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Rapid Fire Facts***** > More rapid fire facts! > Flashcards

More rapid fire facts! Flashcards

1
Q

bilateral hilar adenopathy, uveitis

A

sarcoidosis (A GRUELING Disease) ACE, Granulomas, RA, Uveitis, Erythema nodosum, LAD, Idiopathic, Noncaseating granuloma, Gammaglobulinemia, Vit D increase

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2
Q

vasculitis and glomerulonephritis

A

Goodpasture, GPA

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3
Q

anti glomerular basement membrane antibodies

A

Goodpasture

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4
Q

Honeycomb lung on X ray

A

interstitial fibrosis

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5
Q

Tennis racket shaped cytoplasmic organelles

A

Birbeck granules in Langerhans histiocytosis

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6
Q

Iron containing nodules in the alveolar septum

A

Asbestosis

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7
Q

lung biopsy of plumber shows elongated structures with clubbed ends

A

asbestosis (dumbbells)

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8
Q

asbestosis increases risk of what cancers

A

bronchogenic carc, mesothelioma

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9
Q

anthracosis in which lobes of lung

A

upper

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10
Q

asbestosis in which lobes of lung

A

lower

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11
Q

silicosis in which lobes of lung

A

upper lobes–eggshell calcification

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12
Q

Berylliosis shows what damage in lung

A

non caseating granulomas

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13
Q

lung cancer assoc with SIADH

A

small cell

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14
Q

lung cancer assoc with PTHrp

A

adenocarcinoma

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15
Q

lung cancer assoc with Cushing paraneoplastic syndrome

A

small cell

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16
Q

lung cancer assoc with Lambert Eaton

A

small cell

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17
Q

four places where lung cancer mets go

A

brain, bone, liver, adrenals

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18
Q

Immuno: CD found on all NK cells and binds constant region of IgG

A

CD16

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19
Q

Immuno: CD that inhbits complement C9 binding

A

CD55, CD59

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20
Q

Immuno: CD that is the endotoxin receptor on macrophages

A

CD14

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21
Q

what gas in coal mines increases risk for bronchogenic carc

A

radon

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22
Q

voice hoarseness due to lung cancer is because of invasion of what structure

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve

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23
Q

nerve injured in fracture of medial epicondyle

A

ulnar

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24
Q

nerve injured in anterior shoulder dislocation

A

axillary

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25
Q

accumulation of dermatan sulfate (3)

A

Hurler, Hunter, Scheie

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26
Q

def of hexosaminidase

A

Tay Sachs

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27
Q

MCC PNA in children 1 year or younger

A

RSV

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28
Q

MCC PNA in neonate

A

Group B Strep, E Coli

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29
Q

dibasic amino acids

A

COLA: cystine, ornithine, lysine, arginine

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30
Q

what is defective in cystinuria

A

transporter for dibasic amino acids in intestine and kidney

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31
Q

which histone is outside the histone core

A

H1

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32
Q

pt with imperforate anus likely to also have what malformation

A

urogenital

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33
Q

transplant pt PNA with cytoplasmic inclusion bodies

A

CMV (double stranded DNA enveloped)

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34
Q

tumor marker for HCC

A

AFP

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35
Q

sedating antidepressant with priapism side effect

A

trazodone

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36
Q

heparin binds and activates:

A

antithrombin III

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37
Q

what part of the spine does RA effect

A

cervical

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38
Q

3 major manifestations of factor V Leiden def

A

recurrent pregnancy loss, DVT, cerebral vein thrombosis

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39
Q

recurrent hemarthroses are suggestive of

A

hemophilia (A, B)

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40
Q

Maple Syrup Urine Disease: defective breakdown of which amino acids

A

branched: leucine, isoleucine, valine

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41
Q

what does “Tender Loving Care For Nancy” mean?

A

the five cofactors required to breakdown branched amino acids by alpha ketoacid dehydrogenase: thiamine, lipoate, coenzyme A, FAD, NAD

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42
Q

the presence of LV systolic dysf that is at least partially reversible with vessel grafting

A

hibernating myocardium

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43
Q

why can’t RBCs use ketones for energy?

