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Random Q's Flashcards

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1
Q

When will a solid precipitate from solution?

A

When it exceeds Ksp

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2
Q

Which is smaller? A sodium cation or a chloride anion?

A

Sodium cation

Im assuming that they are trying to point out that the cation will have fewer electrons, therefore increasing the Zeff felt by the remaining electrons.

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3
Q

What is the pH of a solution with a 1x10-5 [H+]?

A

5

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4
Q

Difference between a reducing sugar and a non-reducing sugar?

A
  • Hemiacetal group = reducing
  • NO Hemiacetal group = non-reducing
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5
Q

What 3 things needed for a functional ultrasound?

A
  • frequency of wave when the source is stationary
  • speed of source
  • speed of detector
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6
Q

How is it than organic acid partially dissociates in pure water, but fully dissociates in blood?

HA(aq) ⇔ H+(aq) + A-(aq)

A

The equilibrium concentration of H+ is maintained at a low value. Forcing the acid to dissociate via le chatelier’s principle.

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7
Q

What are the characteristics of a suitable primer for PCR?

A
  • High GC content
  • G or C at each end
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8
Q

If the level of a transport protein increased, how would the Km be affected?

A
  • It would not change.

lol.

for real.

stop shaking your head.

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9
Q

If carbonic anhydrase were inhibited in the blood buffer equation, the concentration of ________ would increase.

CO2 + H2O ⇔ H2CO3 ⇔ H+ + HCO3-

A

CO2

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10
Q

How would cocaine (a stimulant) influence your metabolism?

A

It is a stimulant, so this would act like stress, increasing glucose metabolism.

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11
Q

What concept is described in the picture shown?

A

Demographic Transition Theory

This theory describes a country undergoing economic development. it shows a drop in death rates at first, followed by a decrease in birth rates.

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12
Q

Does shifting light away from the fovea always decrease acuity?

A

NO!

What if it’s dark outside? You would want to move away from the fovea to utlize more rods bruh..

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13
Q

What is the purpose of fMRI?

A

Monitor brain activity via blood flow

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14
Q

For schizophrenia, define each of the following:

  • (+) symptoms
  • (-) symptoms
A
  • Gain of inappropriate behaviors and emotion
    • Ex) Delusions (false belief), Hallucinations (false senses)
  • Absence/Loss of appropriate behaviors and emotion
    • Ex) Avolition (flattened affect), Aphagia (speech loss)
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15
Q

Negative priming requires which type of memory?

A

Implicit Memory

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16
Q

First-line drugs for schizophrenia are _________. Which can potentially exacerbate (-) symptoms while improving (+) symptoms.

A

Neuroleptics

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17
Q

What cognitive changes do schizophrenia and alzheimer’s (dementia) have in common?

A
  • Loss in cognitive ability, especially in :
    • verbal fluency
    • negative priming
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18
Q

True or False:

A solution saturated with solute is at equilibrium.

A

True

system no longer changes with time

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19
Q

True or False:

Chemical equilibrium applies to a system in which the k is zero order, so no matter how much of a reactant you add, the rate does not change.

A

False

<em>k </em>refers to rate constant, whereas Chemical equilibrium (<em>Keq)</em> refers to the equilibrium constant.

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20
Q

For each Major Sociological theory, provide the name of the people who created it:

  1. Functionalism
  2. Conflict theory
  3. Symbolic Interactionism

Bonus Q: What general type of long-term memory retrieval did you use to answer this card?

A
  1. Durkheim
  2. Marx, Weber
  3. Mead

Explicit memory [more specifically, semantic memory]

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21
Q

Which sub-type of Long Term Memory is used for the retrieval of the following?

  • Capital of France.
  • When I first got stabbed.
  • *The act of riding a bike*
  • *Providing the answer for the above bullet points*

This flash card improved the _____-_____ ______ of your dendrites.

