Random Questions for recaps Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What are some functions connective tissue. And give some examples

A

Eg of connective tissues - tunica externa and epineurium and They make up the outer coverings of nerve and blood vessels.
They provide structural support and protect the delicate structures they enclose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which chemical gives connective tissue the ability to support and protect.

A

Collagen gives them this ability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

where are peptide bonds formed on protein chains

A

they are covalent bonds that form between the carboxyl group (COO) of one amino acid and the amine group (NH2) of the other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where are disulfide bonds found in

A

found between the amino acids - cysteine, they stabalise the tertiary stricture by forming bridges between different parts of the polypeptide chain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

whats the only bond found in the secondary structure of a protein.

A

Hydrogen bonds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what does the motility apparatus consist of

A

it refers to the stucture and mechanisms within a cell or organism that facilitate movement. these components are essential for feeding, locomotion and intracellular transport.
- some key apparatuses are -
flagella and cillia, the cytoskeleton, pseudopodia and muscle fibres - actin and myosin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are pseudopodia nd how are they formed.

A

temporary, foot-like extensions of the cell membrane and cytoplasm for - amoeboid cells movement and feeding.

formed by the polymerisation of actin fibres.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are lipases and why are they important

A

they are enzymes that catalyse the hydrolysis of fats, including esters, cholesterol, phospholipids, lipid soluble vitamins, etc.

  • key role in digestion, transport and processing of lipids.
  • some confined to specific compartments in cells, some in extracellular spaces.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the linear sequence of the amino acids in the protein determine

A

It determines the proteins primary structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which protein structure requires only covalent bonds

A

The primary structure- bound by only peptide bonds which are covalent bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is DNA stored in prokaryotes and what form is it in?

A

It is stored in an area of the cytoplasm called the nucleoid, so no nucleus like in eukaryotes.
Here is exists as a single, circular and double stranded molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is rRNA responsible for?

A

rRNA along with other proteins make up the ribosomes 2 subunits, the small and the large ones. Each ribosome has a small and large rRNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the large subunit on a ribosome responsible for

A

It catalysed the formation of the peptide bond between amino acids during translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What’s the small subunit on a ribosome responsible for?

A

It helps in binding mRNA during translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Some viruses can have both DNA and RNA. True or false

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Can viruses infect other viruses

A

Yes they can, eg - virophages
And others can block the functions of a virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Is HIV an RNA or DNA virus

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are prions made of

A

Only proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the bacterial genome consist of

A

1 circular chromosome in the nucleoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Are molecules of oxygen and carbon dioxide hydrophobic or hydrophilic, and how does their nature benefit them

A

They are hydrophobic, so the uncharged molecules can easily pass through cell membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In hypertonic solution which direction does water move to and from

A

Water moved out the cell, causing it to shrink. Cos water moves from a low to a higher solute concentration area.
Hypertonic - high solute conc outside cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In a hypotonic environment

A

Water moves into the cell, causing it to swell and rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum

A

It’s surface is studded with ribosomes, which are obvs responsible for protein synthesis. the newly synthesised proteins from the ribosomes, enter the interior of the RER where they are further processed, folded and modified to their final destinations in the cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What’s the function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A

It is involved in lipid metabolism, including the synthesis of phospholipids, triglycerides (fats) and steroids (cholesterol).
It plays a role in detoxification and storage of calcium ions (for muscle contraction and induction of nerve cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where does intracellular digestion occur

A

In the lysosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are autotrophs, what are they aka and give an example.

A

they are organisms that produce their own food, using light, water, CO2, or other cheicals. they are aka producers. - - - plants being the most common.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what bacteria is described as autotrophic and give examples of how.

A

All cyanobacteria are autrophs, they synthesize organic carbon by reduction of inorganic carbon.

most use photosynthesis when light available, but some use chemosynthesis instead.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are Heterotrophs, and where are they classed in the food chain. and give examples of them.

A

they are the consumers
can be called - photoheterotrophs or chemotrophs.
- placed at secondary or tertiary levels in food chains.
- eg- humans, cows, buffaloes etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

protein synthesis is a function of the nucleus.
True / False

A

False, RNA sysnthesis occurs in the nucleus and protein synthesis in the ribosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are centrosomes,
link their structure to their function.

A

they are a component of the cells, found in the cytoplasm near the nucleus.
- they are made of 2 centrioles (short cylinderical srtuctures arranged at right angles) surrounded by the matrix.

  • centrosomes are microtubule organising centres (MTOCs), and contain gamma tubulin also in the matrix - where the microtubules grouw out of.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

when do centrosomes repliacte.

A

replicate during the G1 or S phase of cell division.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are the main functions of the respiratory system as a whole.
(give 5 functions)

A
  1. adds warmth and moisture to the air breathed in, so it matches your body temp, and neccessary humidity.
  2. defends body from entering pathogens.
  3. Air vibrtes your vocal chords, to make sounds and allow you to talk.
  4. breating air moves molecules past your olfactory nerve, which sends messages to your brain regarding the (scent) smell of things
  5. removing CO2 from the body, adjusts the bloods pH level, as high acidic conditions aren’t optimal.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what parts of the respiratory system make up the upper respiratory tract, and what is its purpose.

A

made up of the - mouth, nasal cavity, sinuses, pharynx and larynx

-helps direct air towards the lungs and adds moisture to air breathed in,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

where can the larynx be found

A

in the throat, above the trachea and in front of the oesophagus

35
Q

what makes up the lower respiratory tract,

A

consists of the trachea, bronchi and lungs.
- the trachea, bronchi and bronchioles make the tracheaobronchiral tree, alongside the alveoli.

36
Q

where is the pharynx

A

it starts behind the nose and opens into the larynx and oesophagus.

37
Q

what are high energy bonds, and how many does ATP have,
Name the bonds in ATP.

A

they are bonds that release energy when split during hydrolysis, ATP has 2 high energy bonds,
- the two high energy bonds are the phosphoanhydride bonds, and the other one forms the phosphate ester bond.

38
Q

glial cells

A

cells that hold nerve cells in place and help them work the way they should.

39
Q

what organelles are not membrane bound

A

Ribosomes, cytosleketon, centrosomes and centrioles

40
Q

what is the endoplasmic reticulum made up of

A

membranous tubulues and sacs called cristernae

41
Q

which of the 2 produces a larger gamete, oogenesis or spermatogeneis.

A

oogenesis = egg cells are one of the largest and sperm one of the smallest.

42
Q

what is contact inhibtion, and do cancer cells exhibit this characterisitc.
contact inhibtion inst related to treatment of cancer.

A

when cells divide, they keep going until they start comnig into contact with each other, which essentially is a signal for them to stop.

but cancerous cells, dont show contact inhibition, even tho cells come into contact with each other, they continue to divide.

43
Q

what is metastasis

A

the spread of cancerous cells from one area to another. a main characteristic features that defines cancer,
some cancer cells can detach from the rest and travel to other parts like the lungs, brain, lymph nodes etc.

44
Q

are centrioles found in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes or either.

A

only eukaryotes

45
Q

In what mitosis stage can karyotypes be identified

46
Q

what is sterility in males, and what would influence this.

A

aka - male infertility. sperms ability to take part in an acrosomal reaction.

47
Q

what is chromosomal form is formed from DNA replicaiton

A

Sister chromatids.

48
Q

number of codons in the genetic code

A

64 codons,

61 - specific amino acids
3 - stop codons (U Are Away, U Are Gone, U Go Gone)

49
Q

what are the products of trasncription
and where are they formed

A

rRNA, tRNA, mRNA, snRNA, MiRNA, lncRNA
(all types or RNA)
the nucleolus.

50
Q

what is the oocyte like during ovulation, any polar bodies present? if yes how many.

A

a large cell with 1 polar body.

51
Q

when does meiosis start in oocytes

A

starts in the fetal ovarium, in the utero.

52
Q

what is metamorphis, what triggers it, what are it’s benefits.

A

the extreme, rapid physical changes to an animals body plan after birth. triggered by hormones.
benefit - reduces competition between older members and the younger ones.
- more of them successfully reach sexual maturity, reduced risk of out-competition.

53
Q

what are the 2 types of metamorphosis

A

complete metamorphosis and incomplete metamorphosis.

54
Q

complete metamorphosis
- what is it
- what are they aka
- give an example

A
  • when the animal completely changes it’s body plan to become an adult.
  • aka - holometabolous
  • a (catapillar) larva in the nymph stage is enclosed in a cacoon (pupa), is morphologically very different to the trasnformed adult form.

eg - butterflies and beetles.

55
Q

incomplete metamorphosis
- what is it
- what are they aka
- give an example

A
  • only some partsd if the body change here. (only partial change).
  • aka - hemimetabolous.
  • eg - grasshoppers, cockroaches and dragonflies, all hatch from their eggs that look very similar to their adult selves.
  • wings and functioning reproductive organs, are later acquired, but they don’t completely remake their bodies.
56
Q

denaturation =
renaturation =
of proteins

A

denaturation - misfolded proteins
renaturation - when retured to normal state.

57
Q

whaty types of RNA can form complementary base pairs within themselves. and to what extent.

A

moslty all, but especially tRNA and rRNA.
tRNa - has the loooped structure where intermolecular hydrogens have been formed.

But some like mRNA, can form hydrogen bonds within themselves, but not to the same extent as tRNA and rRNA, cos it’s purpose requires for it to remain linear, so anticodons can bind to it’s codons.

58
Q

what virus is HIV
DNA or RNA

59
Q

do bacteria have -
- cell membranes
- cell walls
- both
- none of the above

A

both membrane and cell wall.

60
Q

which blood group is classed as a universal red blood cell donor

A

o -ve blood group

61
Q

what is the dfifference between polygenic inheritence and epistais.

A

several genes = contribute to overall phenoytype.
epistasis = interaction of the 2 genes, masks the effect of the other.

62
Q

voltaic cell

A

a spontaneous redox reaction that is used to produe an electric current

63
Q

what can be done to determine if a trait is heterozygous or homozygous

A

using a test cross, either monohybrid or dihybrid.

64
Q

what organelles are surrounded by a double membrane

A

the nuclear envelope, mitochondria, chloroplast.

65
Q

where does krebs cycle take place

A

mitochondrial matrix

66
Q

where is the ETC located

A

in the inner mitochondrial membrane

67
Q

how does glycolysis harvest chemical energy

A

converting glucose into 2 molecles of pyruvate

68
Q

is glycolysis either -
aerobic / anearobic
catabolic / metabolic

A

anearobic catabolic.

69
Q

whats the difference between catabolic and anabolic, metabolic processes.

A

catabolic - breaking down larger molecules into smaller ones and releases energy - degredation

anabolic - uses to build larger molecules from smaller ones - biosynthesis.

70
Q

whats the main function of the nucleolus

A

site of rRNA synthesis and assembly ribosomal subunits

71
Q

what is the nuclear organisers

A

sites on chromosomes that contain rRNA genes.

72
Q

hemizygous

A

someone with one copy of a gene rather than the usual 2 copies.

73
Q

link hemizygous to x linked recessive inheritence

A

a male with an affected allele on the X chromosome. is hemizygous and wont be trasmitted to their male offsprings, only the daughters

74
Q

2 healthy parents have a son with sickle cell aneamia, an autosomal recessive disorder. which parent did it come form.

A

both parents must be carriers of the mutated allele.
there’s a 25% that the offsrpring wll inherit the homozgous reccessive alleles.

75
Q

what does linkage disrupt

A

the 9:3:3;1 mendels dyhrbrid ratio.

76
Q

how is sickle cell aneamia casued

A

mutated allele

77
Q

can crossing voer occur even though the genes arent linked.

A

NO!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Crossing over only occurs netween gees that are located on the same chromosome but they shouldnt be tightly linked, cos then possibilities of seperation is limited.

78
Q

what are found in people with the blood group AB

A

the A and B antigens on the erythrocytes.

79
Q

what are numerical mutations

A

mutations that occur in the chromosome count, potentially causing aneuploidies or polyplodies.
result of cell division errors

80
Q

include possible structural chromosome mutations

A

inversions, duplications, deletion, translocations of chromosomal fragements.
errors occur during muclear division or from mutagens.

81
Q

daltonism

A

colour blindness. an X-linked reccessive trait from the mother.

82
Q

if a female has a particular (heterozygous) X linked mutation, who will it be transmitted to

A

if she is heterozygous (the carrier), then there is 50% chance of her children inheriting it as well.
sp half of her daughters and sons.

84
Q

Where in the cell cycle does transcription occur

A

In the G2 phase