Rando Infections and Derm Flashcards

to be like catriona

1
Q

What are the 4 most common bacterial causes of diarrhoea

A

C difficile
Salmonella
Shigella
E coli O517

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2
Q

Two viral causes of diarrhoea

A

Rotovirus
Norovirus (umbrella term)

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3
Q

3 most common parasitic causes of diarrhoea

A

amoebic dysentery caused by entamoeba histolytica

giardiasis caused by giardia

cryptosporidium

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4
Q

E coli obtained whilst travelling is more or less serious

A

more

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5
Q

How does cholera work?

A

There is a toxin that draws fluid into lumen, as it opens up C amp channels that causes loss of chloride, therefore loss of sodium, therefore loss of water.

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6
Q

How do we treat cholera?Why don’t we give antibiotics in cholera?

A

just oral/IV fluids
NB for oral if you give glucose as well as salt in the water, better result.

Because it destroys therefore releases more of the toxins into the blood stream

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7
Q

What are the 4 C’s we avoid to prevent C difficile?

A

clindamycin
cephalosporins
co-amoxiclav
ciprofloxacin

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8
Q

Which endocrine condition could cause diarrhoea?

A

Hyperthyroidism

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9
Q

What investigations when diarrhoea?

A

Stool sample- obvious reasons
Full blood count- for inflammation markers
Abdominal X-ray or CT if abdomen distended (for toxic dilatation)

anti-alpha gliadin antibodies in blood test (serum) for coeliac disease
Thyroid function test (blood test)

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10
Q

Diarrhoea with no abdominal pain or tenderness is less likely to be gastroenteritis, and more likely to be?

A

sepsis

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11
Q

Complication of E.Coli O157?

A

haemolytic-uraemic syndrome, where bacterial toxins enter bloodstream and destroys red blood cells and damages blood vessels, and also glomeruli becomes clogged with platelets.

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12
Q

haemolytic-uraemic syndrome usually seen how

A

in children after diarrhoea, they become PALE and have less energy, may be irritable.

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13
Q

Incubation and duration of symptoms for campy jejuni (travellers)

A

2-5,

resolves in 3-6

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14
Q

What antibiotics for campy jejuni (if severe risk factors like heart failure or HIV)

A

clarithromycin (because for gram positive)

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15
Q

Treatment of severe shigella, which can lead to haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

ciprofloxacin (broader range)

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16
Q

Where do we see cysts in giardiasis?

A

Cysts are released into the faeces

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17
Q

giardiasis- diagnosed through stool. Treated how?

A

tinidazole or metronidazole

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18
Q

After salmonella, what complication may occur a few months later?

A

IBS symptoms

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19
Q

what cells does the hiv virus destroy

A

CD4 T-helper cells

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20
Q

A seroconversion illness occurs after a new HIV infection. What do I mean by this?

A

Antibodies are being produced. A flu-like illness occurs for a few weeks, then the patient is asymptomatic- until you reach immunodeficiency.

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21
Q

Why can’t you catch HIV through kissing?

A

Because there are antibodies and enzymes found naturally present in saliva that prevents HIV infecting new cells.

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22
Q

AIDs defining illness occurs when the CD4 count drops to what level?

A

200 cells /mm^3.

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23
Q

What’s a normal CD4 count?

A

500-1500 cells/mm^3

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24
Q

Testing for HIV RNA per mil is testing for what?

A

viral load. undetectable = 20 copies or below. Serious HIV can be hundreds of thousands.

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25
Q

How do we treat HIV?

A

combination of antiretroviral medications (e.g. protease inhibitors- don’t cure, but does block ability of HIV to function).

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26
Q

What viral load/copies means you would do a C section to try prevent transmission during birth?

A

Over 50 copies (def when 400 or over according to guidelines)

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27
Q

IV ‘‘x’’ is given as an infusion during labour and delivery if the viral load is unknown or above 1000 copies/ml.

