Radiology/ Laser Safety (Mordecai) Exam 1

Question 1

Who discovered X-ray therapy in 1895?

A) Thomas Edison
B) Marie Curie
C) Wilhelm Roentgen
D) Alexander Graham Bell

Answer 1

C) Wilhelm Roentgen

• While experimenting with currents in a glass tube noticed that a fluorescent screen in the lab began to glow.
• Placed objects between the screen and the tube –> called “x” ray = something unknown

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Question 2

Matching

Match the Type of Radiation with its definition

Answer 2

1 - C) Electromagnetic Radiation
2 - A) Mechanical Radiation
3 - B) Nuclear (Neutron) Radiation
4 - D) Cosmic (Beta) Radiation

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Question 3

What characteristic best describes non-ionizing radiation?

A) It creates ions by knocking electrons off atoms
B) It is unstable and can lead to nuclear decay
C) It is stable and does not break molecular bonds
D) It disrupts cellular DNA directly by breaking molecular bonds

Answer 3

C) It is stable and cannot knock electrons off atoms or break molecular bonds

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Question 4

Which of the following is an example of non-ionizing radiation that could be harmful due to heat energy?
Select 2

A) X-rays
B) Gamma rays
C) Radio waves
D) Alpha particles
E) Microwaves
F) Toasters

Answer 4

C) Radio waves
E) Microwaves

The Brave Little Toaster (1987)

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Question 5

What happens to atoms when exposed to ionizing radiation?

A) They lose protons, forming new elements
B) They lose energy, becoming ionized
C) Their electrons are knocked off, creating ions
D) Their nuclei become unstable, leading to fission

Answer 5

C) Their electrons are knocked off, creating ions

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Question 6

What is a significant intracellular consequence of ion electrical charges from ionizing radiation? Select 2

A) Increased DNA cellular repair mechanisms
B) Breaks in DNA chains causing apoptosis
C) Enhanced immune response
D) Additive of non-ionized particles in DNA
E) Mutations in DNA chains causing cancer

Answer 6

B) Breaks in DNA chains causing apoptosis
E) Mutations in DNA chains causing cancer

Mutated sperm or egg cell = birth defects

Shorse…or is it a Horsk?

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Question 7

Which statement best describes the risk of repeated exposure to ionizing radiation?

A) The risk decreases with each exposure
B) The risk is cumulative with each exposure
C) The risk resets after a 6 months
D) The risk can be subtractive with exposure

Answer 7

B) The risk is cumulative, increasing with more exposure
additive risk - accumulates over time

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Question 9

What is the main difference between X-rays and visible light rays?

A) X-rays are mechanical energy, while visible light is electromagnetic energy
B) The energy level, which is related to wavelength
C) X-rays can be seen by the human eye, while visible light cannot
D) The energy level, which is related to nuclear radiation

Answer 9

B) The energy level, which is related to wavelength

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Question 10

Which of the following statements is true about X-rays and visible light rays?

A) Both are forms of electromagnetic energy carried by photons
B) Both have the same wavelength and carried by photons
C) X-rays have longer wavelengths than visible light rays
D) Both are visible to the human eye

Answer 10

A) Both are forms of electromagnetic energy carried by photons

Photons are light particles

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Question 11

X-rays have _______ wavelengths and _________ energy.

A) longer, lower
B) shorter, lower
C) same, higher
D) shorter, higher

Answer 11

D) shorter, higher
* * X-rays have shorter wavelengths and higher energy.

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Question 12

Radio waves have _______ wavelengths and ________ energy.

A) shorter, higher
B) longer, higher energy
C) shorter, lower energy
D) longer, lower energy

Answer 12

D) longer, lower

• • Radio waves have longer wavelengths and lower energy.

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Question 13

True or False

We can see x-ray and radio waves on either side of the visible spectrum

Answer 13

False
We don’t see the shorter wavelength/higher energy X-ray waves – right side
We don’t see the longer wavelength/lower energyradio waves – left side

Question 14

What causes light to be emitted from an atom?

A) The movement of protons within the nucleus
B) The collision of atoms with each other
C) The movement of electrons in atoms
D) The expansion of the atomic nucleus

Answer 14

C) The movement of electrons in atoms

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Question 15

When an atom is heated, moving particles excite the atom, causing the electron to jump to a __________ energy level/orbit.

A) Lower
B) Neutral
C) Higher
D) Unchanged

Answer 15

C) Higher

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Question 16

What must happen for an electron to fall back to its original orbit?

A) It must absorb more energy
B) It must lose mass
C) It must release energy
D) It must stop moving

Answer 16

C) It must release energy in the form of a photon

STNG

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Question 17

Why are small atoms less likely to absorb X-ray photons?

A) Their electron orbitals are further apart, with large jumps in energy
B) Their electron orbitals are closer together, with low jumps in energy
C) They have more electron orbitals with lower energy
D) Their electrons move faster at higher orbitals

Answer 17

B) Their electron orbitals are closer together, with low jumps in energy

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Question 18

On X-ray images, soft tissues tend to appear __________ because they are less likely to absorb X-ray photons.

A) Brighter
B) Lighter
C) Grayish
D) Clear

Answer 18

C) Grayish

Small atoms – closer together

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Question 19

Why do bones appear lighter and brighter on X-ray images compared to soft tissues?

A) Bones are composed of small atoms that reflect light
B) Bones are composed of large atoms that absorb more X-rays
C) Bones are denser and absorb less X-rays
D) Bones have more atoms that scatter X-rays

Answer 19

B) Bones are composed of large atoms that absorb more X-ray photons

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Question 20

Which type of atoms are more likely to absorb photons, such as X-rays?

A) Small atoms with closely spaced orbitals
B) Large atoms with closely spaced orbitals
C) Large atoms with greater energy differences between orbitals
D) Small atoms with greater energy differences between orbitals

Answer 20

C) Large atoms with greater energy differences between orbitals

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Question 21

What makes up an electrode pair of an X-ray machine?
A) Cathode
B) Canode
C) Anode
D) Anole

Answer 21

B) Cathode
C) Anode

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Question 22

What role does the cathode play in the X-ray machine?

A) It is a positively charged plate that attracts electrons
B) It heats a filament, causing electrons to fly off
C) It creates photons that pass through the body
D) It focuses the X-ray beam on the target area

Answer 22

B) It heats a filament, causing electrons to fly off

Negative charged side of the x-ray tube

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Question 23

What happens to the electrons after they are released from the cathode?

A) They are absorbed by the body
B) They are focused into a beam of light
C) They are attracted to the anode
D) They immediately generate photons

Answer 23

C) They are attracted across the tube to the positively charged anode

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Question 24

What is the primary material used to make the anode in an X-ray machine?

A) Thorium
B) Tantallium
C) Tungsten
D) Thallium

Answer 24

C) Tungsten

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Question 25

What is the primary function of the window in the thick shield that surrounds the X-ray machine?

A) Allows a narrow beam of photons to escape
B) To protect the patient from photons
C) To cool the machine during operation
D) Fires photons whenever tissue gets too close

Answer 25

A) Allows a narrow beam of photons to escape

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Question 26

What role does the camera on the opposite side of the X-ray machine play?

A) It generates the X-rays
B) It records the pattern of X-ray photons
C) It focuses the beam onto the desired area
D) It adjusts the intensity of the X-ray beam

Answer 26

B) It records the pattern of X-ray photons

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Question 27

The image created by an X-ray is the result of a __________ reaction on film.

A) Electrical
B) Radiation
C) Mechanical
D) Chemical

Answer 27

D) Chemical

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Question 28

__________ light can darken or lighten the X-ray image.

A) Infrared
B) Ultraviolet
C) Ambient
D) Reflected

Answer 28

C) Ambient

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Question 29

Changes in the intensity of the X-ray beam can result in __________ or __________ exposure, altering the appearance of the image.

A) Over / under
B) Left / right
C) Deep / shallow
D) Strong / weak

Answer 29

A) Over / under

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Question 30

Which of the following is NOT a common use of radiography (standard X-rays)?

A) Bone fractures
B) Placement of feeding tubes
C) Diagnosis of aneurysms
D) Detection of foreign objects

Answer 30

C) Diagnosis of aneurysms

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Question 31

Computed Tomography (CT) scans combine X-rays with __________ to create accurate 3D images.

A) Ultrasound
B) Magnetic resonance
C) Computer processing
D) Radiation therapy

Answer 31

C) Computer processing

Helps to diagnose the anatomical pathology – where the tumor is and exact measurements

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Question 32

Fluoroscopy involves the use of constant X-rays to create __________ images, often with or without contrast.

A) Still
B) Blurred
C) Real-time
D) 3D

Answer 32

C) Real-time

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Question 33

Which imaging technique involves high levels of xray exposure and is often used for procedures such as aneurysm coiling and cardiac stent placement?