A
  • Semantic [fact]
  • Episodic [you]
  • Implicit [how-to]
  • Semantic [fact]

Long-term potentiation

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22
Q

For the following reaction, state whether products, reactants or neither side will be favored? Assume it’s at Eq inside of a secure, leak-proof container.

N2 (g) + 3 H2 (g) ⇔ 2 NH3 (g) ∆H = - 50 kj

  • Increase N2
  • Increase NH3
  • Increase volume
  • Increase pressure
  • Increase temperature
  • Add an Inert gas [Ar for example]
  • Add a catalyst
A
  • Products
  • Reactants
  • Reactants
  • Products
  • Reactants
  • Neither side; Remains at Eq
  • Neither side; Remains at Eq

Volume and pressure changes only apply to gases. If the pressure on the system increases, it will shift to side with less mols of stuff.

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23
Q

How fast will an Open System reach equilibrium when compared with a Closed System?

A

Only the closed system will reach equilibrium.

No new reactants, products or temperature can be influencing the system to reach equilibrium. [pg.202 gchem]

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24
Q

The recessive allele for cystic fibrosis is strongly selected against in society because they die prematurely. The allele takes many generations to decrease in a population, why is this the case?

A

Natural Selection acts on phenotypes, not genotypes.

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25
Q

For a population of 500 chimpanzees, 50 are homozygous for a recessive allele (h) and 100 are heterozygous. What is the frequency of the h allele in the population?

A

0.2

Allele frequency is the number of copies of a specific allele divided by the total number of copies of the gene in the population.

50 hh = 100 h alleles

100 Hh = 100 h alleles

500x2 = 1000 total

200 / 1000 = 0.2

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26
Q

Label the following as vector or scalar:

  • Velocity
  • Displacement
  • Speed
  • Acceleration
A
  • Vector
  • Vector
  • Scalar
  • Vector
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27
Q

What does this equation measure?

(P + a(n/V)2)(V - nb) = nRT

DO NOT MEMORIZE EQUATION

A

How much a particular gas varies from an ideal gas.

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28
Q

For the following, tell whether it is a scalar or vector quantity.

  1. 10 mph
  2. Distance
  3. Velocity
  4. 10 mph in the southbound direction
  5. Pressure
  6. Force due to pressure
  7. Volume
A
  1. Scalar
  2. Scalar
  3. Vector
  4. Vector
  5. Scalar
  6. Vector
  7. Scalar
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29
Q

When an object floats, its _________ __________ is just enough to make the buoyant force it feels balance its weight.

A

submerged volume

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30
Q

In a buffer system, which species (A- or HA) will dominate, if the pH is greater than the pKa of the buffer system?

A

A-

to confirm, you can plug into henderson-hasselbalch equation

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31
Q

How many equivalents of NaOH are needed to neutralize H2PO4?

A

2 equivalents

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32
Q

What type of decay causes 38Sr to become 39Y?

What type of decay causes 39Y to become 38Sr?

A

Beta emission

Positron emission or electron capture

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33
Q

How many combinations are possible for tripeptides made from the following:

  • 3 amino acids that cannot repeat
  • 3 amino acids that can repeat
  • 20 amino acids that can repeat
A
  • 3 !
  • 33
  • 203
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34
Q

For an enzyme to be a true antagonist, what must be true?

A

It must bind to receptor proteins and inhibit activity.

If the supposed chemical still functions at the same rate even after addition of the enzyme, then it is not antagonistic and is instead indirectly related.

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35
Q

What is the general range for p-values and what does it represent?

A

They range from 0 to 1.

The closer to 0 it is, the more significant the data is.

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36
Q

What does Kcat represent?

A

Kcat = the turnover rate of each enzyme

How many substrate molecules are converted to products when the enzyme is saturated. Vmax is then Kcat x [E]

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37
Q

What formula relates Vmax, Km, V0 and [S]?

A

V0 = Vmax [S] / Km + [S]

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38
Q
A
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39
Q

Antibody binding can best be described as:

A

Non-covalent protein-protein interaction

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40
Q

How would the lineweaver-burk plot change for an enzyme that is stimulated to be synthesized faster?