A

they lack mitochondria

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44
Q

what test: mixture of cardiolipin, lecithin, cholesterol

A

RPR test for syphilis/anticardiolipin antibodies

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45
Q

what type of cell-cell connection is important during labor contractions?

A

gap junctions (coordinated contractions)

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46
Q

drug that inhibits platelet aggregation by blocking P2Y12 on platelet ADP receptors

A

clopidogrel

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47
Q

drug that blocks GPIIb/IIIa receptor

A

abciximab

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48
Q

what is atypical depression (4 things)

A

limbs feel very heavy, mood reactivity, rejection sensitivity, increased appetite

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49
Q

when would you try an MAOi like phenelzine, selegiline, trancylpromine

A

when first line agents haven’t helped and there is atypical depression

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50
Q

boy with self mutiliating behavior, intellectual disability, gout

A

Lesch Nyhan-HGPRT def

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51
Q

tx for Lesch Nyhan

A

allopurinol (uric acid builds up)

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52
Q

rate limiting enzyme in purine synth

A

glutamine PRPP amidotransferase

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53
Q

rate limiting enzyme in pyrimidine synth

A

carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II

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54
Q

drug that inhibits ribonucleotide reductase

A

hydroxyurea

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55
Q

drug that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (2)

A

trimethoprim, methotrexate

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56
Q

drug that inhibits thymidilate synthase

A

5FU

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57
Q

drug that inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase

A

mycophenolate

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58
Q

drug that inhibits PRPP amidotransferase

A

6MP

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59
Q

orotic acid in urine + elevations in serum ammonia

A

OTC def (urea cycle)

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60
Q

orotic acid in urine, no elevations in serum ammonia, megaloblastic anemia that does not improve with folate/B12

A

orotic aciduria

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61
Q

RDS: de novo pyrimidine synth

A

CPS II (caramoyl phosphate synthetase II)

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62
Q

RDS: de novo purine synth

A

glutamine PRPP amidotransferase

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63
Q

RDS: glycolysis

A

PFK-1

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64
Q

RDS: gluconeogenesis

A

F16Bisphosphatase

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65
Q

RDS: glycogen synth

A

glycogen synthetase

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66
Q

RDS: glycogenolysis

A

glycogen phosphorylase

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67
Q

RDS: TCA cycle

A

isocitrate dehydrogenase

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68
Q

RDS: hexose monophosphate shunt

A

G6PD

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69
Q

primary energy source in a pt who has not eaten in 2 days

A

fatty acids

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70
Q

RDS: ketone body synthesis

A

HMG CoA SYNTHASE

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71
Q

FLAME: fatty liver, anemia, malnutrition, edema

A

kwashiorkor (protein malnutrition)

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72
Q

effect of EtOH when fasting

A

when liver is metabolizing EtOH, it can’t undergo gluconeogenesis > hypoglycemia

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73
Q

cataracts, hepatomegaly, failure to thrive, MR

A

classic galactosemia, def of Gal 1-P uridyltransferase

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74
Q

what type of organisms are those with NADPH oxidase def (chronic granulomatous disease) susceptible to?

A

catalase +, because they neutralize exogenous H2O2 before body can use it to kill bacteria

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75
Q

two main transporters of nitrogen in the blood

A

alanine and glutamine

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76
Q

RDS: fatty acid synthesis

A

acetyl CoA carboxylase

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77
Q

RDS: beta ox of fatty acids

A

carnitine palmitoyl transferase 1

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78
Q

RDS: cholesterol synthesis

A

HMG CoA Reductase (inhibited by statins)

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79
Q

Apo _: activates LCAT

A

A1

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80
Q

Apo _: mediates chylomicron secretion from enterocyte to lymphatics

A

B48

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81
Q

Apo _: mediates VLDL secretion

A

B100

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82
Q

Apo _: binds to LDL receptor

A

B100

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83
Q

Apo _: cofactor for LPL

A

C2

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84
Q

Apo _: mediates uptake of remnant/extra particles

A

E

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85
Q

acantholysis (spiky RBCs), night blindness (Vit A def), steatorrhea, MTP gene mutation, AR MOI