A) Radiography
B) Mammography
C) Computed Tomography (CT)
D) Fluoroscopy

Answer 33

D) Fluoroscopy

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Question 34

True or False

X-rays cannot be used theraputically

Answer 34

False
They can be used for radiation therapy
* At higher doses, radiation can damage the cancer cell’s DNA

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Question 35

What is the most common side effect of radiation therapy?
A) Hair loss
B) Diarrhea
C) Urinary changes
D) Fatigue

Answer 35

D) Fatigue

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Question 36

Which area of the body is associated with skin changes, edema, and tenderness as side effects of X-ray treatment?

A) Head/neck
B) Pelvis
C) Breast
D) Abdomen

Answer 36

C) Breast

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Question 37

Which of the following side effects is commonly associated with X-ray treatment of the rectum?

A) Hair loss
B) Infertility
C) Nausea/Vomiting
D) Taste changes

Answer 37

B) Infertility

Fatigue, diarrhea, Sexual Problems and urinary changes

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Question 38

Which of the following are common side effects of X-ray treatment for the abdomen? (Select 3)

A) Diarrhea
B) Skin changes
C) Blurry vision
D) Urinary changes
E) Headache

Answer 38

A) Diarrhea
B) Skin changes
D) Urinary changes

N/V,Fatigue

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Question 39

Which is NOT a side effect for X-ray treatment of the head/neck?

A) Mouth changes
B) Dysphagia
C) Taste changes
D) SOB

Answer 39

D) SOB

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Question 40

True or False

Hypothyroidism is a side effect of Head/Neck radiation therapy

Answer 40

True

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Question 41

Which of the following side effects are commonly associated with X-ray treatment for the brain? (Select 3)

A) Headache
B) Blurry vision
C) Edema
D) Nausea/Vomiting
E) Cough

Answer 41

A) Headache
B) Blurry vision
D) Nausea/Vomiting

Fatigue, Hair Loss, skin changes

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Question 42

Which of the following are common side effects of X-ray treatment for the chest?

A) Cough, dysphagia, headache
B) Cough, shortness of breath, dysphagia
C) Dysphagia, hair loss, urinary changes
D) Fatigue, skin changes, dysphagia

Answer 42

B) Cough, shortness of breath, dysphagia

Fatigue, Hairloss

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Question 43

What unit is used to measure radiation doses, nearly equivalent to the Rad?

A) Sievert
B) Millisievert
C) Rem
D) Curie

Answer 43

C) Rem

Radiation dose times a weighting factor

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Question 44

Radiation doses are often measured in __________, which is 1/1000 of a Rem.

A) Millirad
B) Millicurie
C) Millisievert
D) Millirem

Answer 44

D) Millirem (mrem)

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Question 45

How much radiation exposure is considered the annual allowable dose for the lens of the eye?

A) <500 mrem
B) <5,000 mrem
C) <15,000 mrem
D) <50,000 mrem

Answer 45

C) <15,000 mrem

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Question 46

What is the maximum annual allowable dose of radiation for pregnant individuals?

A) <15,000 mrem
B) <50,000 mrem
C) <500 mrem
D) <5,000 mrem

Answer 46

C) <500 mrem

prefer to occur after 2nd trimester! Less likely to affect replicating cells within the fetus/organogenesis

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Question 47

The annual allowable radiation dose for extremities is less than __________ mrem.

A) 500
B) 5,000
C) 15,000
D) 50,000

Answer 47

D) 50,000

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Question 48

The annual allowable radiation dose for the whole body is less than __________ mrem.

A) 500
B) 5,000
C) 15,000
D) 50,000

Answer 48

B) 5,000

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Question 49

Which of the following is a direct source of radiation? Select 2

A) Gamma rays from radioactive materials
B) Primary X-ray beams
C) Cosmic rays from space
D) Beta particles from nuclear reactors
E) Leakage from equipment
F) Theta particles from space

Answer 49

B) Primary X-ray beams
E) Leakage from equipment

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Question 50

What is the typical amount of radiation exposure (in mrem) from a Coronary Angiogram?

A) 5-10 mrem
B) 1,500 mrem
C) 5,000 mrem
D) 5,700 mrem

Answer 50

B) 1,500 mrem

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Question 51

A Chest X-ray (CXR) typically results in a radiation dose of __________ mrem.

A) 5-10
B) 10-15
C) 10-20
D) 15-20

Answer 51

A) 5-10

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Question 52

The amount of radiation exposure from an angioplasty procedure is typically __________ mrem.

