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Rapid Fire Facts***** > Rapid Fire Facts > Flashcards

Rapid Fire Facts Flashcards

1
Q

irregularly irregular beat (2)

A

A fib or multifocual atrial tachycardia

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2
Q

EKG: negative I lead

A

R axis deviation (strain to right heart)

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3
Q

EKG: R wave > 7mm in V1

A

R ventricular hypertrophy

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4
Q

EKG: S wave in V1 + R wave in V5 or V6 > 35mm

A

L ventricular hypertrophy

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5
Q

MCC sudden death in young athletes

A

hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (thick septum)

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6
Q

drugs that prolong QT

A

macrolides, antimalarials, antipsychotics, methadone, PI’s, antiarrhythmics

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7
Q

severe dilated cardiomyopathy leads to what arrhythmia

A

V fib (cellophane stretched)

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8
Q

severe mitral stenosis leading to stretching of LA leads to what arrhythmia

A

A fib

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9
Q

EKG: wide S in I, large Q and inverted T in III indicate what?

A

PE

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10
Q

EKG: what does bundle branch block look like

A

bunny ears/M

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11
Q

AV Block: prolonged PR, regular rhythm. which type?

A

1st degree

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12
Q

AV Block: progressive lengthening of PR until one is dropped. Which type?

A

2nd degree Type I, Weckenbach gives warning

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13
Q

AV Block: beat dropped without warning, requires pacemaker. which type?

A

2nd degree Type II

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14
Q

AV Block: no P waves are conducted, requires pacemaker. which type?

A

3rd degree

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15
Q

what causes multifocal atrial tachycardia?

A

COPD > hypoxia > vasoconstriction > pulm HTN > RA stretches

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16
Q

what characteristic finding is seen in P waves on EKG of multifocal atrial tachycardia?

A

3 different morphologies

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17
Q

EKG: sawtooth waves

A

a flutter

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18
Q

EKG: delta waves

A

WPW–signal not going through AV node

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19
Q

EKG: fast rate, narrow QRS, hump P wave

A

paroxysmal SVT

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20
Q

EKG:premature ventricular contractions (bigeminy or tri), wide QRS. indicates injury to what part of heart?

A

purkinje fibers

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21
Q

EKG: verrrrrry slow rhythm, wide QRS

A

ventricular escape

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22
Q

EKG: verrrrry slow, AV node is new pacemaker

A

junctional escape

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23
Q

EKG: monomorphic ventricular tachycardia. rhythm regular or irregular?

A

regular–looks like mountains

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24
Q

EKG: electrical alternans seen in

A

cardiac tamponade

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25
Q

Immuno: part of MAC

A

C5b, C6, C7, C8, C9

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26
Q

Immuno: classical complement pathway

A

Ab-Ag > C1 sees Ig attached to pathogen > C4 > C2> joins alternate

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27
Q

Immuno: alternative complement pathway

A

spontaneous activation > C3 (C3b acts as an opsonin, can function like Ig) > terminal pathway

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28
Q

Immuno: terminal complement pathway

A

C5/6/7/8/9 MAC

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29
Q

Immuno: CD34 means

A

pluripotent hemato. stem cell

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30
Q

Immuno: CD14 means

A

macrophage

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31
Q

Immuno: IL-1 actions

A

fever, mast cells to release histamine

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32
Q

Immuno: TNF alpha actions

A

cachexia via caspases/apoptosis

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33
Q

Immuno: IL-8 actions

A

neutrophil chemoattractant (8-migr8)

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34
Q

Immuno: IL-6 actions

A

stimulates hepcidin to store away Fe > anemia of chronic disease

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35
Q

Immuno: macrophage as a ___ to detect foreign pathogens, and kills with NO

A

TLR

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36
Q

Immuno: TGF beta (transforming growth factor) function

A

collagen in scar formation

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37
Q

Immuno: high CD4 count presentation

A

skin findings (Sezary, Adult T cell leuk/lymphoma)

