Random extra Flashcards

1
Q

What is cushing reflex?

A

Bradycardia and HTN, then eventually apnoea

Indicates raised ICP

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2
Q

What drug shouldn’t you give in suspected lymphoma?

A

Steroids as may effect biopsy

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3
Q

Function of the foramen ovale

A

Bypasses foetal lungs

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4
Q

On AXR is gas outside the lumen of bowel ever normal?

A

no, may have <7days after abdo surgery. If not, perforation

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5
Q

Leg pain relieved by sitting is more likely to be intermittent claudication or spinal stenosis?

A

Spinal stenosis- ‘neurogenic claudication’

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6
Q

Azathioprine SE to be aware of in certain patients? Must check this status before prescribing

A

Pancytopenia in thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) deficiency

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7
Q

HNPCC is also known as?

A

Lynch syndrome

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8
Q

What is Li-Fraumeni syndrome?

A

Mutation in the tumour suppressor p53 gene, causes a predisposition to cancers, but particularly sarcomas, breast cancer, leukaemias and adrenal gland tumours.

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9
Q

What is Von Hippel Lindau disease?

A

causes a cancer predisposition, commonly phaeochromocytoma, renal cell carcinoma and haemangioblastoma.

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10
Q

How long should you wait between inhaler doses for asthma?

A

30s

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11
Q

How do you manage red man syndrome associated with vancomycin?

A

cessation of the infusion, and when symptoms have resolved, recommencement at a slower rate. In patients who are more symptomatic antihistamines can be administered, and may require intravenous fluids if the syndrome is associated with hypotension.

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12
Q

What is given prophylactically to prevent bleeding in oesophageal varices?

A

Non-cardioselective beta blockers e.g. propanolol

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13
Q

How long before endoscopy should PPIs be stopped

A

2weeks

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14
Q

What is Sister Mary Joseph node?

A

Sister Mary Joseph node - metastatic umbilical lesion - is an important finding in advanced malignancy.
Painful palpable umbilical node

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15
Q

What is peabody sign?

A

In DVT- positive test indicated by calf muscle spasm occurring on elevation and foot extension of the affected leg

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16
Q

Rate of insulin infusion in DKA

A

0.1u/kg/hr

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17
Q

What does seborrhoeic dermatitis resemble and what is the treatment?

A
  • Eczematous on scalp/other sebumy areas

- topical ketoconazole

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18
Q

Analgesia of choice in renal colic?

A

Diclofenac IM/PR

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19
Q

non caseating granulomas with epithelioid cells on biopsy indicates what?

A

Sarcoid

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20
Q

What is glucocorticoid effect of steroids vs mineralocorticoid?

A

Gluco = anti inflammatory

Mineralo= fluid retention

This is clinically relevant as there are some situations where it is important to combine high glucocorticoid (anti-inflammatory) activity with minimal mineralocorticoid (fluid-retention) effects. A good example is the use of dexamethsone for patients with raised intracranial pressure secondary to brain tumours.

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21
Q

What is glucocorticoid effect of steroids vs mineralocorticoid?

A

Gluco = anti inflammatory

Mineralo= fluid retention

This is clinically relevant as there are some situations where it is important to combine high glucocorticoid (anti-inflammatory) activity with minimal mineralocorticoid (fluid-retention) effects. A good example is the use of dexamethsone for patients with raised intracranial pressure secondary to brain tumours.

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22
Q

Random blood glucose level diagnostic of diabetes?

A

> 11mmol/L

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23
Q

Random blood clugose level diagnostic of diabetes?

A

> 11mmol/L

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24
Q

What can precipitate autonomic dysreflexia in spinal injury patient?

A

Blocked catheter

Faecal loading

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25
Presentation of autonomic dysreflexia?
Excessive hypertension Flushing and sweating above level of SC injury May have reflex bradycardia (this indicates a dysreflexia not an endocrine cause which might have tachycardia)
26
Anorexia nervosa can precipitate what endocrine problem in some people?
Hypothyroid
27
Anorexia nervosa can precipitate what endocrine problem in some people?
Hypothyroid
28
Elevated TSH with normal T4 is what?
subclinical hypothyroid
29
What is sick euthyroid and what TFT results?
Caused by systemic illness- low T4 and T3, normal or low TSH
30
sensitivity/specificity of Kernig's sign?
Helpful if positive but doesn't r/o meningitis
31
What electrolyte derangement can pneumonia and legionella cause?
hyponatraemia
32
What chest infections cause diffuse shadowing?
Miliary TB and atypical pneumonia
33
How might atypical pneumonia present (4)
Dry cough Diffuse infiltrate on CXR Normal WBCs Abnormal LFTs
34
What types of cancer are you at increased risk of after EBV? (2)
Nasopharyngeal adenocarcinomas Burkitt's lymphoma
35
Erythema migrans rash is associated with which disease? What does it look like?
Lyme disease Target lesion
36
Ziehl-Neelsen stain for acid fast bacilli used for what?
TB
37
A new stroke patient with a temperature- look for what?
Endocarditis
38
Most pro-clotting abnormalities are likely to cause venous clots, apart from which one?
Antiphospholipid syndrome- arterial
39
Migraine with aura more or less likely to have patent foramen ovale?
More
40
Painless jaundice and palpable gallbladder in an older patient is _______ until proven otherwise
pancreatic cancer
41
BRCA2 and PLAB2 mutations are associated with which abdominal carcinoma?
Pancreatic
42
What is troussaeau's sign?
Sign of malignancy Migratory thrombophlebitis/recurrent
43
What is courvoisier's sign
Enlarged, palpable gallbladder that is NOT tender (pancreatic cancer)
44
New onset diabetes in an older person might indicate what cancer?
pancreatic
45
CA125
Ovarian
46
Ca19-9
Panc
47
Ca 15-3
Breast
48
CEA
Colorectal
49
AFP
hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
50
S-100 tumour marker
melanoma, schwannoma
51
Bombesin tumour marker
small cell lung ca, gastric, neuroblastoma
52
What is Kussmaul's sign?
Raised JVP that doesn't fall with inspiration - constrictive pericarditis
53
dyspnoea, peripheral oedema and positive Kussmaul's sign and recent cardiac intervention
Constrictive pericarditis
54
haematuria, sensory hearing loss and ocular disturbances=?
Alport's syndrome
55
Renal problems 1-2 days after URTI?
IgA nephropathy
56
Renal problems 1-2 weeks after URTI?
Post-strep glomerulonephritis
57
Which lymphoma causes pain on alcohol consumption?
Hodgkin's
58
Which lymphoma has Reed-Sternberg cells?
Hodgkin's
59
What is in granulomatous nodules?
Macrophages
60
Gold standard diagnosis for sarcoid?
Biospy histology- non caseating granulomas w epithelioid cells.
61
What is lofgren's syndrome?
A specific triad of presentation of sarcoid Erythema nodosum Polyarthralgia Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
62
Treatment for sarcoid
None/oral steroids 6-24m Second line MTX or azothioprine Rarely lung transplant is indicated
63
Gout is a sign of what in diabetes?
Insulin resistance
64
What does the number in a brand of insulin mean e.g. humalin M3?
how much of it is fast acting M= mix 3= 30% fast acting
65
How do you know you're giving enough thyroxine?
Aim for lower half of TSH normal range (the lower half is 0.2-2.0)
66
adrenal cortex antibodies and 21-hydroxylase antibodies might be present in what?
Primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease)
67
What steroid is given in Addison's to replace cortisol?
Hydrocortisone (glucocorticoid)
68
What steroid is given in Addison's to replace aldosterone?
Fludrocortisone (mineralocorticoid)
69
What are the only two hormones released by the posterior pituitary?
Oxytocin and ADH
70
The dexamethasone suppression test is the test of choice for diagnosing what?
Cushing's syndrome
71
How much steroid treatment warrants a tapered withdrawal?
more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week, received more than 3 weeks treatment or recently received repeated courses
72
What is Sheehan's syndrome?
also known as postpartum pituitary gland necrosis, is hypopituitarism (decreased functioning of the pituitary gland), caused by ischemic necrosis due to blood loss and hypovolemic shock during and after childbirth.
73
Addison's crisis is characterised by what blood gas result?
hyperkalaemic metabolic acidosis
74
What is nelson's syndrome?
Rare invasive pituitary adenoma that occurs after bilateral adrenal gland removal for Cushing's.
75
What is the most important modifiable risk factor for the development of thyroid eye disease
Smoking
76
When should thyroid eye disease be referred for urgent ophthal review?
Unexplained vision decreased Change in colour vision in one or both eyes History of globe subluxation Obvious corneal opacity Cornea still visible when eyelids closed Disc swelling
77
skin sx of leprosy
depigmentation and loss of sensation.
78
legionella can cause what results in electrolytes and LFTs?
hyponatraemia and deranged LFTs
79
Treatment for MRSA pre surgery?
nasal mupirocin and chlorhexidine for skin
80
Role of loop diuretics in HF- symptom management or improve survival?
Symptomatic relief only
81
Raised urea:Cr ratio indicates what sort of AKI?
Pre-renal
82
What is the effect of pre-renal uraemia on sodium?
kidneys hold on to sodium to preserve volume
83
Which IBD is lead pipe colon in
UC
84
Definitive management of infective endocarditis causing congestive cardiac failure
Urgent valve replacement
85
treatment for active TB
RIPE: For first 2 months: Rifampicin Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Ethambutol Next 4 months: Rifampicin Isoniazid
86
Latent TB Rx
3 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin OR 6 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine)
87
what is complex regional pain syndrome
neurological and related symptoms which typically occur following surgery or a minor injury type I (most common): there is no demonstrable lesion to a major nerve type II: there is a lesion to a major nerve
88
Action of calcitonin
Inhibits PTH
89
Which type of thyroid cancer is associated with MEN2?
Medullary
90
Type I MEN cancers
Parathyroid Pituitary Pancreas
91
Type IIa MEN cancers
Parathyroid Phaeochromocytoma Medullary thyroid ca
92
Type IIb MEN cancers
Phaeochromocytoma Medullary thyroid ca
93
Genes effected in MEN?
MEN I- MEN1 gene MEN IIa and IIb- RET oncogene
94
Philadelphia chromosome - t(9:22) is associated with which haematological malignancy?
CML
95
C-peptide is only present with endogenous or exogenous insulin?
Endogenous only- so if C-peptide raised then it is from endogenous insulin (but could be from an OD of an antihyperglycaemic such as gliclazide)
96
aphasia means which hemisphere is affected? Which artery?
Their dominant one (but left is more likely overall, even in left handed) MCA supplies Broca's and Wernicke's areas
97
Pseudogout appearance on xray
chondrocalcinosis in the knee this can be seen as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage
98
discrete, non-tender, highly mobile breast lumps
fibroadenoma
99
Fibroadenosis aka
fibrocystic disease
100
If someone has been catheterised for chronic retention should you TWOC them?
No, usually due to prostatic hyperplasia so don't TWOC until TURP done