A

abetalipoproteinemia

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86
Q

BUN decreased, hyperammonemia, hepatoencephalopathy

A

OTC deficiency (urea cycle–can’t get rid of N)

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87
Q

2 acidic aa’s

A

aspartate, glutamate

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88
Q

3 basic aa’s

A

histidine, lysine, arginine

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89
Q

2 basic aa’s important during growth

A

arg, his

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90
Q

2 basic aa’s used for nuclear localization signal, high [ ] in histones

A

arg, lys

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91
Q

delirium and mental status changes, autonomic instability, muscle rigidity, myoglobinuria, hyperpyrexia

A

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

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92
Q

aa precursor: histamine

A

histidine

93
Q

aa precursor: porphyrin, heme

A

glycine

94
Q

aa precursor: NO

A

arg

95
Q

aa precursor: GABA

A

glutamate

96
Q

aa precursor: SAM

A

methionine

97
Q

aa precursor: creatine

A

arg

98
Q

where is CPS I found and what metabolic process uses it?

A

mit-urea cycle

99
Q

where is CPS II found and what metabolic process uses it

A

cytosol-pyrimidine synthesis

100
Q

how many ATP do you get when you use the malate-aspartate shuttle per glucose

A

32 (kidney)

101
Q

how many ATP do you get when you use the glycerol 3 phosphate shuttle

A

30 (brain and skeletal muscle)

102
Q

what drug prevents the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle

A

dantrolene (use for neuroleptic malignant syndrome)

103
Q

3 stop codons

A

UGA, UAA, UAG (do not code for aa)

104
Q

start codon

A

AUG (methionine)

105
Q

what nerve becomes compressed as a result of transtentorial (uncal) herniation

A

oculomotor CN III

106
Q

most abundant aa in collagen

A

glycine

107
Q

personality disorder: suspicious, distrustful, hypervigilant

A

paranoid

108
Q

personality disorder: prefers to be a loner, detached, unemotional

A

schizoid

109
Q

personality disorder: eccentric, odd thoughts, perceptions, behavior

A

schizotypal

110
Q

personality disorder: disregard and violation of the rights of others

A

antisocial

111
Q

personality disorder: chaotic relationships, sensitivity to abandonment, labile mood, impulsivity, inner emptiness, self harm

A

borderline

112
Q

personality disorder: dramatic, superficial, attention seeking

A

histrionic

113
Q

personality disorder: grandiosity, lack of empathy

A

narcissistic

114
Q

personality disorder: avoidance due to fears of criticism and rejection

A

avoidant

115
Q

personality disorder: submissive, clingy, needs to be taken care of

A

dependent

116
Q

personality disorder: rigid, controlling, perfectionistic

A

obsessive compulsive

117
Q

side effect of ganciclovir when combined with TMP-SMX

A

neutropenia/BMS

118
Q

_ aortic arch: part of maxillary artery

A

1st

119
Q

_ aortic arch: hyoid artery, stapedial artery

A

2nd

120
Q

_ aortic arch: common carotid artery, proximal internal carotid artery

A

3rd

121
Q

_ aortic arch: on left> aortic arch, on right> proximal right subclavian artery

A

4th

122
Q

_ aortic arch: proximal pulmonary arteries, on left> ductus arteriosus

A

6th

123
Q

risk of buproprion in a pt with an eating disorder

A

seizures

124
Q

hyperkalemia in pts taking ACEi’s is most common when they are also taking:

A

a K sparring diuretic (amiloride, triamterene, spirinolactone)

125
Q

placenta that is morbidly adherent to the myometrium

A

placenta accreta

126
Q

jaundice, hemolytic anemia, splenomegaly. complications: pigmented gallstones, aplastic crisis parvovirus B19 infection

A

hereditary spherocytosis

127
Q

why is dietary fructose rapidly metabolized?

