Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FA facts and associations > Random Pharm > Flashcards

Random Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of antihypertensive must be used cautiously in decompensated CHF patients + is contraindicated in cardiogenic shock?

A

beta-blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

First-line antihypertensive in T2DM pts

A

ACEi/ARBs (protective against diabetic nephropathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

vasoselective Ca2+ channel blockers

A

amlodipine, nifedipine

dihydropyridine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

cardioselective Ca2+ channel blockers

A

verapamil > diltiazem
(“Verapamil = Ventricle”)

non-dihydopyridine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how do Ca2+ channel blockers lower blood pressure

A

block L-type Ca2+ channels of cardiac and smooth muscle –> decreased muscle contractility
(decreased risk of vasospasm, hence used in prinzmetal angina and raynaud’s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which drug can be used to prevent cerebral vasospasm following subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

nimodipine (dihydropyridine Ca2+ channel blocker)

Finding Nimo in the see of blood that is a subarachnoid hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

antihypertensives used in pregnancy

A

hydralazine (can cause lupus-like syndrome) + methyldopa (can cause hemolytic anemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how does hydralazine work?

A

inceases cGMP –> smooth muscle relax’n (arterioles > veins; afterload reducer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what drug is commonly given with hydralazine? why?

A

beta-blocker, to prevent reflex tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which drug given in hypertensive emergencies is the only IV agent that increases renal perfusion and decreases BP (ie, is good for pts with renal failure)?

A

fenoldopam (D1 receptor agonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

feared side effect of nitroprusside (given in hypertensive emergency)

A

cyanide toxicity (treat with sodium thiosulfate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

goal of antianginal therapy

A

reduce myocardial O2 consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

main effect of nitrates in treating angina (nitroglycerin, isosorbide, dinitrate)

A

reduce preload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

main effect of beta-blockers in treating angina

A

reduce afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

partial beta-agonists contraindicated in angina

A

pindolol and acebutolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

mechanism of statins

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

main effect of statins

A

reduce LDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

statin side effects

A

hepatotoxicity and rhabdo (esp when used with fibrates and niacin/B3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

main effect of niacin/B3

A

decrease LDL and increase HDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

mechanism of niacin/B3

A

reduce VLDL synthesis and release by hepatocyte; inhibit lypolysis in adipocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

side effects of niacin/B3

A

flushing, hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

cholestyramine, colestipol, colesevelam

A

bile acid resins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

mechanism and effect of bile acid resins (“chol”, “col”)

A

prevent intestinal reabsorption of BILE ACIDS –> lower LDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

side effects of bile acid resins

A

cholesterol gallstones, GI upset, decreased abs of fat soluble vits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

mechanism and effect of ezetimibe

A

prevent absorption of CHOLESTEROL from small intestinal brush border –> lower LDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

effect of fibrates

A

decrease TGs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

mechanism of fibrates

A 
upregulate LPL (lipoprotein lipase) --> increased TG clearance
activate PPAR-alpha to induce HDL synthesis
28
Q

side effects of fibrates

A

myositis (esp w/ statins);
hepatotox;
cholest gallstones (esp w/ bile acid resins, “chol” “col”)

29
Q

mechanism of digoxin

A 
direct inhibition of Na/K ATPase --> indirect inhib of Na/Ca exchanger --> increased intracellular Ca --> increased contractility;
stimulates vagus (how???) --> decreased HR
30
Q

RFs for digoxin toxicity

A

renal failure (decreased excretion), hypokalemia, tx w/ verapamil, amiodarone, quinidine [–> decreased dig clearance]

31
Q

digoxin: class of drug

A

cardiac glycoside

32
Q

digoxin: use

A

CHF, A Fib

33
Q

Nasty Bets Kill Cats

A

Class I: Na+-channel blocker (slow depolar’n, phase 0)
Class II: Beta-blocker (slow SA/AV conduction rates, ie phase 4)
Class III: K+-channel blocker (slow repol’n)
Class IV: Ca2+-channel blocker (slows conduction velocity)

34
Q

Double Quarter Pounder

A

Class IA: disopyramide, quinidine, procainamide

35
Q

Lettuce, Tomato, Mayo

A

Class IB: lidocaine, tocainide, mexilitine (, +/- phenytoin)

36
Q

Can i have More Fries Please?