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38
Q

type of nuclei in Sezary

A

cerebriform

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39
Q

type of nuclei in Adult T Cell luek/lymphoma

A

flowers

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40
Q

Immuno: actions of C3a and C5a

A

anaphylaxis (C5a also does neutrophil chemotaxis)

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41
Q

Immuno: which Th cell is involved in Type I HSR

A

Th2

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42
Q

Immuno: what does Th2 secrete

A

IL-10 (inhibits Th1), IL-2 (stimulates T cells), IL-4, IL-5, IL-13

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43
Q

Immuno: actions of IL 1-5

A

Hot T Bone stEAk: fever, T cells, bone marrow, IgE and IgG and Th0 > Th2, IgA and eosinophils

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44
Q

Immuno: what does IL-13 do

A

mucous

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45
Q

Immuno: receptor for IgE on mast cells

A

FC epsilon R1

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46
Q

Immuno: what test is used for Type II HSR

A

Coombs test–anti cell antibodies

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47
Q

Immuno: where are the antigens in Type III HSR

A

floating in blood

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48
Q

Immuno: what do Th1 cells release

A

IL-2, IFN gamma (activate macrophages > adaptive immunity)

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49
Q

Immuno: silicosis impairs which type of cell

A

macrophages (higher risk of TB infection)

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50
Q

Immuno: what activates NK cells

A

IFN gamma and IL-12

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51
Q

Immuno: mechanism of chronic transplant rejection

A

vascular wall thickening

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52
Q

Immuno: mechanism of graft v host

A

graft T cell sensitization against host MHC antigen

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53
Q

Immuno: IL-12 action

A

Th0 to Th1

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54
Q

Minute ventilation eqn

A

RR x TV

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55
Q

Alveolar ventilation eqn

A

RR x (TV-dead space) dead space is about 150 or weight in pounds

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56
Q

Calculate inspiratory capacity

A

TV + inspiratory reserve

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57
Q

Calculate functional residual capacity

A

Expiratory reserve + residual volume

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58
Q

Normal A-a gradient

A

less than 10, or (age + 4)/4

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59
Q

Partial pressure of O2 at sea level

A

.21(760-47)

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60
Q

ions in blood anion gap

A

Na, Cl, HCO3

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61
Q

ions in urine anion gap

A

Na, K, Cl

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62
Q

positive urine anion gap

A

renal tubular acidosis

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63
Q

negative urine anion gap

A

diarrhea if blood AG is normal

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64
Q

Loading Dose eqn

A

Vd x Cp

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65
Q

Maintenance Dose eqn

A

Css x Cl (multiply by minutes b/w doses if necessary)

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66
Q

study design: Hawthorne effect

A

change behavior when you know you’re being watched

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67
Q

study design: Berkson’s bias

A

choosing hospitalized patients as a control group

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68
Q

study design: Pygmalian effect

A

researcher’s belief in efficacy changes outcome

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69
Q

study design: latency

A

some disease processes take a long time to develop so you can’t say anything definitive with just a short study

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70
Q

95% confidence interval

A

Mean +/- 1.96 x SD / square root of n

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71
Q

3 mitochondrial inheritance diseases

A

Leber Hereditory optic neuropathy, Myoclonic Epilepsy with ragged red fibers, Mit Encephalopathy with lactic acidosis and stroke like episodes

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72
Q

4 Trinuc repeat diseases

A

Huntingon, Fragile X, Fredreich Ataxia, myotonic dystrophy

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73
Q

2 X linked storage diseases

A

Hunter (x marks the spot), Fabry

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74
Q

2 storage diseases with cherry red macula

A

Niemann Pick and Tay Sachs (no HSM)

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75
Q

eczema, recurrent cold abscesses, high serum IgE

A

hyper IgE (Job)