A

because it enters glycolysis below the RDS, PFK-1

128
Q

risk of ______ in retinoblastoma patients later in life

A

osteosarcoma

129
Q

why does hemolytic disease of the newborn not occur with maternal blood types A and B?

A

the naturally occurring antibodies are IgM and cannot cross the placenta (in maternal blood type O, they are IgG, and CAN cross the placenta)

130
Q

changes seen on EKG with beta blockers

A

prolonged PR (decrease AV nodal conduction)

131
Q

bacterial factor responsible for Gram (-) sepsis and septic shock

A

Lipid A

132
Q

primary impairment in osteogenesis imperfecta

A

bone matrix formation

133
Q

secretin increases secretion of what by the pancreas?

A

bicarb, in response to increasing H+ concentrations

134
Q

CMV presentation in the immunocompetent

A

like mono

135
Q

leukocyte alkaline phosphatase level in leukemoid rxn

A

high or normal

136
Q

leukocyte alkaline phosphatase level in CML

A

decreased

137
Q

beta blockers for hyperthyroid MOA

A

alleviate symptoms and decrease peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

138
Q

injurty to the LTN causes winged scapula due to innervation of which muscle

A

serratus anterior

139
Q

acute intermittent porphyria caused by a def of which enzyme

A

prophobilinogen deaminase

140
Q

transudate: high or low LDH levels?

A

low, low protein too

141
Q

exudate: high or low LDH levels?

A

high, high protein too

142
Q

used in pre op management of pheos

A

phenoxybenzamine (long acting alpha blocker)

143
Q

when different mutations at the same genetic locus cause similar phenotypes

A

allelic heterogeneity

144
Q

interactions between multiple genes that combine to create a new phenotype or mask the phenotype of one of the genes

A

epistasis (ex. pt with SCD who also has high fetal Hb will have less severe dz)

145
Q

intracellular messaging abnormality that results in recurrent infections, gene is for a tyrosine kinase

A

X linked Bruton agammaglobulinemia (gene on X chr)

146
Q

which receptor does glucagon stimulate

A

Gs > AC > cAMP > increased glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

147
Q

why can’t we use clozapine even though it’s the best antipsychotic we have

A

AGRANULOCYTOSIS

148
Q

which atypical antipsychotic is most closely assoc with diabetes

A

olanzapine (weight gain)

149
Q

mnemonic for atypical antipsychotics

A

Old Closets Risper Quietly from A to Z

150
Q

what are two low potency neuroleptics

A

chlorpromazine, thioridazine

151
Q

lack IL-12, susceptible to infxn by:

A

mycobacterium (need interferon gamma)

152
Q

when would you use the carnitine shuttle

A

to bring things into the mitochondria for beta oxidation (breakdown of fats)

153
Q

when would you use malonyl-CoA

A

when you want to synthesize fat (when you have an excess of energy)

154
Q

affect of squatting on the heart and vessels

A

increases systemic vascular resistance, decreases R to L shunting (increases pulmonary blood flow)

155
Q

when would you see high AFP levels on maternal quad screen

A

inaccurate dating (with history of irregular periods)

156
Q

when would you see low AFP levels on maternal quad screen (2)

A

trisomy 21 and 18

157
Q

what type of binding domain found in: intracellular receptors that bind steroids/thyroid hormone, fat soluble vitamins

A

zinc finger binding domains

158
Q

ulcers in which part of the GI tract are not assoc with increased risk of carcinoma

A

duodenal

159
Q

anti ______ antibodies=prevent reinfection with influenza virus

A

hemagglutinin

160
Q

what indicates the severity of mitral regurg?

A

presence of audible S3 gallop

161
Q

how is the pressure required to keep a sphere distended related to the radius?

A

inversely proportional: smaller sphere, need more pressure to keep it distended

162
Q

how is the pressure required to keep a sphere distended related to the surface tension

A

directly proportional: higher surface tension–more pressure needed to keep sphere distended

163
Q

how does surfactant prevent small alveoli from collapsing?