A

Class IC: Moricizine, Flecainide, Propafenone

37
Q

AIDS Kills

A 
K = K+-channel blocker (class III antiarrhythmics)
Amiodarone
Ibutilide
Dofetilide
Sotalol
38
Q

Class IB is Best for ???

A

post-MI, dig-induced arrhythmia

39
Q

Class IC is Contraindicated in ???

A

structural and ischemic heart dz (eg, post-MI…pro-arrhythmic)

40
Q

Which class II antiarrhythmic is very short acting?

A

Esmolol

41
Q

Which class of antiarrhythmics may mask hypoglycemia?

A

class II (beta-blockers)

I bet(a) you don’t know I’m low on sugar!

42
Q

Remember to check ??? (x3) when using amiadorone

A

PFTs, LFTs, TFTs

43
Q

Drug of choice when diagnosing/abolishing SVTs

A

adenosine, very short acting (~15s)

44
Q

First-gen H1-blockers

A

names contain “en/ine” or “en/ate”

diphenhydramine, dimenhydrinate, chlorpheniramine

45
Q

Second-gen H1-blockers

A

names usually end in “adine” (eg loratadine) + cetrizine

used for allergy; far less sedating than first gen b/c decreased entry into CNS

46
Q

Which asthma drug is rarely used due to its narrow therapeutic index?

A

theophylline (PDE inhibitor) –> cardiotox, neurotox

47
Q

Which class of drugs is considered 1st-line therapy for chronic asthma?

A

corticosteroids (beclomethasone, fluticasone)

48
Q

What drug is used in an acute asthma exacerbation?

A

albulterol (beta-agonist)

49
Q

Examples of LABA

A

salmeterol, formoterol

50
Q

What drug is used to diagnose asthma?

A

methacholine (muscarinic receptor agonist –> provocation challenge)

51
Q

What drug is used to tx pulmonary arterial HTN?

A

bosentan (competitively antagonizes endothelin-1 receptors –> decreased pulm vasc resistance)

52
Q

What diuretic is used to tx drug overdose?

A

mannitol (osmotic diuretic –> flush that shit out)

53
Q

OH DANG

A 
side effects of loop diuretics
Ototoxicity
Hypokalemia
Dehydration
Allergy (sulfa)
Nephritis (interstitial)
Gout
54
Q

examples of loop diuretics

A

Furosemide, torsemide, bumetanide, ethacrynic acid

55
Q

loop diuretic for pts w/ sulfa allergy

A

ethacrynic acid (phenoxyacetic acid deriv)

56
Q

examples of thiazides

A

HCTZ, chlorthalidone, indapamine, metolazone

CHIMe

57
Q

HyperGLUC

A

some side effects of HCTZ
HyperGlycemia, Lipidemia, Uricemia, Calcemia

[also causes hypoK, metabolic alKalosis]

58
Q

The K+ STAys

A

K+-sparing diuretics: Spironolactone, eplerenone [aldo antagonists]; triamterene, amiloride [ENaC blockers]

59
Q

Which diuretic causes gynecomastia, antiandrogen effects?

A

spironolactone (used to treat hirsutism)

60
Q

Diuretic effects: Urine NaCl

A

increased (all except acetazolamide)

61
Q

Diuretic effects: Urine K+

A

up in loop and thiazides

down in K+-sparing

62
Q

Diuretic effects: blood pH

A

down (acidemia) in CAHi’s, K+-sparing

up (alkalemia) in loops and thiazides

63
Q

Diuretic effects: Urine Ca2+

A

up in loops

down in thiazides (used to prevent nephrolithiasis)

64
Q

CATCHH

A

ACEi’s side effects: cough, angioedemia (contraindicated in C1 esterase inhibitor defic), teratogen (fetal renal malform), elevated Cr (secondary to decreased GFR), hyperK, hypoTN

65
Q

ACEi’s = contraindicated in ???

A

bilateral renal artery stenosis; further decline in GFR can precipitate renal failure

FA facts and associations (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions