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Phase 3A > Random Facts > Flashcards

Random Facts Flashcards

1
Q

What is the treatment for oral lichen planus?

A

Betamethasone

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2
Q

Where is Melatonin produced?

A

Pineal gland

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3
Q

What is Otosclerosis?

A

Autosomal dominant condition with unilateral hearing loss and an otherwise normal ear examination

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4
Q

What ABPI warrants referral to vascular surgery?

A

< 0.8

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5
Q

What is the criteria for prescribing Orlistat?

A

BMI > 30 or BMI > 28 with associated risk factors

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6
Q

What should be investigated in patients with vitiligo?

A

Other autoimmune conditions -> TFTs etc

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7
Q

What is the common presentation for twins?

A

Both twins vertex

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8
Q

Which HTN medication is most likely to precipitate lithium toxicity?

A

Thiazide diuretics e.g. Bendroflumethazide

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9
Q

What does bone conduction > Air conduction suggest?

A

Conductive deafness

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10
Q

What does air conduction > bone conduction suggest?

A

Sensioneural deafness

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11
Q

What commonly develops after trauma to the breast?

A

Fat necrosis of the breast

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12
Q

Which Abx is assoicated with ventricular tachycardia (torsades de pointas)

A

Erythromycin

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13
Q

Aortic Dissection vs MI?

A

AD will have most pain at onset then decrease, MI pain builds from onset

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14
Q

Pericarditis signs?

A
  • Pleuritic chest pain radiating to arm
  • SOB
  • Hx of recent illness
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15
Q

Treatment of pericarditis?

A

NSAIDs

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16
Q

Mechanism of N-acetylcysteine?

A

Replenishes body stores of glutathione

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17
Q

What is used to reverse heparin?

A

Protamine

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18
Q

How to calculate units?

A

Units = strength (ABV) x volume (ml) ÷ 1000

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19
Q

First line investigation for angina?

A

CT coronary angiography

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20
Q

Blood in the white of the eye with coughing sneezing and eye trauma with no tears or discharge?

A

Subconjunctival haemorrhage

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21
Q

How does travellers diarrhoea present?

A

Within 12-24 hours of exposure with crampy abdominal pain and profuse watery diarrhoea

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22
Q

Electrolyte abnormalities seen in referring syndrome?

A

Hypophosphataemia, hypomagnesaemia, hypokalaemia

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23
Q

What is rheumatic fever?

A
  • Recent strep infection
  • Arthritis, Chorea, Rash on trunks
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24
Q

What criteria is used to assess rheumatic fever symptoms?

A

Jones criteria

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25
Q

Management of rheumatic fever

A
  • Penicillin Abx
  • Analgesia
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26
Q

Atopic dermatitis vs psoriasis?

A

Dermatitis affects the flexors whilst psoriasis affects the extensors

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27
Q

Lichen sclerosus vs Lichen planus?

A

LS is more common in post menopausal women and will have itching and pain whereas LP will usually not have pain

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28
Q

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma red flags?

A
  • Unilateral nasyl polyp
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29
Q

smooth, firm, painless, mobile lump?

A

Fibroadenoma

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30
Q

Which diuretic can cause gynaecomastia?

A

Spirinolactone

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31
Q

Pain worse on pronation of the forearm?

A

Medial epicondylitis - golfers elbow (Putt - Pronation)

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32
Q

Oral morphine:subcut ratio

A

2:1

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33
Q

Definition of polypharmacy?

A

A single patient taking 5 or more medications daily

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34
Q

Stages of AKI?

A

1: Creatinine is 1.5-1.9 times higher than baseline/ urine output < 0.5ml/kg for > 6 consecutive hours
2: Creatinine is 2-2.9 times higher than baseline/ urine output < 0.5ml/kg for > 12 consecutive hours
3: Creatinine is >3 times higher than baseline / urine output < 0.5ml/kg for > 24 consecutive hours/
anuria for > 12 hours

35
Q

What is urea breath test used to diagnose?