A

Y-intercept will decrease, every thing else will remain constant

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41
Q
A
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42
Q

List the nucleotides from slowest moving to fastest moving in a gel electrophoresis experiment A,G,C,T.

A
  1. G
  2. A
  3. T
  4. C
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43
Q

What are the 4 outcomes in signal detection theory?

A
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44
Q

A patient closes their right eye, and looks at the word “Face”. They are told to draw the word, but are only able to draw the picture of a face. Why?

A

Split-brain syndrome; Corpus Callosum severed.

Visual information from the left eye crosses into the right side of the brain, but is not able to be processed in the “language side of the brain” (left hemisphere) due to the severed corpus callosum.

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45
Q

The 3 stages: Alarm, Resistance and Exhaustion pertain to what psychological syndrome?

A

General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)

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46
Q

For each example, state what therapy type was initiated:

  • Accepting circumstances and pursuing personal growth
  • Replacing negative thoughts with positive thoughts
  • Uncovering unconscious conflicts and feelings
A
  • Humanistic
  • Cognitive-Behavioral
  • Psychoanalytic
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47
Q

Validitity Type that aims to describe causality of experimental data (confounding variables, selection bias, repeated testing).

A

Internal Validity

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48
Q

Validity Type that aims to describe Generalizability.

A

External Validity

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49
Q

Which Validity type is associated with:

  • Tight experimental control
  • “Real world” experiments
A
  • Internal Validity
  • External Validity
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50
Q

What is the difference between p values and r values?

A
  • p values tell significance of the data set (less than .05 is significant)
  • r values tell correlation​ between 2 values (closer to 1 is more correlated)
      • value is positive correlation (increase in 1 variable leads to increase in the other variable)
      • value is negative correlation
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51
Q

For each schizophrenic symptom, classify as + or -

  • hallucination/delusions
  • disorganized speech
  • Apathy (lack of motivation)
  • Avolition (lack of purpose)
  • Flat affect
  • Alogia (loss of speech)
A
  • +
  • +
  • -
  • -
  • -
  • -
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52
Q

For a cell that expresses a gene of interest, one way to determine the cell type is to identify the presence of an mRNA specific to that cell and develop a _______ _______ that can hybridize with it.

A

complementary probe

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53
Q

A conditioned fear response is most closely associated with which type of memory?

A

Implicit memory

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54
Q

How would depriving a test subject of food change their receptiveness to operant conditioning?

A

It would increase their motivational state, which should lead to them participating and being impacted to a higher degree

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55
Q

What is the difference between power and authority?

A
  • Power = influence over others
  • Authority = whether others believe the power is legitimate
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56
Q

For the following Van’t hoff equation, what would be the gibbs free energy equation assuming the slope is -4911 and the y-intercept is 5.4?

A

4911R - T (5.4R)

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57
Q

For the following equation of a Van’t Hoff equation:

lnKa = -4911 (1/T) + 5.4

  • Sign of ∆H
  • Sign of ∆S
A
  • (+) ∆H
  • (+) ∆S
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58
Q

The longest σ bond between 2 atoms will be between those with ________________.

A

the largest atomic radii

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59
Q

Are the following chemicals the same or different compounds? Why?

SO3

SO3-2

A

Different

because the electron configuration is different

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60
Q

Which of the following atoms will have the smallest radii?

  • Na+
  • F−
  • Mg2+
  • O2−
A

Mg2+

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61
Q

Boiling point is defined as the temperature at which the vapor pressure of a solution is ______ to the atmospheric pressure.

A

equal

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62
Q

What best explains why sound waves moves faster when moving from air to liquid?

A

The bulk modulus (K) is different.

The bulk Modulus is increased for “stiffer” media.

In general, v = √(Κ/ρ) represents the velocity of sound waves in a medium.

Vsolid > Vliquid > Vgas.