A

by lowering the surface tension as the sphere decreases in size

164
Q

affect of AV shunt (fistula) on preload

A

AV shunts INCREASE preload by increasing rate and volume of blood flow back to heart

165
Q

affect of AV shunt (fistula) on afterload

A

TPR is reduced because blood can bypass arterioles > afterload is decreased

166
Q

when would you use buspirone

A

general anxiety disorder, but it has a SLOW onset of action (buspirSLOWne)

167
Q

CSF flows from the 3rd ventricle to the fourth ventricle via the _____

A

cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius

168
Q

Obstruction at the foramen of Monro would cause enlargement of which ventricle?

A

LATERAL

169
Q

obstruction at foramen of ______ causes enlargement of all 4 ventricles

A

Magendie and Luschka

170
Q

elevated ICP, young women who are overweight

A

pseudotumor cerebri

171
Q

which of the SITS is responsible for external rotation of the shoulder

A

infraspinatus

172
Q

which of the SITS is innervated by axillary n

A

teres minor

173
Q

which of the SITS is responsible for internal rotation

A

subscapularis

174
Q

drug class of choice for PTSD

A

SSRI (SNRI)

175
Q

diabetic mononeuropathy often involves CN __ and is caused by:

A

CN III, caused by central ischemia. affects somatic nerve fibers but spares paraympathetic

176
Q

due to poor anastomoses, the gastric tissue supplied by ______ artery is vulnerable to ischemia after splenic artery blockage

A

short gastric

177
Q

low serum levels of C1 esterase inhibitor

A

hereditary angioedema (don’t give ACEi!)

178
Q

Hep B replication sequence

A

dsDNA > +RNA template > dsDNA progeny (DNA virus with reverse txn)

179
Q

c-Jun and c-Fos are nuclear txn factors that directly bind DNA via (binding motif)

A

a leucine zipper motif

180
Q

effect of estrogen on thyroxine binding globulin

A

estrogen increases levels of thyroxine binding globulin, thus increasing total T4 pool (but normal active thyroid hormone)

181
Q

why can’t mature RBCs synthesize heme, even tho they have the enzymes

A

they lack mitochondria (needed for first and final 3 steps of heme synth)

182
Q

how does rifaximin treat hepatic encephalopathy

A

alters GI flora to decrease intestinal production and absorption of ammonia

183
Q

treatment for central DI

A

desmopressin

184
Q

treatment for nephrogenic DI (1 main, 2 extra)

A

HCTZ, indomethacin, amiloride

185
Q

treatment for lithium induced nephrogenic DI

A

amiloride

186
Q

what happens to K levels with: low insulin, beta blocker, acidosis, cell lysis, digoxin, ACEi

A

hyperkalemia

187
Q

what happens to K levels with: insulin, beta agonist, alkalosis, cell proliferation, thiazides

A

hypokalemia

188
Q

when would you use ANOVA (analysis of variance) versus chi square

A

ANOVA–determine differences between 2 or more groups

Chi Square–check for association between 2 categorical variables

189
Q

WBC count may be elevated with corticosteroid use due to increase of which white cell

A

neutrophils, mainly

190
Q

drug used for acute gout that inhibits tubulin polymerization and microtubule formation in leukocytes

A

colchicine (SE: GI effects)

191
Q

long acting sulfonylurea that causes hypoglycemia

A

glyburide (whereas glipizide is short acting)

192
Q

hypoTN, JVD with clear lungs, pulsus paradoxus

A

cardiac tamponade

193
Q

statin induced myopathy is greatly increased when statins are given concurrently with _____ (drug class for hyperlipidemia)

A

fibrates

194
Q

friction rub is the most striking physical finding of what condition

A

acute pericarditis

195
Q

pharmacologic management of drug-induced parkinsonism (when treating psychosis)

A

anticholinergics (trihexyphenidyl, benztropine)

196
Q

which protooncogene mutation is responsible for increase in the SIZE of adenomatous polyps, and leads to uncontrolled cell proliferation

A

K-RAS

197
Q

which anti-oncogene mutation is part of the final step of the adenoma-to-carcinoma sequence that leads to malignant transformation of preexisting large adenomatous polyps

A

p53

198
Q

in mitral stenosis, a short time to the opening snap indicates what about the severity?