Prophylaxis may be given to the baby, depending on the mother’s viral load:

Low-risk babies (mother’s viral load is under 50 copies per ml) are given ‘‘x’’ for 2-4 weeks

What’s x?

A

zidovudine

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28
Q

How does zidovudine work?

A

It incorporates itself into the viral DNA

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29
Q

Why might statins be recommended in HIV?

A

Because there is increased risk of cardiovascular disease

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30
Q

How quickly can post exposure prophylaxis be used?

A

Less than 72 hours.

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31
Q

What are pyrogens?

A

substances that cause fever.

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32
Q

What do I mean when i say pyrogens can be exogenous?

A

‘from outside’ e.g. endotoxins of gram negative bacteria.

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33
Q

Pyrogens can be exogenous, or can be endogenous: give example of endogenous?

A

Cytokines released from host cells in response to infection

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34
Q

How do pyrogens act?

A

1) Causing elevation of the set point of the hypothalamic regulatory centre, which in turn results in:
2) vasoconstriction and decreased peripheral heat loss.

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35
Q

what’s the hypothalamic regulatory centre

A

The thermostat of the hypothalamus, where the brain controls the heating

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36
Q

Definition of pyrexia of unknown origin?

A

temperature of greater than 38.3’c , on multiple occasions, for greater than 3 weeks.

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37
Q

whats nosocomial PUO ?

A

fever which develops in hospital and is undiagnosed after 3 days of investigation, including 2 days of culture

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38
Q

What’s neutropenic PUO?

A

Fever in a patient with a neutrophil count up to 500 cells /mm^3, which is undiagnosed after 3 days of investigation.

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39
Q

What’s HIV associated PUO?

A

Fever in a patient with HIV infection, which has been present and undiagnosed for more than 3 days in an inpatient or 4 weeks in an outpatient

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40
Q
A
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41
Q

What investigation is mandatory in a patient with PUO?

A

complete physical examination (repeated could be fruitful)

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42
Q

What is it, that a patient with endocarditis, could develop that may appear on examination?

A

a murmur

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43
Q

why would the physical examination for someone with PUO, include examination of the fingernails?

A

splinter haemorrhages in endocarditis

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44
Q

4 main areas of cause of PUO?

A

infections, tumour disease, inflammatory disease, cardiovascular conditions

and fifth = undiagnosed (about 1/4 of patients)

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45
Q

why would you offer a HIV test to a PUO patient

A

its a cause

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46
Q

Taking a good history is important. People can present with benign relapsing malarias how many years late?

A

maybe up to ten years after leaving an endemic area

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47
Q

Why is occupation/social history important in PUO cases?

A

people can get febrile reactions to exposure to certain chemicals

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48
Q

Why take a family history in Puo?

A

for ‘pattern of fever’ => familial causes maybe

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49
Q
A
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50
Q

With puo, why lymphadenopathy?

A

malignancies is a cause

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51
Q

With puo, why chest x ray?

A

for malignancy or tb

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52
Q

Blood cultures are a mainstay of investigating febrile patients. When do you do that?

A

taken at time of fever, at least 3 sets of cultures

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53
Q

if headache with puo, what should you do?

A

do a temporal artery biopsy

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54
Q

Is staph aureus gram positive or negative

A

gram positive

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55
Q

How does staph aureus cause disease?

A

Toxin, AND non-toxin mediated

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56
Q

Think of a gram positive bacteria that’s part of the normal human flora

A

staph aureus

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57
Q

Cytotoxins from staph aureus can break down neutrophils leading to what

A

tissue damage because of release of lysosomal enzymes

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58
Q

Staph aureus means ‘golden cluster of grapes’ in latin. What colour does it gram stain as?

A

purple- but GOLDEN on blood agar plates

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59
Q

Staph aureus can lead to what infections of the dermis and epidermis?

A

impetigo of the epidermis
and
cellulitis of the dermis

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60
Q

A dental abscess is what, in regards to staph aureus?