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76
Q

large lysosomal vesicles in phagocytes

A

Chediak Higashi

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77
Q

hematemesis with retching

A

Mallory Weiss tear

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78
Q

dysphagia, glossitis, iron def anemia

A

Plummer Vinson (esophageal webs)

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79
Q

mucin filled cell with peripheral nucleus

A

signet ring-gastric cancer, LCIS

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80
Q

MC type of stomach cancer

A

adenocarc

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81
Q

ovarian mets from gastric cancer

A

Krukenberg

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82
Q

gastric ulcerations and high gastrin levels

A

Z-E

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83
Q

acute gastric ulcer assoc with elevated ICP or head trauma

A

Cushing ulcer

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84
Q

acute gastric ulcer assoc with severe burns

A

Curling ulcer

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85
Q

weight loss, diarrhea, arthritis, fever, adenopathy, hyperpigmentation

A

Whipple disease

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86
Q

anti transglutaminase, gliadin, endomysial AB

A

Celiac

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87
Q

HLA assoc with Celiac

A

HLA DQ2, DQ8

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88
Q

MC cancer of appendix

A

Carcinoid

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89
Q

GI hamartomas, hyperpigmentation of mouth and hands

A

Peutz Jeghers

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90
Q

multiple colon polyps, osteomas, soft tissue tumors

A

Gardner

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91
Q

GI hamartoma plus medulloblastoma

A

Turcot

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92
Q

apple core lesion on barium enema

A

colorectal cancer

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93
Q

non polyposis colon cancer, AD MOI, defect in DNA mismatch repair, proximal colon

A

Lynch

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94
Q

MC site of colonic diverticula

A

sigmoid colon

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95
Q

string sign on contrast X ray

A

Crohn

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96
Q

lead pipe appearance on contrast colon X ray

A

UC

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97
Q

painless jaundice in adult

A

pancreatic cancer

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98
Q

MCC acute pacreatitis

A

gallstones and alc

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99
Q

MCC chronic pancreatitis

A

alc

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100
Q

severe hyperbilirubinemia in a neonate

A

Crigler Najjar type I

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101
Q

mild, benign hyperbilirubinemia

A

Gilbert

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102
Q

TG accumulation in hepatocytes

A

fatty liver dz

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103
Q

eosinophilic inclusions in the cytoplasm of hepatocytes

A

mallory bodies

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104
Q

cancer closely linked to cirrhosis

A

HCC

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105
Q

hepatomegaly, ab pain, cirrhosis

A

Budd Chiari

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106
Q

green/yellow corneal deposits

A

Wilson

107
Q

low serum ceruloplasmin

A

Wilson

108
Q

cirrhosis, diabetes, and hyperpigmentation

A

Hemochromatosis (HFE gene increases intestinal abs. of Fe)

109
Q

antibodies in autoimmune hepatitis

A

ANA, anti smooth muscle, anti liver/kidney microsomal, liver cytosol

110
Q

chronic sinusitis, infertility, situs inversus

A

Kartagener

111
Q

Virchow triad for DVT

A

hypercoag, stasis, endothelial damage

112
Q

DDx for eosinophilia

A

DNAAACP: drugs, neoplasm, atopic (asthma, allergy, Churg Strauss), Addison dz, Acute Interstitial Nephritis, Collagen Vascular Dz, parasites

113
Q

blue bloater

A

chronic bronchitis

114
Q

pink puffer

A

emphysema

115
Q

Curschmann’s spirals

A

shed epith from mucous plugs in asthma

116
Q

MCC pulm HTN

A

COPD

117
Q

antidote for serotonin syndrome

A

cyproheptadine

118
Q

hyperflexible joints, arachnodactyly, lens dislocation

A

Marfans

119
Q

hereditary nephritis, cataracts, sensorineural hearing loss

A

Alport

120
Q

CNs in midbrain

A

3, 4

121
Q

CNs in pons

A

5, 6, 7, 8

122
Q

CNs in medulla

A

9, 10, 12

123
Q

CNs in spinal cord

A

11

124
Q

CN sensory for corneal reflex

A

V1

125
Q

CN motor for corneal reflex

A

VII

126
Q

CN jaw jerk reflex

A

V3 mandibular

127
Q

CN sensory pupillary reflex

A

II

128
Q

CN motor pupillary reflex

A

III

129
Q

CN sensory gag reflex

A

IX (unilateral)