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63
Q

What are the electron configurations of the following:

  • XeF4
  • NH3
A
  • Sp3d2
  • Sp3

muahaha

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64
Q

Was there a net oxidation or reduction in the following process shown:

A

Neither

no net oxidation or reduction

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65
Q

A build-up of toxic radicals will cause an increase in oxidation or reduction in cells?

A

Oxidation

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66
Q

What are 3 types of Eukaryotes?

What are the 2 types of Prokaryotes?

A
  1. Plants
  2. Animals
  3. Fungi
  4. Bacteria
  5. Archaea
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67
Q

Unlike stereotype and prejudice, stigma is ________________.

A

always a highly negative perception.

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68
Q

This is an example of what effect?

A

Stroop Effect

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69
Q

How do the following relate?

  • More
  • Folkway
  • Informal Norm
  • Formal Norm
A
  • Informal Norms - unwritten
    • More - serious
    • Folkway - not serious
  • Formal Norm - written
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70
Q

Where will the following solutions move toward?

  • Areas of High Hydrostatic pressure
  • Areas of Low Osmotic pressure
  • Areas of High Osmotic pressure
A

Low

High

Will remain where it is

71
Q

What will be the approximate pKa of your pH indicator?

A

+/- 1 of the equivalence point

if titrating a weak acid with a strong base, your equivalence point will be above 7

If titrating a weak base with a strong acid, your equivalence point will be below 7

If titrating a strong acid with a strong base, your equivalence point will be at 7

72
Q

How will electron withdrawing groups influence the stability of the following:

  • Carbocations
  • Phenols
A
  • Decreases stability
  • Increases stability (making more acidic)
73
Q

What causes the forced exhalation beyond the norm?

A

Intercostal muscles

74
Q

For each process listed, tell what genetic material was separated and what cells were produced during the process:

  • Mitosis
  • Meiosis I
  • Meiosis II
A
  • Separate sister chromatids to produce diploid daughters
  • Separate homologous chromosomes to produce haploid daughters
  • Separate sister chromatids to produce haploid daughters
75
Q

Which phases of the cell cycle require the use of:

  • Microtubules
  • Microfilaments
A
  • Metaphase, Anaphase
  • Cytokinesis (they help with formation of cleavage furrow)

there may be other parts of the cell cycle that these influence, the aforementioned processes are just the most high yield

76
Q

Prostaglandins, and terpenes and terpenoids are all expamples of _____________.

A

Cholesterol derivatives

77
Q

What is the pneumonic BAT-D as it pertains to sleep cycles?

A
  • Beta waves - when awake
  • Alpha waves - when sleepy
  • Theta waves - when asleep
  • Delta waves - when in deep sleep
78
Q

Which of following are related to Anomie?

  • Rapid changes in society
  • Low levels of income
  • High heterogeneity
A

All are related to anomie (aka Normlessness)

79
Q

Put the stages of end of life events in order, as it pertains to the Kubler-Ross model:

  • Anger
  • Denial
  • Depression
  • Acceptance
  • Bargaining
A
  1. Denial
  2. Anger
  3. Bargaining
  4. Depression
  5. Acceptance
80
Q

According to Freud’s theory, which of the following are involved in the unconscious mind?

  • Ego
  • Id
  • Superego
A

All are involved to some degree in the unconscious

81
Q

Electrons ejected from which orbital will have the highest energy?

  • sp
  • sp2
  • sp3
A

sp

it will be most difficult to excite an electron from the sp subshell cuz it’s so close to the nucleus

82
Q

For the following chemical equation, what is the Ksp equation?

Ag2SO2 (s) → 2 Ag+ (aq) + SO42– (aq)

A

Ksp = [Ag+]2 [SO42-]

remember that solids and liquids will not be included in the equilibrium expression.

83
Q

What types of solvents are needed for SN1, SN2, E1 and E2?