A

Infection of staph aureus where it’s become a subcutaneous abscess/ subcutaneous collection of pus.

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61
Q

staph aureus infection of muscle is called what?

A

pyomyositis

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62
Q

what might staph aureus do in the blood stream?

A

cause an infected blood clot, and be called septic thrombophlebitis

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63
Q

why does bacterieamia cause blood pressure to fall

A

due to the immune reaction causing blood vessels to dilate.

can therefore cause sepsis.

64
Q

What might staph aureus do in the central nervous system?

A

get into the spine and cause an epidural abscess
or cause bacterial meningitis

65
Q

what’s happening in staph aureus infective endocarditis?

A

grow on heart valves in clumps called vegetations

66
Q

staph aureus can cause biofilm t or f

A

t, Iv catheters for example

67
Q

what is toxic shock syndrome, really?

A

a cytokine storm that results in physiological changes, such as fever, low blood pressure and poor end organ perfusion that can result in death.

68
Q

hemolysin toxin from staph aureus does what?

A

It destroys erythrocytes, releasing their hemoglobin which contains iron. Which it uses for it’s own metabolism.

69
Q

Other than the TSS1 toxin caused by staph aureus, what toxin causes toxic shock syndrome if it enters the bloodstream?

A

enterotoxin

70
Q

Methicillin sometimes kills staph aureus, but cant kill MRSA. What type of antibiotic is it?

A

beta lactam

71
Q

what are the two categories of MRSA

A
72
Q

what antibiotics (and examples please) treat MRSA commonly?

A

glycopeptide antibiotics, such as vancomycin or clindomycin

73
Q

whats VRSA staph aureus

A

vancomycin resistant staph aureus

74
Q

diagnosis for septic shock

A

Serum lactate levels @ 2mmol/l
Low mean arterial pressure @ 65mmHg or below. (requiring vasopressors)

75
Q

how to treat septic shock

A

Obvs sepsis 6

then vasopressors

76
Q

what are the 3 essential phases of sepsis

A

1) release of bacterial toxins
2) release of mediators
3) effects of these excessive mediators

common bacterial causes of sepsis, is: s. aureus, e. coli, some strep

77
Q

In sepsis, what do i mean by immunoparalysis?

A

There is an increases in inflammatory response, but then there is an ‘immunoparalysis’, failure of the body to mount an immune response.

78
Q

Does coagulation increase or decrease in sepsis inflammatory response?

A

increase

79
Q

With sepsis, what are the common infections that cause septicaemia?

A

Pneumonia
UTI
abdominal infections

80
Q

What is the sepsis 6?

A

Take 3 give 3

take blood culture
take blood lactate
measure urine output (marker of renal dysfunction)

give oxygen
give IV fluid
give antibiotics

81
Q

Influenza A, B, C = which to worry about/more severe, and is also the only one to be present in animals as well?

A

a

82
Q

Incubation period of influenza?

A

2-4 days

83
Q

In severe cases of influenza, what antiviral medication should you give? (for only A and B)

(For someone at risk, really)

A

oseltamivir

or inhaled zanamivir

84
Q

How quickly should you give oseltamivir?

NB can also give this as post exposure prophylaxis.

A

Within 48 hours of infection

85
Q

Because of the risk of secondary bacterial pneumonia, patients with ‘flu symptoms and a fever for greater than 4 days, should have an

A
86
Q

malaria is disease of

A

red blood cells

87
Q

After being in the bloodstream initially, where does malaria parasites go?

A

liver (can sleep there, hence recurrent malaria) then leaves again and invades red blood cells. They produce female and male gametocytes. Then taken up by new mosquito, and becomes a zygote

88
Q

Clinical features of malaria?

A

Non specific
Kinda like the flu

abdo pain, fever, headache, sore throat, cough, frequency, aching bones etc

Often just fever

89
Q

Why jaundice in malaria?

