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G4 Oral Study > Random Questions > Flashcards

Random Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Cold dark airplane; you push BAT 1 and 2. Which busses are powered?

A

DC BAT BUS

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2
Q

ELAC fault light?

A

Comes on when inop but also comes on during inital power up for a self test

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3
Q

Whats the difference between MAN ON and RAT MAN ON?

A

They both drop the RAT, but MAN ON also enables the emergency generator

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4
Q

Does the outflow valve always close when you push the DITCH PB?

A

Not if it’s in manual mode

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5
Q

Reasons why an engine bleed would close

A 
When you push it 
Engine fire pb 
Fault light 
Reverse flow of air
No air pressure
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6
Q

When you have an APU bleed fault, what valve closes?

A

The crossbleed valve

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7
Q

When does the pack flow automatically go to HI?

A

Single pack op or with APU bleed supply

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8
Q

Normal power flow for DC BAT BUS?

A

AC BUS 1 - TR 1 - DC BUS 1 - DC BAT BUS

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9
Q

Cargo heat panel:

Fault light AFT ISOL VALVE

A

Valve not in selected position

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10
Q

Cargo heat panel:

When you press the AFT ISOL VALVE, what valve closes?

A

Inlet, outlet and trim air valves close.

Extract fan stops

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11
Q

How many smoke detectors in each cargo bay?

A

2 FWD

4 AFT

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12
Q

What happens if you only get a blower fault light and the ECAM directs you to press override. How is avionics configuration changed? And vise versa?

A

Closed circuit configuration.

Air from the air conditioning system is added to ventilation air.

Blower fan stops if BLOWER is OVRD

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13
Q

How many cabin fans?

A

2

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14
Q

Modes for FMC?

A

Independent
Dual
Slave

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15
Q

What do we have in mechanical backup?

A

Manual pitch trim and rudder

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16
Q

When will you not have anti-skid in alternate brakes?

A

When anti-skid is off

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17
Q

What does the emergency cancel pb do?

A

Warning- cancels aural and warning lights but does not affect ECAM message

Caution- cancels chime, caution lights and ECAM

press RCL for 3+ secs if you needed to restore

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18
Q

Which fuel valves close when you turn the ENG master off?

A

LP and HP

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19
Q

How many motors operate the pressurization outflow valve?

A

3

2 PCs and manual

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20
Q

Which associated HYD valve closes when you push ENG fire #1?

A

Green

If it were ENG fire # 2, yellow

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21
Q

Can you get HYD pressure back?

A

Yes; PTU and yellow Elec pump

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22
Q

Thrust lock? How to get out?

A

Keeps you from thurst surge; marry the TL to the indicator on N1

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23
Q

What happens if the avionics bay cooling compartment power supply goes dead?

A

The valves stay in the position prior to failure

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24
Q

ADIRS on battery power logic?

A

All 3 power for 5 minutes, then 2 and 3 shed only leaving 1.

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25
Q

Low Energy Warning

“Speed Speed Speed”

A

Designed to function prior to alpha floor to alert pilot to add thrust and reduce AOA.

Not dependent on flight laws.

It’s independent from auto thrust status and active below 2000 feet, config 2 or greater or when alpha floor is not engaged. 

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26
Q

With a HOT AIR fault, what temp will you have?

A

Whatever you had last set

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27
Q

Cargo smoke:

What happens when you discharge the bottle?

A

It discharges into the corresponding compartment

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28
Q

ACCU pressure indicates?

A

Pressure in the yellow brake accumulator

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29
Q

2 Brake Pressures indicate? System?

A

Only when the yellow HYD system controls brake pressure.

You should only see when you’re in alternate braking or parking brake.

If you see pressure anytime else, it means that you are not on normal braking (GREEN HYD SYS) and have a problem.

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30
Q

Does OEW (operational empty weight) include pilots? Fa’s? Galley carts?

A

Pilots only

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31
Q

Difference between flap 3/full landing chart vs. demonstrated?

A

Demonstrated doesnt account for 50’ above threshold

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32
Q

TAT vs. SAT

A

TAT (total air temp) has compressibility errors

SAT (static air temp) is temp of undisturbed air

This is why we use SAT in flight

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33
Q

How do you enter HDG if you switch to ATT mode?

A

MCDU

Frequently have to reset it though (about every 10 min)

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34
Q

Where is the architecture chart?

A

Back of QRH

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35
Q

If you no longer have AC BUS 1 powered, how is it powered?

A

Battery/inverter

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36
Q

With GEN 1 LINE pushed, will the crosstie close to power AC BUS 1?

A

No

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37
Q

What buses do you have on emergency electrical configuration?

A

2 batteries= 2 buses and 2 screens (PFD1 and E/WD)

With RAT: 4 buses = 4 screens (PFD1, ND1, ECAM and MCDU 1)

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38
Q

What does OFF mean on the crew supply pb?

A

Valve closes on crew O2

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39
Q

When do logo lights come on/off?

A

Main landing gear compressed aka weight on wheels

40
Q

When would we normally use the DITCH pb?

A

Deicing

41
Q

What do you do if you have a ECAM ADVISORY?

A

QRH and follow steps

42
Q

Why do we switch the pack flow to low?