A
84
Q

Define:

  • Passive immunity
  • Natural Immunity
  • Cell-mediated immunity
  • Innate immunity
A
  • Passive immunity is the transfer of active humoral immunity in the form of ready-made antibodies, from one individual to another.
  • Natural immunity is immunity that is present in the individual at birth, prior to exposure to a pathogen or antigen, and that includes intact skin, salivary enzymes, neutrophils, natural killer cells, and complement.
  • Cell-mediated immunity is an immune response that does not involve antibodies, but rather involves the activation of phagocytes, antigen-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocytes, and the release of various cytokines in response to an antigen.
  • Innate (non-specific) immune system includes anatomical barriers, secretory molecules, and cellular components. Among the mechanical anatomical barriers are the skin and internal epithelial layers, the movement of the intestines, and the oscillation of bronchopulmonary cilia.
85
Q

What type of genetic does a viral vector contain?

A

DNA

the example i had seen stated that an adeno-associated virus serotype rh.10 (AAVrh.10) gene transfer vector would be used in the experiment, thus indicating that a DNA viral vector was being used/created.

86
Q

An individual with Wernicke’s aphasia would likely have difficulty with what part of communication?

A

Expressing meaning

87
Q

Where do all proteins begin translation?

A

Cytoplasm

88
Q

What SRP-dependent sequences are needed for the following molecules?

  • Secreted proteins
  • Integral membrane proteins
  • Golgi or Lysosomes
A
  • targeting signals
  • transmembrane domains
  • glycosylation
89
Q

The cytoplasm is typically defined as a ________ enviornment, as can be seen by the separation of cystine bonds into 2 cysteine molecules

A

Reducing enviornment

90
Q

Discuss the workings of an MRI machine.

A

They function similar to a permanent bar magnet. The electrons move in a circular pattern and creates a B field through the MRI machine

91
Q

A proton is traveling north. It is projected in an arc toward the left due to a B field. How would this same B field project an electron in similar conditions?

A

The electron would arc to the right, but not much more strongly because it’s mass is much smaller compared to the proton.

92
Q

Inserting ____________ (polarizable materials) between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor causes electric dipoles to form within the dielectric material.

A

Dielectrics

93
Q

Dipoles created by dielectrics reduce the magnitude of the ______________ present between the plates such that voltage decreases and capacitance increases.

A

Electric field (E)

94
Q

The energy U in a capacitor is stored in the ___________ created between the oppositely charged plates.

A

electric field

95
Q

What are major factors in the bioavailability of drugs?

A

Solubility and membrane permeability

96
Q

What are the units for Newtons?

A
97
Q

What are the units for Joules?

A

N*m

(Newton meters)

98
Q

For organic chemistry labs, an impure compound will have a boiling point that is ___________.

A

Lower and over a broader range

99
Q

Eluting strength is defined as:

A

how strongly a compound adsorbs onto the adsorbent. Since typical adsorbents are highly polar, eluting strength increases with increasing solvent polarity.

so in TLC, polar molecules have a stronger eluting strength and migrate less

100
Q

What is the Normality of a phosphoric acid solution with a Molarity of .0015?

A

.0045

.0015 x 3 protons

101
Q

This rightward shift of the hemoglobin-oxygen binding curve is termed ________.

A

th Bohr effect

102
Q

Low blood _______ and increased levels of _______ in the blood can indicate a shortage of oxygen.

A

pH

CO2

103
Q

What would happen in PCR if 1 primer, instead of 2 is added to the mixture?

A

Only one strand would be replicated in a linear fashion per round.

So after 10 cycles you would have 10 copies of DNA vs. 2^10 copies when using 2 primers

104
Q

According to Chomsky’s view… __________.

A

individuals have an innate language acquisition device

105
Q

How can context effects be differentiated from false alarms?

A
  • Context effects = increased cognitive recall
  • False alarms = believing something was present, when in reality it is not
106
Q

Neuroleptics for schizophrenia treat what type of symptoms?

Neuroleptics for schizophrenia exacerbate what type of symptoms?

