonchromo, or rapid

A

photochromogen

pigmented when exposed to light

162
Q

MARINUM

choose from photo, scoto, nonchromo, or rapid

A

photochromogen

pigmented when exposed to light

163
Q

KANSASII

choose from photo, scoto, nonchromo, or rapid

A

photochromogen

pigmented when exposed to light

164
Q

SZULGAI @ 37

choose from photo, scoto, nonchromo, or rapid

A

schotochromogen

(pigmented all the time)

165
Q

XENOPI

choose from photo, scoto, nonchromo, or rapid

A

schotochromogen

(pigmented all the time)

166
Q

SCROFULACEUM

choose from photo, scoto, nonchromo, or rapid

A

schotochromogen

(pigmented all the time)

167
Q

GORDONAE

choose from photo, scoto, nonchromo, or rapid

A

schotochromogen

(pigmented all the time)

168
Q

HAEMOPHILUM

choose from photo, scoto, nonchromo, or rapid

A

nonchromogen

slow

169
Q

LEPRAE

choose from photo, scoto, nonchromo, or rapid

A

nonchromogen

slow

170
Q

ULCERANS

choose from photo, scoto, nonchromo, or rapid

A

nonchromogen

slow

171
Q

TB COMPLEX

choose from photo, scoto, nonchromo, or rapid

A

nonchromogen

slow

172
Q

MAC (AVIUM + INTRACELLULARE)

choose from photo, scoto, nonchromo, or rapid

A

nonchromogen

slow

173
Q

MUCOGENICUM

choose from photo, scoto, nonchromo, or rapid

A

rapid (colonies in 5 days)

174
Q

FORTUITUM (+ PARAFORTUITUM)

choose from photo, scoto, nonchromo, or rapid

A

rapid (colonies in 5 days)

175
Q

CHELONAE

choose from photo, scoto, nonchromo, or rapid

A

rapid (colonies in 5 days)

176
Q

ABSCESSUS

choose from photo, scoto, nonchromo, or rapid

A

rapid (colonies in 5 days)

177
Q

what does CLSI (clinical & laboratory standards institute) say you should do your McFarland inoculum at for antimicrobial susceptibility testing of aerobic nonfastidious bacteria?

A

0.5 McFarland inoculum

178
Q

what component of MacConkey inhibits the growth of gram positive organisms?

A

bile salts & crystal violet dye

(selective media)

179
Q

MoA: beta-lactam Abx

A

“Inhibit cross-linking of N-acetylglucosamine to N-acetylmuramic acid in the bacterial cell wall”

Inhibit cross-linking of NAG to NAM

(-cillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, monobactams)

180
Q

MoA: beta-lactam resistance

A
  1. ESBLs inactivate the beta lactam ring via hydrolysis (encoded on a plasmid so they can be transferred)
  2. decreased penetration to target site d/t porin mutations and efflux pumps
  3. alteration of target site PBPs that cause decreased binding of drug to PBP (MRSA: mecA: PBP2a transpeptidase protein)

1 ESBLs, 2 decreased penetration, 3 decreased binding

181
Q

which Abx interfere with folic acid metabolism/folate synthesis?

A

sulfonamides

&

trimethoprim

182
Q

MoA: sulfonamides

A

block dihydropteroate synthase

prevent p-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) from turning into dihydropteroic acid

first step in pathway

183
Q

MoA: trimethoprim

A

block dihydrofolate reductase

prevent dihydrofolic acid from turning into tetrahydrofolic acid

2nd to last step I think in the pathway

184
Q

MoA: quinolones

A

inhibit topoisomerase II/gyrase & topoisomerase IV

Gram NEG target: DNA gyrase-A subunit

Gram POS target: topoisomerase IV

185
Q

MoA: vancomycin

A

binds to D-Ala-D-Ala end of peptide

blocks transglycosylase & transpeptidase activity > prevents transpeptidation linking

stops bacterial cell wall construction/maturation

186
Q

MoA: polymyxin

A

polymyxin (+) binds to lipopolysaccharide (-) @ phosphate residues on outer membrane of gram negatives

displaces membrane-stabilizing Mg & Ca ions that cross-bridge adjacent lipids & stabilize outer membrane

187
Q

MoA: metronidazole

A

enters organism > undergoes reduction > concentration gradient formed & more drug is pumped in > free radicals > death

only works in ANAEROBES

188
Q

MoA: macrolides

A

50S ribosomal subunit, specifically 23S ribosomal RNA strand in the 50S subunit

this prevents protein synthesis

189
Q

MoA: rifampin

A

binds to DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

190
Q

MoA: tetracyclines

A

reversibly bind to 30S subunit

prevent attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA to ribosomal acceptor site (ribosome can’t bind to RNA)

191
Q

what’s sarecycline and why is it better than its predecessors?

A

tetracycline antibiotic

larger C7 moiety overcomes the efflux pump resistance mechanism

so it can stay inside the cell and bind to the 30S subunit to block tRNA-ribosome binding

192
Q

MoA: aminoglycosides

A

bind to aminoacyl site of 16S ribosomal RNA within the 30S subunit

Misread genetic code > inhibit translocation

do NOT work with anaerobes!!!

193
Q

virus associated with Merkel cell carcinoma

A

polyomavirus

(MCPyV or MCV)

194
Q

what causes Q fever & what’s the characteristic histo finding?

A

Coxiella burnettii

RING GRANULOMAS

195
Q

bacillary angiomatosis causative organism

A

Bartonella

196
Q

what are the clinical & histo findings of bacillary angiomatosis?

A

peliosis hepatis (blood lakes in liver)

dense aggregates of bacilli with warthin starry

dotty skin rash (epithelioid angiomatosis)

197
Q

what bacteria is associated with rheumatic heart disease?

A

strep pyogenes

198
Q

if thrombi are positive for CD62p, then what does the patient have?

A

TTP

CD62p is a plt marker

199
Q

when should you use a chi square test

A

to determine if a test is more often positive in pts WITH the disease than without it

200
Q

when should you use a paired t-test?

A

to compare the performance of 2 analyzers (compare means)

Rapid Fire CP Review (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions