Geriatrics Flashcards

1
Q

Features of Parkinsons + Cognitive impairment

A

Lewy-body dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What system assess frailty in elderly patients?

A

PRISMA-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What factors are considered in PRISMA-7?

A
  • Age
  • Sex
  • Health problems
  • Assistance required
  • Walking aid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is first line for mild-moderate Alzheimers disease?

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors e.g. donepezil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is second line for Alzheimers disease?

A
  • Memantine
  • Used for moderate/severe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What screening tool is used to assess starting new medications in elderly patients?

A

START

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What screening tool is used to assess which drugs can be discontinued in a patient with poly pharmacy?

A

STOPP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which type of dementia is likely to present with visual hallucinations?

A

Lewy-body dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Management of acute confusional state?

A
  • Treat underlying cause
  • Change environment
  • Haloperidol e.g. oral/IM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Causes of delirium in the elderly?

A
  • UTI
  • New surroundings
  • Community-acquired pneumonia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

New surroundings can cause what in elderly patients with cognitive impairment?

A

Delirium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What medication should be stopped in patients with dementia due to risk of further cognitive impairment?

A

TCAs such as Amitriptyline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What kind of drug is Haloperidol and what conditions is it C/I with?

A

Dopamine antagonist
Parkinson’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of dementia presents with step-wise progression?

A

Vascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which medications should be avoided in the elderly due to the risk of adverse reactions/increased mortality?

A

Antipsychotics such as Haloperidol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which type of dementia has social disinhibition and often a family history?

A

Frontotemporal dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What class of drug is Memantine?

A

NMDA Antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why is digoxin a dangerous drug in the elderly?

A

Narrow therapeutic index and toxicity can be triggered by illness/renal failure/hypokalaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are symptoms of digoxin toxicity?

A
  • GI disturbances e.g. nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain
  • Arrhythmias
  • Blurred vision
  • Drowsiness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What type of drugs can cause gout?

A
  • Loop diuretics
  • Thiazide diuretics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Symptoms of hypoactive delirium?

A
  • Withdrawn
  • Lethargy
  • Slow to respond to questions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What type of dementia is associated with visual hallucinations?

A

Lewy-body dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the risk score for pressure sores?

A

Waterlow score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ICD-10 criteria for delirium

A

1.) Impairment of consciousness and attention
2.) Global disturbance in cognition
3.) Psychomotor disturbance
4.) Disturbance of sleep-wake cycle
5.) Emotional disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

S/E of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors?

A

Cholinergic effects -> diarrhoea, incontinence, N+E, increased salivary production

26
Q

Delirium

A
  • Acute
  • Fluctuating course
  • Inattention
  • Altered level of consciousness
  • Reversible
  • Associated with underlying medical cause
27
Q

Delirium causes?

A

Pain
Infection
Nutrition
Constipation
Hydration
Medication (withdrawal/overdose)
Environment

28
Q

What domains are in comprehensive geriatric assessment?

A
  • Physical Health
  • Mental health
  • Social aspects
  • Functional aspects
  • Environment
29
Q

Complications of long lie down following a fall?

A
  • Pressure ulcers
  • Dehydration
  • Rhadbomyolysis
30
Q

Iv for pressure ulcers?

A
  • Bloods - CRP, ESR, WCC
  • Swabs and blood cultures
  • X-ray for bone involvement
31
Q

Tx for pressure ulcers?

A
  • Abx
  • Wound dressing
  • Analgesia
  • Debridement
32
Q

How often should you/patient move to prevent pressure ulcers?

A

Low risk - 6 hours
High risk - 4 hours

33
Q

Risk factors for osteoporosis?

A

Steroid use
Hyperthyroid/parathryoid/calcaemia
Alcohol/Tobacco
Thin
Testosterone decreased
Early menopause
Renal/Liver failure
Erosive inflammatory bone disease (RA)
Dietary reduced

34
Q

Geriatric Giants

A
  • Immobility
  • Instability
  • Incontinence
  • Interllectual impairment
35
Q

Risk factors for Pressure Ulcers?