A

short time=severe. high pressure due to build up in the LA causes valve to open more forcefully

199
Q

enzyme inhibited by lead poisoning

A

ALA delta-aminolevulinic acid dehydratase

200
Q

differential clubbing and cyanosis without blood pressure or pulse discrepancy

A

pathognomonic for a large PDA complicated by Eisenmenger syndrome

201
Q

DOC for trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine

202
Q

the _____ femoral circumflex artery and its branches provide the majority of the blood supply to the femoral head and neck

A

MEDIAL

203
Q

first line pharmocological tx for moderate to severe alcohol use disorder

A

naltrexone–reduces cravings

204
Q

cell receptor for CMV

A

cellular integrins

205
Q

cell receptor for EBV

A

CR2 (CD21)

206
Q

cell receptor for HIV

A

CD4 and CXCR4/CCR5

207
Q

cell receptor for rabies

A

nicotinic acetylcholine receptor

208
Q

cell receptor for rhinovirus

A

ICAM1 (CD54)

209
Q

which interleukin drives the cell mediated immune response in giant cell arteritis

A

IL-6

210
Q

MC karyotype for a complete mole

A

46, XX

211
Q

haptoglobin level in SCD

A

decreased (sickling > hemolysis > increased unconj BR and lactate DH, decreased haptoglobin)

212
Q

two ways to culture C diphtheriae

A

cysteine tellurite agar (resistant colonies turn black), Loeffler’s medium

213
Q

main adverse effect with nitrate therapy

A

headaches and cutaneous flushing, lightheadedness, hypoTN

214
Q

sudden vision loss and polymyalgia rheumatica

A

temporal arteritis

215
Q

nerve root: upper anteromedial thigh, hip flexion

A

L2

216
Q

nerve root: lower anteromedial thigh, hip flexion/adduction, knee extension

A

L3

217
Q

nerve root: hip adduction, knee extension, patellar reflex

A

L4

218
Q

nerve root: buttocks, posterolateral thigh, anterolateral leg, dorsal foot. foot dorsiflexion and inversion, foot eversion, toe extension

A

L5

219
Q

nerve root: buttocks, posterior thigh & calf, lateral foot. hip extension, knee flexion, foot plantar flexion, Achilles reflex

A

S1

220
Q

if you compress the nerve traversing the L5-S1 neural foramen, which nerve root signs will you see?

A

L5. nerve roots in the lumbosacral spine exit BELOW their corresponding vertebral body level

221
Q

def of homogentisic acid dioxygenase (involved in tyrosine metab), arthritis, sclerae and ear cartilage hyperpigmentation

A

alkaptonuria

222
Q

lesions on the medial foot cause ______ lymphadenopathy, whereas lesions on the lateral foot cause _____ lymphadenopathy

A

inguinal-medial

inguinal AND popliteal-lateral

223
Q

which anti lipid drug increases risk for gout

A

niacin (by decreasing renal excretion of uric acid)

224
Q

selective COX2 inhibitor NSAID that does not impair platelet aggregation

A

celeCOXib

225
Q

3 cancers with osteoblastic (sclerotic) bone mets

A

prostate, small cell lung cancer, hodgkin lymphoma (note: sclerotic is the opposite of lytic)

226
Q

sustained muscle contraction, weakness, atrophy, cataracts, frontal balding, gonadal atrophy

A

myotonic dystrophy (AD)

227
Q

amphotericin B main toxicity

A

renal (monitor for hypokalemia and hypoMg)

228
Q

what type of cancer does aflatoxin (moldy grain) p53 mutation cause

A

liver cancer

229
Q

(UC/Crohns) noncaseating granuloma and occult blood in diarrhea

A

Crohns (UC has gross bleeding)

Rapid Fire Facts***** (4 decks)

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