130
Q

CN motor gag reflex

A

X (bilateral)

131
Q

hypogonadism and lack of smell

A

Kallman

132
Q

uvula deviates where in respect to vagus lesion

A

away from side of vagus lesion

133
Q

CN exit point: I olfactory

A

cribriform plate

134
Q

CN exit point: II optic

A

optic canal

135
Q

CN exit point: III oculomotor

A

sup orbital fissure

136
Q

CN exit point: IV trochlear

A

sup orbital fissure

137
Q

CN exit point: V1 ophthalmic trigem

A

sup orbital fissure

138
Q

CN exit point: V2 maxillary trigem

A

rotundum

139
Q

CN exit point: VI abducens

A

sup orbital fissure

140
Q

CN exit point: VII facial

A

int acoustic meatus

141
Q

CN exit point: VIII vestibulocochlear

A

int acoustic meatus

142
Q

CN exit point: IX glossopharyngeal

A

jugular foramen

143
Q

CN affected by PICA infarct

A

IX–no gag reflex

144
Q

CN exit point: X Vagus

A

jugular foramen

145
Q

CN exit point: XI Accessory Spinal

A

jugular foramen

146
Q

CN exit point: XII Hypoglossal

A

hypoglossal canal

147
Q

CN affected by anterior spinal artery infarct

A

XII hypoglossal

148
Q

taste to anterior 2/3 of tongue

A

VII

149
Q

taste to posterior 1/3 of tongue

A

IX glossopharyngeal

150
Q

motor to tongue

A

XII hypoglossal

151
Q

worst headache of my life

A

Sub arachnoid hemorrhage

152
Q

lucid interval following head trauma

A

epidural hematoma

153
Q

bloody CSF on LP

A

sub arachnoid hemorrhage

154
Q

MCC subdural hematoma

A

rupture of bridging veins

155
Q

MCC epidural hematoma

A

rupture of MMA

156
Q

seizures, mental retardation, angiofibroma

A

Tuberous Sclerosis

157
Q

depigmentation of substantia nigra

A

Parkinson

158
Q

chorea, dementia, atrophy of caudate and putamen

A

Huntington

159
Q

eosinophilic inclusions in cytoplasm of nucleus

A

Lewy bodies–Parkinson and LBD

160
Q

conjugate lateral gaze palsy with nystagmus and diplopia during lateral gaze

A

internuclear ophthalmoplegia

161
Q

degeneration of dorsal columns

A

tertiary syphilis

162
Q

demyelinating dz in young woman

A

MS

163
Q

mixed upper and lower MN dz

A

ALS

164
Q

newborn with arm paralysis following difficult labor

A

Erb Duchenne

165
Q

nerve and artery injured during fracture of shaft of humerus

A

radial n, deep brachial artery

166
Q

2nd MCC of dementia

A

multi infarct dementia

167
Q

extracellular amyloid deposits in gray matter

A

amyloid plaques

168
Q

intracellular deposits of hyperphosphorylated tau protein

A

neurofib tangles

169
Q

intracellular spherical aggregates of tau protein seen on silver stain

A

Pick

170
Q

drooling farmer

A

organophosphate poisoning

171
Q

medical tx for pheo

A

alpha antagonist (phenoxybenzamine, phentolamine)