A
  • Immobility
  • Malnutrition
  • Dehydration
  • Sensory impairment
  • Obesity
  • Urinary/Faecal incontinence
  • Reduced tissue perfusion
36
Q

Causes of falls in elderly?

A
  • Drugs
  • MSK
  • Syncope/Stroke/Tia
  • Vertigo
  • Pos HTN
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Visual impairment
  • Dementia
37
Q

Prevention of pressure ulcers?

A
  • Barrier creams
  • Pressure redistribution (mattress, cushions, heel support)
  • Repositioning
  • Regular skin assessment
38
Q

What is levodopa commonly combined with?

A

Decarboxylase inhibitor e.g carbidopa to prevent peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine

39
Q

Hypocalcaemia symptoms?

A
  • Peripheral paraesthesia
  • Muscle cramps
  • Seizures
  • Prolonged QT
40
Q

Hypercalcaemia symptoms?

A
  • Bone pain
  • Fractures
  • Renal stones
  • Drowsiness/Delirium
  • N+V, Weight loss, shortened QT
41
Q

What MMSE score supports dementia?

A

<25

42
Q

What should be done after 5 years of bisphosphonate Tx?

A
  • Repeat DEXA/FRAX and stop bisphosphonate is low risk and review in 2 years
43
Q

How do bisphosphonates work?

A
  • Pyrophosphate analogues -> inhibit osteoclasts
44
Q

Bisphosphonate S/E?

A
  • Dizziness
  • Electrolyte imbalance
  • GI disorders (oesophagitis for Alendronic)
  • Anaemia
  • Headache
  • Myalgia
45
Q

Causes of malnutrition?

A
  • Starvation
  • Increased nutrient requirement (sepsis/injury)
  • Malabsorption
46
Q

Diagnosis malnutrition

A
  • BMI < 18.5
  • > 10% weight loss in last 3-6 months
  • BMI < 20 and weight loss
47
Q

Causes of malnutrition

A

Intake: mealtimes, feeding problems, appetite, pain, surgery, medication
Increased requirement: trauma, surgery, malignancy
Loss: diarrhoea, vomiting, IBD, surgery

48
Q

Consequences of malnutrition

A
  • Impaired immunity
  • Impaired wound healing
  • Muscle mass loss
  • Resp function loss
  • Longer recovery from illness
  • Lower quality of life
49
Q

Mental Capacity Act Guidelines

A
  • Assume capacity
  • Maximise decision-making capacity
  • Freedom to make unwise decisions
  • Best interests
  • Least restrictive option
50
Q

Advanced directions
Advanced refusal - legally binding
Advanced requests - not legally binding but considered

A
  • Allows people to state treatment wishes in advance to authorise certain procedures and refuse treatment
  • It must be an adult, fully competent at that time, applicable to current circumstances and no reason to believe they have changed their mind
51
Q

DOLS

A
  • Person does not consent to care/treatment
52
Q

Lasting Power of Attorney

A
  • Nominate someone else to make decisions on their behalf
  • Registered with Office of the Public Guardian
53
Q

IMCA

A
  • Support and represent people who lack capacity and do not have anyone else to represent them
54
Q

What is frailty?

A

State of increased vulnerability resulting from ageing-associated decline in functional reserve

55
Q

Assessment tool for delirum?

A

4-AT

56
Q

What tool is used to assess nutritional status?

A

MUST tool

57
Q

Complications of re-feeding syndrome?

A
  • Cardiac arrhythmias
  • Coma
  • Convulsions
  • Cardiac failure
58
Q

Blood tests to exclude treatable causes of dementia?

A
  • Vitamin B12, thiamine, folate
  • Thyroid
  • FBC
  • Syphillis serology
  • LFTs
59
Q

3 adverse effects of bisphosphonates?

A
  • Oesophagitis
  • Osteonecrosis of the jaw
  • Increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal fracture shafts
60
Q

Role of vit D

A

Increase Ca2+ absorption in the gut

Increased Ca2+ release from the bone