A

Save fuel

43
Q

Can you get the IDG back after disconnecting it?

A

No- maintenance

44
Q

How is IDG fuel circulated?

A

Some of the fuel from each engine goes through the HP fuel line
to
the IDG heat exchanger (where it absorbs the heat)
to
The fuel return valve
and then
back into the outer fuel tank

45
Q

How do you smoke detectors work?

A

Senses smoke particals

46
Q

Max altitude to use the APU to assist engine start?

A

20,000’

47
Q

Max altitude for air conditioning and pressurization (single pack op)

A

22,500’

48
Q

Max altitude for air conditioning and pressurization (dual pack op)

A

15,000’

49
Q

1000 psi, can you take jumpseat?

A

Most likely, but look it up

FCOM- LIM- OXYGEN

50
Q

Total fuel capacity

A

42,000lbs

51
Q

ELAC 1 vs 2

A 
1 = aileron
2= elevator
52
Q

At what airspeed must the thrust reversers be fully stowed in winter conditions?

A

30 kts

53
Q

When is predictive windshear inhibited on the ground?

A

After 100 kts

54
Q

What will tell you if the aircraft can be dispatched or not, or if there is an MEL for it?

A

MEL cross reference list

55
Q

Max turbulence penatration speed?

A

275/.76

56
Q

Vmo/Mmo

A

350/.82

57
Q

How do we know if something is dispatchable/MELable?

A

MEL Cross Reference list

58
Q

What is the crosswind limit for 1/8 wet runway?

A
  1. 1/8 is not considered “contaminated”

Anything over 1/8 IS considered contaminated

59
Q

Max EGT temp for
TOGA
MCT
Start

A

950 for TOGA
915 for MCT
725 for start

60
Q

Normal PSI for pressure?
Max positive and negative?
Where are the safety valves located?

A

8.6 psi

Max is 9 psi and will blow the disk
-1 will also blow the disk

2 safety valves located aft bulkhead

61
Q

Why do we turn off the Y elec pump prior to starting engine 2?

A

So it can run its self test

62
Q

Can we take off on wet ice?

A

No

63
Q

Why would you get the external horn?

A

Apu fire on ground
Press the mech call button
IRs on battery power longer than 5 minutes

64
Q

Compacted snow crosswind limit?

A

10 kts

65
Q

Can you takeoff on an icy runway?

A

Yes, if you have the performance for it, but its not recommended

66
Q

What is an ECB?

A

Electronic Control Box

Regulates the APU bleed air

67
Q

Is the engine bleed pressure regulated or flow regulated?

A

Pressure

Trys to maintain 45 +/- 5

68
Q

Landing conditions 5/4/3, which one are you going to use?

A

3- most conservative

69
Q

Cost Index

A

The higher the number = more fuel burn (faster)

The lower the number = less fuel burn (slower)

70
Q

What is the green procedure for increasing landing distance?

A

In order:

Full flaps
Reversers
Manual brakes

71
Q

How long after landing can you turn the brake fans on?

A

5 min

72
Q

New pax weights

A

Summer- 197
Winter - 202
Carry on bag 17lbs

73
Q

APU Max altitude for air conditioning and pressurization (single pack)?

A

22,500

74
Q

APU Max altitude for air conditioning and pressurization (dual pack)?

A

15,000

75
Q

Max ceiling for windmilling an engine starter assisted

A

25,000

76
Q

Can you start the apu at FL390?

A

Yes

77
Q

When would we use IGN?

A

Heavy rain or turbulence

78
Q

When would we use CRANK?

A

Manual abort start

Ex. Hot start to clear out excess fuel

79
Q

When will you an ecam for a fuel imbalance?

A

Around 3300 lbs

80
Q

When will you get “speed speed” warning?

A

Flaps 2-Full

Below 2,000’

81
Q

Red arrow on gear light will come on when?

A

When gear isn’t locked down

82
Q

What is icing conditions?

A

1sm or less and 10C or less

83
Q

What stabilities do you have in ALT law?

A

High speed, low speed and Gload

84
Q

In normal law, with flaps extended, what are your G-load protections?

A

2.0 to 0

85
Q

What controls the packs?

A

ACSCs
Dual channel
If one fails it will stay at set temp
If both fail it will give you a preset temp range

86
Q

What braking will you lose with a loss of green hydraulics?

A

Normal braking and auto brakes

87
Q

What is the danger of turning the batteries off on the ground?

A

No APU fire protection

88
Q

How long is the parking brake good for?

A

12 hours

89
Q

When does anti-skid turn off?

A

20 kts

90
Q

Will the ptu run if you turn on the yellow electric pump?

A

Yes, if the masters arent split

91
Q

What does LGCIU 1 control?

A

The gear lights.

If it fails, you will have amber X on triangle on wheel page

92
Q

When do you have to do an engine run up?

A

OAT is 3 or less

You run at 70% for 30 seconds

93
Q

When do the LGCIUs switch?

A

Every gear cycle

94
Q

When do you get a box on the oxygen?

A

Less than around 1500 psi

95
Q

What flight control computer controls the SRS system?

A

The FAC

Speed reference system

G4 Oral Study (21 decks)

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