Random Ass Qs (IM) Flashcards

1
Q

Initial evaluation of HTN

A
  • urinalysis (protein, blood, glucose)
  • EKG
  • fasting lipids
  • BUN/creatinine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

HRT effects

A
  • alleviate vasomotor instability
  • reduce risk of osteoporosis/fractures
  • reduce incidence of endometrial cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Labs that diagnose diabetes

A

Fasting glucose >126
Nonfasting glucose >200 with symptoms
OGTT >200 after 2 hours
A1C > 6.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cause of hip pain with long term glucocorticoid use?

A

Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Initial pharmacotherapy for C dif?

A

ORAL metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

First imaging in suspected gallstone pancreatitis?

A

Ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Treatment for common bile duct stone causing biliary obstruction?

A

Sphincterotomy and endoscopic removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Depletion of what molecule leads to the hepatotoxicity of acetaminophen OD?

A

Glutathione

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Indicators of poor prognosis in acetaminophen OD?

A
  • serum lactate >3.5
  • pH <7.3
  • renal failure
  • coagulopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Chronic diarrhea + pruritic vesiculopapular lesions on extensor surfaces……most likely dx?

A

Celiac sprue

***dermatitis herpetiformis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Diagnostic confirmation of celiac sprue?

A

Small bowel biopsy

**villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Celiac sprue increases risk of what malignancies?

A

Adenocarcinoma and lymphoma of small bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Primary sclerosing cholangitis increases risk of what malignancy?

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Diagnostic test for chronic pancreatitis?

A

CT

**duct dilation, calcifications, pseudocysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What marker is frequently elevated in pancreatic cancer?

A

CA 19-9

**also seen in cholangiocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Initial treatment for reactive arthritis?

A

NSAIDs (ie Indomethacin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Patient does not respond to initial treatment for reactive arthritis, next step?

A

HIV test

***reactive arthritis may be first manifestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

As gout progresses how do frequency and duration of attacks change if untreated?

A

More frequent and last longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is initial long term therapy for gout with excessive urate excretion?

A

Allopurinol and colchicine

***allopurinol alone can precipitate attacks when first starting treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the long term treatment of gout with normal/low excretion?

A

Probenecid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What osteoporosis drug increases bone mass rather than just inhibiting reabsorption?

A

Teriparatide (recombinant PTH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the first test when you suspect pseudotumor cerebri? Second?

A
  • CT/MRI to rule out mass

- LP to check opening pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What type of antidepressant can interact with the activity of warfarin?

A

SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What causes cloudy corneas in angle closure glaucoma?

A

Edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Does the presence of any epithelial cells in urinalysis make it invalid?
Nope
26
What type of medication is contraindicated in Alzheimer’s?
Anticholinergics or any drug with anticholinergic effect (ie TCAs)
27
What anxiolytic would you pick if nonsedation was important?
Buspirone
28
What are properties of anesthetics that have higher potency and longer duration of action?
- higher lipid solubility/higher partition coefficient - higher protein binding - pKa closer to pH = 7.4
29
What will hyperkalemia show on EKG?
Peaked T waves and widened QRS
30
What effect can Cisplatin have on electrolytes?
Renal potassium and magnesium loss
31
HTN, abd pain, red-blue rash on extremities, eosinophils in urine and recent hx of MI......dx?
Atheroembolic disease from dislodging plaque during cardiac catheterization
32
Why can’t you give NSAIDs with acute renal failure?
Potentially nephrotoxic and could prevent recovery of kidney function
33
What would you see in the urine of a patient with lupus nephritis flare?
RBC casts
34
What would be the mechanism of acute renal failure during chemotherapy?
Tumor lysis syndrome and renal tubular deposition of uric acid
35
What blood labs are seen in nephrotic syndrome?
- low calcium - low thyroxine - microcytic hypochromic anemia
36
What type of nephropathy is seen in HIV?
Collapsing glomerulopathy (variant of focal segmental)
37
What labs denote HBV “window period”?
Negative HBs antigen AND antibody
38
Tongue fasciculation, brain inflammation, elderly diabetic.......dx?
West Nile virus
39
What is first line medication for strep pharyngitis?
Penicillin *******erythromycin or 1st gen cephalosporin if allergic
40
Fever, chills, myalgias and headache 3 hours after receiving penicillin for primary syphilis......dx?
Jarisch Herxheimer reaction ********self limiting
41
You suspect a patient has histoplasmosis PNA, what test do you do?
ABG to determine hypoxia severity
42
Health care worker gets a needle stick injury. Assuming the patient is positive what is the risk of HBV? HCV? HIV?
HBV - 6-30% HCV - 1.8% HIV - 0.3%
43
What two drugs have the largest reduction in triglycerides?
Nicotinic acid and fibrates
44
What abx treatment is first line in V vulnificus sepsis?
Doxycycline + 3rd gen cephalosporin
45
What abx treatment is used for E faecalis sepsis?
Ampicillin + aminoglycoside
46
Patient on clozapine develops agranulocytosis.....tx?
Granulocyte colony stimulating factor *****decreasing/discontinuing drug does NOT always prevent progression
47
What labs are seen in primary hyperparathyroidism?
- increased serum calcium - decreased serum phosphate - increased urine calcium
48
Patient complains of “curtain coming down over visual field”.....dx?
Retinal detachment
49
Patient has symptoms of a “hot” thyroid nodule, what is the next diagnostic step?
Thyroid nuclear scan ****FNA not needed since hot nodules are rarely malignant
50
What treatment has the lowest recurrence rate for basal cell carcinoma?
Mohs micrographic surgery
51
What is the best oral agent for MRSA?
TMP-SMZ
52
What is the dilution strength of epinephrine used in an allergic reaction?
1:1000
53
How are most cancers staged?
0 - carcinoma insitu 1/2 - local (depends on depth) 3 - spread to nodes 4 - metastasized
54
What serum lab is suggestive of metastatic melanoma?
Elevated LDH
55
After surgery for colon cancer what’s the schedule for follow up colonoscopies?
1 year post op 3 years later Every 5 years after
56
What asthma medication is the best for prevention of symptoms?
Inhaled steroid
57
What type of antihypertensive is contraindicated with quinidine use and why?
Thiazide diuretics Quinidine SE is torsade de pointes; thiazides cause hypokalemia which increases the risk of torsade
58
Patient tells you the nitroglycerin he takes for angina makes his heart speed up. How should his treatment be modified?
Add propranolol to his nitroglycerin
59
How is polymyositis diagnosed?
Elevated muscle enzymes (CPK, aldolase)
60
Patient being monitored in ER for MI converts to ventricular tachycardia. What’s the next step?
Defibrillation
61
Patient being monitored in ER for MI converts to asystole. What’s the next step?
Check a second monitor lead to confirm asystole
62
What’s the most common cause of diastolic heart failure?
Hypertension
63
Patient with hx of HTN, CAD and smoking complains of pain/cramping in thighs/buttock for 2 months that worsens with ambulation and relieves when sitting down.......dx?
Peripheral arterial disease
64
What labs will be seen in tumor lysis syndrome?
- hyperuricemia - hyperkalemia - hyperphosphatemia - hypocalcemia - lactic acidosis
65
What imaging should be done in suspected lung cancer?
Spiral CT
66
Biopsy of a lung mass confirms small cell carcinoma, what’s the next step?
Staging including MRI of brain, CT abd/pelvis, bone scan and bone marrow aspirate/biopsy
67
Patient with pmh of urinary frequency and muscle weakness is being treated for acute pancreatitis. Labs at the time and follow up reveal hypercalcemia.......dx?
Hyperparathyroidism
68
What antibody can cross the placenta and cause neonatal lupus?
Sjögren syndrome antibodies (SSA/SSB)
69
Patient presents with joint pain, low positive ANA and elevated ALT/AST. What lab needs to be done?
Hep C antibody........rule out cryoglobulinemia
70
Patient presents with muscle weakness and elevated AST/ALT. What test needs to be run?
GGT, determines if liver or muscle origin
71
List cues that back pain may be due to cord injury
- worse with recumbency - worse with valsalva - electric sensation down back/extremities with extension or flexion of neck/spine
72
What is initial therapy for SVC syndrome due to lung tumor?
Elevate head and monitor for airway obstruction ****not emergency, don’t treat cancer before biopsy
73
What is the most appropriate treatment for micro-invasive cervical carcinoma (stage Ia)?
Simple hysterectomy
74
What virus can contribute to hepatocellular carcinoma?
Hep B & Hep C
75
How do you diagnose hereditary spherocytosis?
Osmotic fragility
76
High calcium is an indication of what type of thyroid cancer? What needs to be done before treatment?
- Medullary | - evaluate for pheochromocytoma (MEN)
77
Sickle cell patient presents in crisis with low reticulocyte count. What could be causing the crisis?
Parvovirus B19 (aplastic crisis)