A

increase in red cell break down = increase in bilirubin

90
Q

Arch back in a case of malaria, is suggestive of what

A

specifically cerebral malaria

parasites disrupt and compromise circulation in the brain

91
Q

Diagnose malaria how?

A

1) thick and thin blood film to check for parasites (look at overnight)
2) rapid malaria antigen test kit (can be used by patient themselves as well as in hospital)

92
Q

Severe malaria is when the parasite count is more than what?

A

2%

93
Q

Treat malaria how?

A

riamet (nb from that chinese plant)

quinine (has some side effects)

94
Q

Treat severe malaria how?

A

IV artesunate
IV quinine

often taken with clindamycin

turns oral with improvement of a few days

95
Q

Three negative samples taken over how many consecutive days, to exclude malaria?

Due to the parasites being released from red blood cells into the blood every 48-72 hours

A

Three negative samples taken over three consecutive days are required to exclude malaria due to the parasites being released from red blood cells into the blood every 48-72 hours

96
Q

What is a common side effect of artesunate?

A

haemolysis

97
Q

Clinical presentation of typhoid fever, how long is usual duration?

A

4 weeks

2nd week, fever peaks
3rd is when complications occur

98
Q

Treatment of typhoid?

A

Drug of choice =

99
Q

Classic presentation of dengue fever?

A

sudden fever
severe headache and pain behind the eyes
pain in the bones
rash
nausea or vomiting

100
Q

Diagnosis of dengue

A

PCR in the blood

101
Q

Dengue management?

A

fluids, fresh frozen plasma, platelets

102
Q

When does dengue shock syndrome occur?
Or dengue haemorrhagic fever?

A

When you’ve had it before, so low platelets already

103
Q

When does the critical phase of dengue fever occur?

A

3rd day of fever, lasts for 24 or 48 hours

104
Q

Schistosomiasis> what symptoms in the first few hours, then after 8 weeks?

A

swimmers itch
blood in urine or semen

105
Q

Ebola is what type of fever

A

viral haemorrhagic fever

106
Q

Lyme disease incubation period

A

7-14 days

107
Q

B. burgdorferi bacteria from a tick bite multiplies in what layer of the skin?

A

dermis

108
Q

Treatment for lymes disease

A

2-4 weeks amoxicillin or doxycycline

109
Q

What neurological manifestations of lyme disease may occur?

A

lower motor neurone facial nerve palsy

110
Q

What is the most common cause of facial nerve palsy in children?

A

lyme’s diease

111
Q

How to diagnose Lyme disease in particular?

A

Routine Lyme disease serological testing to check for antibodies. But also send CSF and serum samples (taken on the same day) for neurological Lyme disease.

112
Q

What is brucellosis?

A

An infection you can catch from unpasteurised milk or cheese, or from contact with infected animals.

113
Q

Leptospirosis caught how?

A

Carried by rats initially, spread through urine, caught from water sources. Maybe water sports. Penetrate through skin.

114
Q

Leptospirosis can lead to Weil’s disease, which is characterised by what triad

A

jaundice
AKI
bleeding

115
Q

Investigations for leptospirosis?

A

when clinically high suspicion,
Serology for IgM and IgG

116
Q

Treat leptospirosis how?

A

Amoxicillin or doxycycline

IV ceftriaxone if severe, just like Lyme

117
Q

Incubation of rabies?

A

1-3 months, can take years.

118
Q

Pathogenesis of rabies

A

Bitten
Travels from muscle to peripheral nervous system, to central nervous system, to the brain to cause encephalitis = confusion, seizures, difficulty speaking, feeling weak

119
Q

Most common symptoms of rabies

A

hydrophobia
insomnia
confusion
agitation
coma

occasionally ascending paralysis

120
Q

why hydrophobia in rabies

A

virus is in salivary glands and doesn’t want to be diluted by taking water

almost always fatal once symptoms appear

121
Q

Investigations for Ebola?

A

PCR
Serology for IgM and IgG

122
Q

Why do we use oral vancomycin in c difficile, vs IV?