A

Positive symptoms improve

  • hallucinations
  • delusions
  • disorganized speech
  • disorganized behavior

Negative symptoms exacerbated

  • Apathy
  • flat affect
  • anhedonia
107
Q

Making a group larger does

A
108
Q

For each group, state whether stability, intimacy or social processes are impacted.

(Hint: only one thing applies to each group type)

  • Diad
  • Tryad
  • Tetrad
  • 5 members or more
A
  • More intimate because 1 on 1
  • More stable because even if 1 person leaves you’re good
  • Less stable because people pair up
  • Social processes occur (groupthink, social loafing)
109
Q

How do core and periphery nations differ in regards to:

  • product export
  • resource export
A
  • Core nation = lot of product export, little resource export
  • Periphery nation = little produt export, lot of resource export
110
Q

What receptors are associated with the following?

  • vision
  • audition
  • olfaction
  • gustation
  • touch
  • interoception
A
  • EM receptors
  • mechanoreceptor
  • chemoreceptor
  • chemoreceptor
  • mechanoreceptor, nociceptor, thermoreceptor
  • baroreceptor, chemoreceptor
111
Q

Group Bacteria, Archae and Eukaryotes based on:

  • Chromosome shape
  • PG
  • Presence of nucleus and organelles
A

Bacteria and Archae both have circular chromosomes and no nuclei/organelles

Bacteria only have PG

112
Q

How many bonds does an octahedral molecule have?

A

6 bonds

d2sp3

113
Q

In bio experiments involving protein mutation, what is meant by R55Y?

A

The original protein contained Arginine, but was mutated to Glycine.

114
Q

A medical student who emulates the medical director is an example of what type of group?

A

Reference group

115
Q

Interoception is best described as:

A

Increased sensitivity to internal body changes. Associated with increased activity of the autonomic nervous system

116
Q

If the passage asks, “by what factor is X larger than Y”, what should you do?

A

You should be dividing 2 numbers to get a ratio/factor

117
Q

On an atomic level:

UV exposure results in ____________ and IR exposure results in ___________.

A

electron excitation

bond vibration

you can think, it’s easier to vibrate bonds than electrons

118
Q

Half-life is best described as:

A

the amount of time it takes for half of all radioactive nuclei to decay into their daughter nuclei

the daughters may or may not be radioactive

119
Q

Which of the following examples of light waves are closest in energy to ground state when excited?

  • 500nm
  • 250nm
A

500nm

because this is it’s wavelength; longer wavelength = lower energy

120
Q

A sigmoidal curve in which entities bind indicates:

A

that there is some form of cooperative binding occurring

121
Q

Differentiate the following:

  • Covalent bond
  • Coordinate covalent bond
  • Ionic bond
  • Nonpolar bond
  • Polar bond
A
  • sharing electrons between 2 elements with similar EN
  • single atom provides both electrons to form a bond (often lewis acid/base rxns)
  • transfer of 1 or more electrons between 2 elements with very different EN
  • Similar EN
  • Different EN
122
Q

What are the 2 ways that Hf° can be calculated based on different data that could be given?

A

Hf° with heat of formation

H°products - H°reactants

Hf° with bond dissociation energy

H°reactants - H°products

123
Q

Of the following, which bond is likely the shortest? Which bond is least polar?

  • C–H
  • C–O
  • C–C
  • O–N
A

C–H

since H is the smallest molecule of all the elements listed. Looking at the periodic trend, atomic radii decreases going to the right and down the periodic table.

C–C

124
Q

How do you find Work done in Electrical systems and Elastic Spring systems, Fluid systems and Mechanical systems?

A

Calculate the potential energy. moving with, the sign is (-)

  • Work done with Electric field = (-) PE = qV
  • Work done with Spring = (-) PE = 1/2 kx2

Calculate normal Work for fluid systems and mechanical

  • Work done on system = (-) W = PV
  • Work done on system = W = Fd Cos (theta)
125
Q

Resonance is _________ from/to the intensity of the sound source.