172
Q

selective alpha 1 antagonist for BPH

A

tamsulosin

173
Q

drugs that cause drug induced lupus

A

SHIPP: sulfonamides, hydralazine, INH, procainamide, phenytoin

174
Q

continuous machinery like heart murmur

A

PDA

175
Q

boot shaped heart

A

tetralogy of Fallot–R vent hypertrophy

176
Q

rib notching

A

coarct of aorta–adult

177
Q

MC congential cardiac anomaly

A

VSD

178
Q

MC congenital cause of eaRLy cyanosis

A

tetralogy of Fallot

179
Q

bounding pulses, head bobbing, diastolic murmur

A

aortic regurg

180
Q

chest pain, pericardial friction rub, persistent fever occurring several weeks after MI

A

Dressler syndrome (autoimmune pericarditis)

181
Q

splinter hemorrhages under fingernails

A

septic emboli from L heart infective endocarditis

182
Q

retinal hemorrhages with pale centers

A

Roth spots, infective endocarditis

183
Q

heart valve most commonly involved in infective endocarditis

A

mitral v

184
Q

granulomatous nodules in heart

A

Aschoff bodies in rheum fever

185
Q

MC primary cardiac tumor in adults

A

myxoma (LA)

186
Q

MC primary cardiac tumor in children

A

rhabdomyoma–tuberous sclerosis

187
Q

MC cause of constrictive pericarditis

A

Lupus

188
Q

tx for temporal arteritis

A

high dose steroid

189
Q

tx for Buerger dz

A

stop smoking

190
Q

bone enlargement, bone pain, arthritis

A

Paget disease of bone

191
Q

vertebral compression fractures

A

osteoporosis

192
Q

swollen, hard, painful finger joints

A

OA

193
Q

swollen, boggy, painful finger joints

A

RA

194
Q

cartilage erosion with polished bone beneath

A

eburnation-OA

195
Q

swollen, red, acutely painful great toe joint

A

pedagra-gout

196
Q

positively birefringeent rhomboid shaped crystals

A

pseudogout calcium pyrophosphate

197
Q

negatively birefringent needle shaped crystals

A

gout-uric acid

198
Q

bamboo spine on XR

A

ankylosing spondylitis

199
Q

HLA-B27

A

PAIR (seronegative spondylitis)

200
Q

anti smith and anti dsDNA

A

SLE

201
Q

anti histone

A

drug induced lupus

202
Q

anti centromere

A

CREST

203
Q

anti topoisomerase

A

diffuse scleroderma

204
Q

anti Jo 1

A

polymyositis

205
Q

anti Ro

A

Sjogren

206
Q

MCC death in SLE

A

nephritis

207
Q

antiphospholipid syndrome assoc with what problem

A

recurrent miscarriage

208
Q

keratin pearls on skin biopsy

A

SCC

209
Q

MC malignant skin tumor

A

BCC

210
Q

MC cancer in men

A

prostate

211
Q

MCC urinary obstruction in men

A

BPH

212
Q

MC treatment for erectile dysf

A

sildenafil

213
Q

dysplastic cervical cells with enlarged, dark nuclei

A

koilocytes-HPV

214
Q

DES exposure

A

clear cell adenocarc of vagina

215
Q

MC tumor in women

A

leiomyoma (fibroids–they bleed)

216
Q

MC gyn malignancy in US

A

endometrial cancer

217
Q

MC gyn malignancy worldwide

A

cervical cancer

218
Q

chocolate cyst of ovary

A

endometriosis

219
Q

MC benign ovarian tumor

A

serous cystadenoma

220
Q

MC malignant ovarian tumor

A

serous cystadenocarcinoma

221
Q

disarrayed granulosa cells in eosinophilic fluid

A

Call Exner bodies in Granulosa Theca cell tumor

222
Q

alpha feto protein is elevated in what fetal anomaly

A

neural tube defect

223
Q

alpha feto protein, estriol, and hCG are ALL LOW in what abnormality

A

Edwards 18

224
Q

what’s low when testing for Patau

A

PAPP-A (don’t use quad screen)