A

H pylori

36
Q

Management of H pylori?

A

PPI + Clarithromycin + Metronidazole/Amoxicillin

37
Q

COPD management if steroid responsive?

A

Step 1: SABA or SAMA
● Step 2: SABA + LABA + ICS (if they were originally on SAMA, discontinue and start SABA)
● Step 3: SABA + LABA + ICS + LAMA

38
Q

COPD management if not steroid responsive?

A

Step 1: SABA or SAMA
Step 2: SABA + LABA + LAMA (if they were originally on SAMA, discontinue and start SABA)

39
Q

Fraser guidelines criteria

A

He/she has sufficient maturity and intelligence to understand the nature and implications of the proposed treatment

He/she cannot be persuaded to tell her parents or to allow the doctor to tell them

He/she is very likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment

His/her physical or mental health is likely to suffer unless he/she received the advice or treatment

The advice or treatment is in the young person’s best interests.

40
Q

Breast cancer risk factors?

A

Increased hormone exposure
Early menarche or late menopause
Nulliparity or late first pregnancy
Oral contraceptives or Hormonal Replacement Therapy
Susceptibility gene mutations) - BRCA
Previous radiotherapy treatment

41
Q

Guidelines for breast cancer referral

A

They are ≥30 with an unexplained breast mass (regardless of whether there is pain present or not)

They are ≥50 or older presenting with nipple discharge, retraction or other concerning symptoms.

42
Q

What is error of inherited thinking?

A

a working diagnosis is handed over and accepted without pause for
consideration

43
Q

What is error of overattachment?

A

conducting tests to confirm what we expect or want to see
and not ruling out other causes

44
Q

What is error of bravado?

A

typically working above competence in a show of
over confidence that is not safe

45
Q

Components of Seedhouse ethical grid?

A

Core rationale
Deontological layer
Consequential layer
External considerations

46
Q

C/I to Heparin?

A

Bacterial endocarditis

47
Q

Mode of Action of Salmeterol?

A

Stimulation of G protein-coupled receptors

48
Q

Gastric cancer

A

Dysphasia, palpable mass, ascites

49
Q

Acne vulgaris

A
  • Chronic inflammation in the pilosebaceous units
  • Tx includes ben peroxide, isotretinoin, topical retinoids, oral COCP
50
Q

BPH management?

A

Alpha blocker - Tamsulosin - smooth muscle relax
5-alpha reductase inhibtors - Finasteride - inhibits testosterone conversion to reduce prostate size
TURP - surgical treatment

51
Q

Conjunctivitis?

A
  • Inflammation of conjunctiva
  • Red eyes, itchy, discharge
  • Purulent discharge if bacterial
  • Chloramphenicol/Fusicidic acid eye drops to treat
52
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica?

A
  • Inflammatory condition which causes pain, stiffness, pelvic girdle and neck
  • Associated with GCA
  • Raised inflammatory markers
  • Treat with steroids
53
Q

Psoriasis?

A
  • Dry, flaky skin lesions which are raised/rough plaques commonly over extensor surfaces of elbows/knees/scalp
  • Topical steroids, vit D, tacrolimus, phototherapy
54
Q

Sinusitis

A
  • Recent VURTI
  • Congestion, discharge, facial pain, headache
  • Tenderness, discharge, fever
  • Nasal endoscopy/CT scan
  • Nasal spray + Abx
55
Q

Urticaria/Hives

A
  • Release of histamine by mast cells
  • Triggered by something e.g allergies, meds, viral infection
  • Antihistamines to treat
56
Q

Anal Fissure

A
  • Tears of the squamous lining of the distal anal canal
  • Constipation, IBD, STIs all risk factors
  • Painful, bright red bleeding
  • Treated with analgesia, lubricants
  • Chronic treated with topic GTN
57
Q