A

independent

126
Q

What theory for frequency is closely associated with ultrasound devices?

A

Doppler Effect

127
Q

What is meant by kinetic product?

What is meant by thermodynamic product?

A

Kinetic = product created the fastest

Thermodynamic = product that has the lowest free energy (most stable)

128
Q

Activating mutations are normally associated with what type of gene?

A

Oncogenes

Oncogenes are the result of Proto-oncogenes, which are normal gene that can cause cancer if mutated. If they become mutated, now they are oncogenes and will cause cancer.

129
Q

Differentiate Oncogenes and Tumor suppressor genes.

A
  • Oncogenes
    • perform normal functions
    • cause cancer by being activated by mutation
  • Tumor suppressor genes
    • actively fight cancer
    • cause cancer by being inactivated by mutation
130
Q

Proline is likely to be found in what secondary protein structures?

Why is proline’s structure unique eh?

A
  • Can be found in beta turns of beta sheets where it provides inflexible kinks
  • It’s unique because it has a secondary amine in it’s backbone
131
Q

Glucose is a sugar that forms from an intramolecular attack between an oxygen and a/an ___________.

A

Aldehyde

132
Q

Dissociation of ___________ causes the power stroke, which is the actual pivot of the actin-bound myosin head that drags the actin filament toward the center of the sarcomere.

This directly results in ______ of the sarcomere.

The myosin head is now in its _____ energy conformation.

A

ADP and Pi

Shortening

Low

133
Q

Hydrolysis of the ATP molecule allows the myosin head to ___________________________.

A

shift back into its upright, high-energy conformation in preparation for a new cycle of contraction

134
Q

Differentiate Enveloped viruses and Naked viruses based on:

  • membrane
  • resistance to heat/detergent/moisture
A

Enveloped

  • host derived capsule that helps evade immune system
  • low resistance

Naked

  • no capsule
  • high resistance
135
Q

A virus with a +ssRNA genome that replicates through DNA intermediates must contain ___________.

A

reverse-transcriptase function

136
Q

Secretory proteins are synthesized and undergo tertiary folding in the _______________.

A

rough endoplasmic reticulum

137
Q

Proteins are synthesized from the ______ to the _______.

A

N-terminus

C-terminus

138
Q

If asked if a section of DNA is good for restriction enzymes to notice, what should you be looking for?

A

A DNA sequence that could be inversed and be complementary to the original sequence

AATT

TTAA

139
Q

For each electron transport chain complex, what molecule is used?

  • Complex I
  • Complex II
  • Complex III
  • Complex IV
A
  • NADH
  • Succinate
  • CoQH2
  • Cytochrome
140
Q

What is the definition of Germ-Line?

A

Any genes that constitute Ovum and Sperm

141
Q

Certain viruses contain RNA, what is a way they can replicate themselves?

A

Code for or carry a reverse transcriptase enzyme

142
Q

What is an example of a dichotic listening task?

A

Administering 2 auditory sounds, 1 to each ear

143
Q

What are considered primary groups?

A

Peer groups and Family

essentially any small groups with close, interpersonal ties

144
Q

How would plasma clearance be influenced a decrease in BP?

A

The plasma clearance would decrease

a lower BP will result in a decreased amount of urinary output and therefore an increase in reapsorption

145
Q

When introduced into a unfiform electric field, a charged particle will _________ (move with constant velocity/accelerate) to the oppositely charged plate.

A

accelerate

146
Q

How will the following be affected on the moon? (1/6g)

  1. % of an object’s submerged volume
  2. Time for a thrown object to fall back to the surface
A
  1. Will be the same as earth
  2. Will fall back to the surface faster
147
Q

What is the intensity of a sound that is meausured at 120 dB?

A

100

using the formula I = 10 log10(I/I0)

it can also be noted that a change of 10 dB is a 10 times difference

148
Q

Visible light travels more slowly through an optically dense medium than through a vacuum. A possible explanation for this could be that the light:

A

is absorbed and re-emitted by the atomic structure of the optically dense medium.