225
Q

MC genetic cause of intellectual disability

A

Down

226
Q

second MC genetic cause of intellectual disability

A

Fragile X

227
Q

horseshoe kidney, congenital heart defects, streak ovaries, cystic hygroma

A

Turner

228
Q

rocker bottom feet, clenched hands, microcephaly, prominent occiput and small jaw

A

Edwards (normal inhibin A)

229
Q

MC cancer in women in US

A

breast cancer

230
Q

MC benign breast tumor

A

fibroadenoma

231
Q

MC malignant breast tumor

A

invasive ductal carc

232
Q

blue dome cyst in breast

A

cyst–non prolif change

233
Q

treatment for ER + breast cancer

A

tamoxifen (tyrosine kinase)

234
Q

red, itchy, swollen rash on the areola and nipple

A

Paget–assoc with DCIS

235
Q

dominant cardiac defect in DiGeorge

A

tetralogy of Fallot

236
Q

dominant cardiac defect in Down

A

ASD, endocardial cushion

237
Q

dominant cardiac defect in Fredreich ataxia

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

238
Q

cardiac defect in Marfans

A

cystic medial necrosis of aorta

239
Q

cardiac defect in Turner

A

coarc of aorta

240
Q

cardiac defect in tuberous sclerosis

A

valve obstruction due to cardiac rhabdomyoma

241
Q

MC pineal gland tumor

A

germinoma

242
Q

obstructive hydrocephalus and dorsal midbrain (Parinaud) syndrome

A

germinoma/pineal gland tumor

243
Q

fracture in anatomical snuffbox

A

scaphoid (risk of avascular necrosis)

244
Q

absence of cerebellar vermis and dilation of fourth ventricle w posterior fossa enlargement

A

Dandy Walker

245
Q

Paget disease of bone: overactive _____ (cell type)

A

osteoclasts

246
Q

effect of bile salts and phosphatidyl choline on cholesterol

A

increases solubility (decreases risk of cholesterol gallstones)

247
Q

gingivostomatitis

A

HSV-1 (dsDNA, enveloped)

248
Q

TSS mediated by which cell type

A

T cells and macrophages

249
Q

combined use of nondihydropyridine CCBs plus beta blockers

A

bradycardia plus hypoTN

250
Q

malignant infiltration of the suspensory ligament in breast cancer causes what presentation

A

nipple dimpling

251
Q

why give dextrose to patient with acute intermittent porphyria

A

downregulate ALAS enzyme

252
Q

Raltegravir HIV med type

A

integrase inhibitor

253
Q

5 catalase + organisms

A

S aureus, Nocardia, Aspergillus, B cepacia, Serratia marcescens

254
Q

uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase def

A

porphyria cutanea tarda

255
Q

painless lower FI bleeding in a kid, often asymptomatic

A

Meckel diverticulum (persistence of vitelline/omphalomesenteric) duct

256
Q

nerve involved in foot drop

A

common peroneal

257
Q

what type of genetic exchange occurs when two segmented viruses are mixed

A

reassortment (like flu, rota)

258
Q

what type of genetic exchange occurs when two double stranded DNA virus genomes cross over

A

recombination

259
Q

____ def impairs synthesis of androgens, estrogens, and cortisol, but does not inhibit mineralcorticoid production. Boys appear phenotypically female at birth, but girls develop normal genitalia

A

17 alpha hydroxylase def

260
Q

which geniculate body is part of the auditory pathway? visual pathway?

A

auditory-MEDIAL geniculate

visual-LATERAL geniculate

261
Q

anti-apoptotic gene product in follicular lymphoma t(14;18)

A

BCL-2

262
Q

BCL-ABL t(9;22), which directs the synthesis of a constitutively active protein TYROSINE KINASE found in:

A

CML

263
Q

C-MYC translocations assoc with what cancer and translocation

A

Burkitt Lymphoma t(8;14)

264
Q

overexpression of N-MYC proto oncogene is common in: (2)

A

neuroblastoma and small cell carc of lung

Rapid Fire Facts***** (4 decks)

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