random Flashcards

1
Q

true or false. cut mode on bovie is the safest monopolar mode for ICD

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the lowest voltage monopolar mode

A

cut mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the highest voltage monopolar mode

A

coagulation mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

CO2 pneumoperitoneum has what effect on end tidal CO2

A

increases it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

biplar electrocautery seals vessels less than or equal to __ mm with minimal thermal spread, has ____ thermal injury than monopolar, and does not have ____ coupling

A

7
less
capacitative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Associated malignancies of Li Fraumeni Syndrome (p53 mutation):

A

breast cancer, sarcomas, brain tumors, leukemia, adrenocortical malignancies
inherited autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Associated cancers of Cowden Syndrome (PTEN mutation):

A

breast cancer, mucocutaneous lesions, thyroid cancer, endometrial cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The predominant electrolyte abnormality of refeeding syndrome

A

hypophosphatemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Characteristics of Mui-Torre syndrome:

A
sebaceous gland tumors (presents as yellow papules)
visceral tumors (most commonly colorectal cancer)
Considered a variant of HNPCC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Characteristics of Gardner syndrome:

A
subcategory of FAP
colonic polyposis
desmoid tumors
osteomas of the mandible or skull
cutaneous lesions (lipomas or EICs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Characteristics of Turcot syndrome

A

GI polyposis
CNS tumors
Colorectal cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

3 mechanisms by which parathyroid hormone increases calcium:

A

stimulate calcium reabsorption at the distal convoluted tubule
stimulate osteoclasts to release calcium from bone mineral stores
stimulate calcitriol (Vitamin D) to cause calcium absorption from GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mutation of hereditary diffuse gastric cancer

A

CDH1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Features of von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

A

renal cell carcinoma, hemangioblastomas of the retina or CNS, pheochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mutation of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

A

STK11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Initial management of beta blocker overdose

A

IV fluids and atropine x3 doses

if these don’t work then glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What two cardiac overdoses is glucagon effective in reversing

A

beta blocker and calcium channel blocker overdoses

18
Q

dobutamine is purely ___ adrenergic

19
Q

at ____ doses of dobutamine, beta __ is targeted and increases contractility

A

low, beta 1

20
Q

at ____ doses of dobutamine, beta ___ is targeted and is vasodilatory

A

high, beta 2

21
Q

What cancers is Epstein barr virus associated with

A

Burkitt lymphoma, Hodgkin lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, immune-suppression related lymphoma, subset of gastric cancers

22
Q

What virus is Kaposi sarcoma associated with

A

human herpes virus 8

23
Q

describe first order kinetics

A

the rate of elimination of a drug is directly proportional to the blood concentration; a constant proportion of drug is eliminated per unit time

24
Q

describe zero order kinetics

A

the rate of elimination of a drug is constant despite blood concentration

25
The effects of steroids on wound healing can be reversed by administration of which vitamin?
vitamin A
26
Maximum amplitude on TEG reflects
final clot strength: interplay of the platelets with functioning fibrinogen
27
If maximum amplitude is low on TEG:
transfuse platelets and consider desmopressin
28
Most common agent used in uremic patients with active bleeding
desmopressin
29
Low reaction time on TEG
treat with FFP; indicates time to start forming clot
30
Primary uses for desmopressin (DDAVP)
treatment of DI, hemophilia A bleeding, and mild vWF disease
31
low clot kinetics value (K)
treat with cryo; indicates time to clot reaching fixed strength
32
Low alpha angle (speed of fibrin accumulation) on TEG
treat with cryo
33
Low lysis at 30 min (LY30)
treat with TXA or aminocaproic acid; percentage of amplitude reduction 39 min after max amplitude
34
Sodium nitroprusside is metabolized to ____ and can lead to ___ toxicity
cyanide
35
Presentation of cyanide toxicity
lactic acidosis and altered mental status followed by cardiovascular collapse and coma
36
What patients is nitroprusside contraindicated in?
B12 deficiency, hypovolemia, anemia, and severe renal/liver disease
37
Antidote for cyanide toxicity
cyanocobalamin with sodium thiosulfate
38
characteristics of copper deficiency
pancytopenia, peripheral neuropathy, ataxia
39
characteristics of selenium deficiency
cardiomyopathy, impaired growth, pain, weakness
40
characteristics of zinc deficiency
growth failure, delayed sexual maturity, skin lesions (perioral and perianal red denuded skin), decreased immunity
41
characteristics of essential fatty acid deficiency
scaly dermatitis, alopecia, thrombocytopenia, impaired growth, cognitive and visual dysfunction