149
Q

If a block’s density is 800 kg/m3, how much of the object will be above the surface?

A

1/5

by calculating the specific gravity of the object, we see that 800/1000 = .8 = 4/5. So 4/5 is submerged and 1/5 is floating.

150
Q

In air, a sound wave deflects off of something, which of the following will remain the same:

  • speed
  • intensity
  • frequency
  • wavelength
A

speed will remain constant

151
Q

How will the amount of work done on a block that lies on an incline slope if you increase the ramp’s angle?

A

The amount of work done will decrease.

the equaion work = F*d cos (theta) shows that when you increase the angle, work decreases. The object will be more like freefall rather than pushing along a surface, so work is less.

152
Q

How do you calculate flow rate if you are given a velocity and diameter?

A

Flow rate = A * v

velocity can be plugged in. To get cross-sectional area, we must use π*r^2 * height. Since we are given the diameter, we can use π/4 * d^2 and plug this into the equation for A.

153
Q

An object that is totally immersed in benzene (specific gravity = 0.7) is subject to a buoyancy force of 5 N. When the same object is totally immersed in an unknown liquid, the buoyancy force is 12 N. What is the approximate specific gravity of the unknown liquid?

A

12/5 = 1.7

154
Q

The 14C atom undergoes beta decay to 14N. What particle is being emitted from the carbon nucleus?

A

Electron

155
Q

Electric Field lines exit _____ and enter _______.

A

Positive charge

Negative charge

156
Q

What conditions must exist for fluid to travel up the barometer?

A

There must be lower pressure in the glass tube relative to the enviornment

157
Q

In a state of cognitive dissonance, what is a person most likely to do?

A

change attitudes to match behavior

158
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase antagonists lead to a build-up of ______.

A

CO2

159
Q
A
160
Q

For a transition metal, from which orbital will electrons first be removed from? 4s or 3d?

A

4s

161
Q

What will be the effect of adding SDS-PAGE? SDS-PAGE with a reducing agent?

A
  • SDS-PAGE will remove the non-covalent bonds between things
    • so tetramers will separate
  • SDS-PAGE + Reducing Agent = disulfide bond separation
    • all subunits will be separated
162
Q

Which of the four DNA bases contains the largest number of hydrogen bond acceptors when involved in a Watson–Crick base pair?

A

Cytosine

163
Q

How will the length of dsDNA affect Tm?

A

increase Tm

164
Q

If the unfolding of proteins is considered cooperative, what type of curve would this generate on a graph?

A

Sigmoidal

165
Q

What is the wavelength of a 500nm wave that has it’s frequency doubled?

A

250nm

166
Q

How is it that fatty acids are able to fluoresce without conjugation?

A

Dye is trapped inside micelles upon their formation

167
Q

What is the relationship between protein adherence in a column to the concentration of eluting fluid needed?

A

Directly proportional

more strongly adhering proteins (oppositely charged from column media) must be washed with a stronger solution to wash off

168
Q

What is the difference between denaturing and reducing?

A
  • Denaturing means that the molecule has H-bonding interrupted only
  • Reducing means the disulfide linkages are disrupted
169
Q

Which type of amino acid is least likely to be found in a transmembrane domain?

A

Charged amino acids

170
Q

What is the average molecular weight of an amino acid?

A

110 Da

171
Q

What does a Hill Coefficient greater than 1 mean?

A

The molecule exhibits cooperativity

172
Q

What explains cells having multiple protein isoforms?

A

Alternative splicing

173
Q

An enzyme is more effectively inhibited by uncompetitive inhibitors when substrate concentration is increased or decreased?

A

Increased, because uncompetitive inhibitors only bind the enzyme-substrate complex.

inhibitor must wait until more enzyme substrate complexes have been created to operate efficiently

MCAT Study (6 decks)

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