A

Because it’s such a large molecule, it won’t really be absorbed, so it stays in the gut where the infection is rather than going into the system.

123
Q

Symptoms of red man syndrome for use of vancomycin?

A

flushing
erythema
pruritis
affecting upper body more than lower

124
Q

How to manage red man syndrome for vancomycin

A

stop infusion
administer antihistamine
can restart slowly once symptoms resolve

125
Q

Why do you have to monitor vancomycin so much?

A

It’s nephrotoxic.

126
Q

What type of drug is gentamicin?

A

Aminoglycosides. which is bacteriostatic.

127
Q

what drug to give in breast feeding and pregnancy?

A

erythromycin

128
Q

Give 3 examples of broad spectrum antibiotics

A

azithromycin
amoxicillin
ciprofloxacin

doxycycline
gentamicin

129
Q

would an intra-abdominal infection require broad or narrow antibiotics

A

broad

130
Q

would gastro-enteritis require broad or narrow spectrum antibiotics

A

broad

131
Q

does otitis media require broad or narrow spectrum antibiotics

A

broad

132
Q

How would you treat tonsilitis infection?

A

penicillin or broad

133
Q

How to treat flu

A

oseltamivir oral
or
inhaled zanamivir

134
Q

How to treat a UTI

A

nitrofurantoin!

(maybe amoxicillin if that doesn’t work)

135
Q

How to treat cellulitis?

A

flucloxacillin

136
Q

How to treat clostridium difficile

A

oral vancomycin

137
Q

How to treat meningitis?

A

aciclovir because viral or also IV vancomycin for bacteria if indicated like recent travel, or recently lots of antibiotics

138
Q

How to treat malaria

A

riavet or quinine plus broad

139
Q

treat vaginal thrush how? And what is it?

A

Candida

treat it with clotrimazole cream

140
Q

Genital candidiasis has similar symptoms to a UTI. What symptoms might distinguish it?

A

cottage cheese discharge
itch, rash

UTI has similarly, dysuria

141
Q

3 most common fungal things

A

aspergillus
tinea
candida

142
Q

Clinical diagnosis of tinea is usually based on clinical presentation. What is this clinical presentation?

A

scaly itchy skin
raised anular patches with typical central clearing, of asymmetrical distribution

143
Q

Jock’s itch = what

A

tinea

144
Q

Ringworm is what fungal infection? and therefore treat with what

A

tinea, treat with terbinafine cream probably

145
Q

where is aspergillus found?

A

soil compost organic matter, air conditioning systems, uncovered attic water tanks, damp buildings.

146
Q

Symptoms of aspergillosis mimic respiratory disease, and as it often occurs in patients with already compromised lungs, it kinda just looks like exasperation. Just like, ‘hey my symptoms are getting worse’

What symptoms might clue you into thinking there is a fungal cause?

A

maybe the fact there is a fever?

NB you do of course have weight loss, cough, haemoptysis

BUT aspergillosis has fever as well!

147
Q

How to treat invasive pulmonary aspergillosis?

A

IV anti-fungal meds as an in-patient

148
Q

Symptoms of invasive pulmonary aspergillosis?

A

pleuritic chest pain
sob
sinusitis
haemoptysis

but crucially, other organs are involved because it spreads haematogenously > kidney, brain, thyroid, GI tract, eyes, skin.

149
Q

Herpes zoster virus i.e. shingles vaccine is given to what age group?

A

70 plus

150
Q

Herpes zoster virus i.e. shingles is what

A

It’s the chicken pox infection travelling along the nerve and causing a crusty rash on the skin along it

151
Q

Normal levels of PaO2

A

10.7-13.3

152
Q

Normal levels of CO2

A

4.7-6

153
Q

Normal HCO3 levels

A

22-28mmol/l

154
Q

Normal pH

A

7.35-7.45

155
Q

Normal lactate levels =

A

0.5-1mmol/l

156
Q
A