Hiatus Hernia

A
  • Hernia of part of the stomach above the diaphragm
  • Obese patients
  • Heartburn, chest pain, dysphagia
  • Barium Swallow/detected incidentally on endoscopy
  • Tx with PPI, Weight loss, Surgery
58
Q

Varicose Veins

A
  • Common, dilated superficial veins
  • Visual appearance, itching, throbbing
  • Weight loss, regular exercise, compression stockings
  • Some patients may need specialist intervention
59
Q

Folliculitis

A
  • Inflammation of hair follicle, usually after infection
  • Erythematous papules around hair follicles
  • Treated conservatively, sometimes give Abx if cultures positive
60
Q

Diverticulitis

A
  • Infection of diverticulum
  • RF: Age, lack of fibre, obesity
  • Intermittent abdo pain, bloating, change in bowel habit
  • Fever, tachycardic, guarding, rigidity, rebound tenderness
  • CT is best imaging
  • Tx with Abx, fluids, analgesia
61
Q

Bursitis

A
  • Inflammation of the bursa
  • Localised pain, tenderness and swelling
  • Tx is physical excercise, rest and analgesia, with steroid injections if needed
  • Septic needs Abx and aspiration
62
Q

Causes of microcytic anaemia?

A
  • Iron deficiency
  • Thalassaemia (loss of globin)
  • Sideroblastic anaemia (loss of heme)
  • Anaemia of chronic disease
63
Q

TIBC vs Ferritin

A

TIBC - Transferrin level which is iron transport protein
Ferritin - Amount of storage iron
These always oppose each other

64
Q

Causes of iron defiency anaemia?

A
  • Decreased intake
  • Decreased absorption
  • Increased demand
  • Increased iron loss
65
Q

IDA specific signs

A
  • Pica
  • Koilonychia
  • Atrophic glossitis
  • Angular stomatitis
  • Brittle hair
  • High TIBC
66
Q

Beta Thalassemia major features?

A
  • Chipmunk facies
  • Crew cut appearance of skull
  • Hepatosplenomegaly (increased haemolysis)
  • Target cells on blood film
  • Tx with blood transfusions
  • Normal iron studies
67
Q

Sideroblastic anaemia features?

A
  • Basophilic stippling
  • Ringed sideroblasts
68
Q

Megalobastic Macrocytic anaemia?

A
  • Vit B12 and Folate deficiency
69
Q

Non-megalobastic macrocytic anaemia?

A
  • Liver disease
  • Alcoholism
  • Hypothryoidism
70
Q

Pernicious anaemia

A
  • Autoantibodies attack parietal cells in fundus
  • B12 cannot be absorbed properly
  • IF antibodies specific for diagnosis
71
Q

Sickle cell trait

A
  • one Hb S gene
  • Asymptomatic
  • Sometimes painless gross haematuria, recurrent UTI
72
Q

Sickle cell anaemia Px?

A
  • Bone pain crisis most common)
  • Dactylitis
  • Acute chest syndrome (pain, distress, hypoxia0
  • Priapism
  • Strokes/MI
73
Q

How many days of Abx do men require for UTI?

A

7 days

74
Q

If >65 and on long term steroids, what should be given?

A

Bisphosphonates

75
Q

Anti-TPO are in what condition?

A

Hashimotos

76
Q

TRAb antibodies are part of what?

A

Graves

77
Q

2nd line for gout?

A

Febuxostat

78
Q

AST raised more than ALT?

A

Alcoholic liver disease

79
Q

ALT raised more than AST?

A

Hepatitis/Alcoholic fatty liver disease

80
Q

Predominantly raised ALP?

A

Cholestatsis

81
Q

Only ALP raised?

A

Bone breakdown

82
Q

What can precipitate acute angle-closure glaucoma?

A

TCAs

83
Q

First line for rate control in AF?

A

Beta-blockers or Verapamil

Phase 3A (10 decks)

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