A) 5-10
B) 1,500
C) 5,000
D) 5,700

Answer 52

D) 5,700

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Question 53

The amount of radiation from a CT scan is approximately __________ mrem.

A) 5-10
B) 1,500
C) 5,000
D) 5,700

Answer 53

C) 5,000

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Question 54

Which procedure results in the highest radiation dose?

A) Chest X-ray (CXR)
B) Coronary Angiogram
C) Angioplasty
D) Computed Tomography (CT)

Answer 54

C) Angioplasty

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Question 55

Which of the following describes what a indirect, scattered source of radiation?

A) Direct X-ray beams targeting the patient
B) X-rays reflected off surfaces
C) Natural radiation from the atmosphere
D) Radiation emitted directly from radioactive materials

Answer 55

B) X-rays reflected off surfaces like tables, patients, and other objects

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Question 56

What happens when the collimation or the width of the beam is narrowed during an X-ray procedure?

A) The radiation dose increases
B) The radiation dose decreases
C) More scatter occurs
D) Less scatter occurs

Answer 56

D) Less scatter occurs

**Wider the collimation, the more radiation scatter) **

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Question 57

When object thickness increases (obese), __________ scatter will occur.

A) More
B) Less
C) Same
D) No

Answer 57

A) More

clarified by Dr. Mordecai

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Question 58

How does increasing the air gap (the distance from the patient) affect the amount of scattered radiation?

A) It decreases scatter
B) It increases scatter
C) It has no effect on scatter
D) It focuses the scatter

Answer 58

B) It increases scatter

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Question 59

Fetal radiation doses below __________ mrem are unlikely to cause effects, especially after 20 weeks of pregnancy.

A) 1,000
B) 5,000
C) 10,000
D) 50,000

Answer 59

C) 10,000

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Question 60

Which of the following are key methods to reduce radiation exposure according to the ALARA principle? (Select 3)

A) Time
B) Distance
C) Temperature
D) Shielding
E) Frequency

Answer 60

A) Time - Reduce the time spent near the beam entry
B) Distance - further away the less exposure
D) Shielding -Lead aprons, portable shields, thyroid, lead glasses

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Question 61

Doubling the distance from a direct radiation source reduces the exposure rate to __________ of the original level.

A) Half
B) One-third
C) One-fourth
D) One-fifth

Answer 61

C) One-fourth

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Question 62

What distance from the patient is recommended to reduce scatter radiation?

A) 3 feet
B) 6 feet
C) 9 feet
D) 12 feet

Answer 62

B) 6 > feet

Sldie 19

Question 63

When wearing two dosimeter badges, one should be worn on the collar outside the apron, and the other should be worn on the __________ inside the apron.

A) Chest
B) Back
C) Waist
D) Shoulder

Answer 63

Answer: C) Waist

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Question 64

The DONTS

Do not share dosimeters with others or leave them in the car because __________ radiation can interfere with their accuracy.

A) Solar
B) Gamma
C) X-ray
D) Cosmic

Answer 64

D) Cosmic

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Question 65

START HERE KRISTA

The principles of MRI are based on interactions between:
A) Electromagnetic waves and electrons
B) Static magnetic fields and atom nuclei
C) Sound waves and bones
D) Radioactive isotopes and tissues

Answer 65

B) Static magnetic fields and (individual) atom nuclei

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Answer 66

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Question 67

In MRI, a magnetic field is used to orient the nuclei of ____ molecules to the north-south poles.

A) Oxygen
B) Carbon
C) Hydrogen
D) Nitrogen

Answer 67

C) Hydrogen

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Question 68

How does MRI create an image?

A) By using X-rays to penetrate tissues
B) By reflecting sound waves off tissues
C) By using radio wave pulses to change the orientation of specific atoms, which radiates energy to create an image
D) By ionizing molecules to produce a visual representation

Answer 68

C) By using radio wave pulses to change the orientation of specific atoms, which radiates energy to create an image

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Question 69

In MRI, contrast is generated by:

A) The absorption of X-rays by tissues
B) The reflection of sound waves from tissues
C) The time time till tissue relaxation when radiofrequency turned off
D) The emission of gamma rays from tissues

Answer 69

C) The time time till tissue relaxation when radiofrequency turned off

• When the radio frequency is turned off, protons realign with the magnetic field releasing electromagnetic energy.

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Question 70

Which of the following factors affect the contrast generated in an MRI? (Select 2)

A) The temperature of the room
B) Various densities of hydrogen nuclei in tissues
C) Different chemical and physical properties of tissues
D) The speed of sound in tissues

Answer 70

B) Various densities of hydrogen nuclei in tissues

C) Different chemical and physical properties of tissues

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Question 71

Which of the following are the two contrast views used in MRI?

A) T3 and T4
B) Alpha and Beta
C) T1 and T2
D) Gamma and Delta

Answer 71

C) T1 and T2

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Question 72

What happens during T1 contrast imaging in MRI?

A) The magnetic vector relaxes
B) The magnetic vector aligns
C) The magnetic vector accelerates
D) The magnetic vector remains stationary

Answer 72

A) The magnetic vector relaxes

• Radio frequency is off and not trying to move the orientation of the atom
• Provides a good grey-white matter contrast
• Good for viewing anatomy

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Question 73

How do fat and water appear on a T1-weighted MRI image?
A) Fat appears dark; water appears bright
B) Fat appears bright; water appears dark
C) Both fat and water appear bright
D) Both fat and water appear dark

Answer 73

B) Fat appears bright; water appears dark

provides good grey-white matter contrast…anatomy

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Question 74

What happens during T2 contrast imaging in MRI?

A) The axial spin relaxes
B) The magnetic vector aligns
C) The axial spin accelerates
D) The magnetic vector remains stationary

Answer 74

A) The axial spin relaxes

• Radio frequency turned on
• Great for identifying tissue edema
• Good for viewing pathology

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Question 75

How do fat and water appear on a T2 weighted image?How do fat and water appear on a T2-weighted MRI image?
A) Fat appears dark; water appears bright
B) Fat appears bright; water appears dark
C) Both fat and water appear bright
D) Both fat and water appear dark

Answer 75

A) Fat appears dark; water appears bright

identifies tissue edema easily…pathology

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Question 76

What is the most common contrast material used for MRI?
A) Iodine
B) Barium
C) Gadolinium
D) Technetium

Answer 76

C) Gadolinium

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Question 77

How does gadolinium enhance the quality of MRI images?

A) By reflecting sound waves
B) By absorbing X-rays
C) By altering the magnetic properties of nearby water molecules
D) By increasing tissue temperature

Answer 77

C) By altering the magnetic properties of nearby water molecules

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Question 78

Which of the following are potential side effects of gadolinium when used as a contrast agent in MRI? (Select all that apply)

A) Itching
B) Rash
C) Abnormal skin sensation
D) Fever
E) Dizziness

Answer 78

A) Itching
B) Rash
C) Abnormal skin sensation

Rare severe reactions

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Question 79

With normal kidney function (GFR), gadolinium clears from the body within: (Select all that apply)
A) 6 hours
B) 12 hours
C) 24 hours
D) 48 hours

Answer 79

C) 24 hours

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Question 80

True or False

The magnetic field always on.

Answer 80

True

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Question 81

Ferromagnetic objects in a magnetic field experience which of the following forces? (Select all that apply)

A) Attractive force pulling them toward the center of the magnet
B) Torque attempting to line them up with the magnetic field
C) Repulsive force pushing them away from the magnetic field
D) Neutral force with no effect

Answer 81

A) Attractive force pulling them toward the center of the magnet

B) Torque attempting to line them up with the magnetic field

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Question 82

Which of the following items are MRI-incompatible? (Select all that apply)

A) Oxygen/nitrous oxide tanks
B) Anesthesia machine
C) Monitors
D) Infusion pumps
E) Plastic surgical tools
F) Stretchers
G) Crash carts

Answer 82

A) Oxygen/nitrous oxide tanks
B) Anesthesia machine
C) Monitors
D) Infusion pumps
F) Stretchers,
G) Crash carts

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Question 83

Which of the following are risks associated with MRI? (Select all that apply)

A) Projectile risk
B) Electromagnetic interference
C) Radiofrequency energy
D) Increased radiation exposure
E) Acoustic noise up to 125 dB

Answer 83

A) Projectile risk

B) Electromagnetic interference causing artifacts such as in ECG interpretatio

C) Radiofrequency energy causing tissue/device heating

E) Acoustic noise up to 125 dB, requiring hearing protection for CRNA and patient

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Question 84

Anesthesia is often used during MRI because it requires multiple image sequences, each taking up to ____ minutes, and any movement can cause image ____.

A) 1-2 minutes
B) 5-7 minutes
C) 10 minutes
D) 15-20 minutes
E) clarity
F) distortion
G) blank effect
H) increase scan speed

Answer 84

C) 10 minutes

F) distortion

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Question 85

Which anesthesia techniques can be used for MRI procedures?

A) Sedation only
B) General anesthesia only
C) Both sedation and general anesthesia
D) Regional anesthesia only

Answer 85

C) Both sedation and general anesthesia

po or IV
Sevoflurane MRI safe vaporizer
TIVA

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Question 86

Which of the following are key anesthesia care considerations during MRI? (Select all that apply)

A) EKG, pulse oximetry, BP, and capnography every 15 minutes when providing anesthetics
B) Airway management (cannula, mask, ETT, or LMA)
C) Suction availability
D) Use of ventilator only, no spontaneous ventilation allowed
E) Minimizing movement
F) MRI-compatible infusion pumps or long IV tubing
G) Induction in the MRI room only, never in a separate room

Answer 86

A) EKG, pulse oximetry, BP, and capnography every 15 minutes when providing anesthetics

B) Airway management (cannula, mask, ETT, or LMA)

C) Suction availability

E) Minimizing movement (e.g., use of Versed)

F) MRI-compatible infusion pumps or long IV tubing

Complications, have airway access
Laryngoscope handles, blades are not MRI compatible, induction done in separate room

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Question 87

What is a key concern with patient positioning during head and neck MRI scans?

A) Risk of limb injury
B) Airway inaccessibility
C) Overheating
D) Nerve compression

Answer 87

B) Airway inaccessibility

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Question 88

What potential injury should be monitored for during abdominal MRI scans when the patient’s arms are positioned over their head?

A) Spinal cord injury
B) Brachial plexus injury
C) Rib fracture
D) Hip dislocation

Answer 88

B) Brachial plexus injury

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Question 89

Which of the following implanted devices could be affected by an MRI scan? (Select all that apply)

A) Pacemakers
B) AICDs (Automatic Implantable Cardioverter Defibrillators)
C) Implanted insulin pumps
D) Dental fillings

Answer 89

A) Pacemakers
B) AICDs
C) Implanted insulin pumps

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Question 90

What symptoms might occur if a person moves too quickly toward an MRI field (e.g., running into the MRI room)?
A) Increased heart rate and sweating
B) Dizziness, headache, light flashes, and nausea
C) Shortness of breath and chest pain
D) Muscle cramps and joint pain

Answer 90

B) Dizziness, headache, light flashes, and nausea

• Move calmly in the MRI room.

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Question 91

Which of the following are MRI-compatible? (Select all that apply)

A) Heart valves
B) Endovascular and biliary stents (after eight weeks)
C) Coronary stents (immediately)
D) Vascular ports and IVC filters
E) Orthopedic implants

Answer 91

ALL OF THE ABOVE

• Heart valves safe
• Endovascular and biliary stents are usually embedded after eight weeks
• Coronary stents OK immediately
• Vascular ports and IVC filters are safe
• Any Orthopedic implants…titanium, safe; screws are made of lead and securely in bone.

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Question 92

What does the acronym LASER stand for?

A) Light Amplification by Spontaneous Emission of Radiation
B) Light Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation
C) Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
D) Light Absorption by Stimulated Emission of Radiation

Answer 92

C) Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation

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Question 93

Which of the following best describes the differences between ordinary light and laser light?

A) Ordinary light has a focused narrow beam, while laser light spreads out in many directions.
B) Ordinary light contains many wavelengths that spread out in many directions, while laser light has a specific wavelength with a focused narrow beam and high intensity.
C) Ordinary light has a specific wavelength, while laser light contains many wavelengths.
D) Both ordinary light and laser light contain many wavelengths and have a focused narrow beam.

Answer 93

B) Ordinary light contains many wavelengths that spread out in many directions, while laser light has a specific wavelength with a focused narrow beam and high intensity.

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Question 94

In which of the following medical fields are lasers commonly used? (Select all that apply)

A) Cosmetic surgeries
B) Refractive eye surgery
C) Dental procedures
D) General surgery
E) ENT procedures

Answer 94

ALL OF THE ABOVE

• Cosmetic surgeries
• Refractive eye surgery to reshape cornea (LASIX)
• Dental procedures
• General surgery (Condyloma resection, TURP/TURB)
• ENT procedures (Sinuses, Tracheal tumor resection, )Vocal cord polyp resection

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Question 95

The unexcited state electrons orbit the nucleus at the ____ energy.

A) Highest
B) Lowest
C) Intermediate
D) Random

Answer 95

B) Lowest

Slide 37

Question 96

In the unexcited state, electrons occupy orbits __________.

A) Closest to the nucleus
B) Farthest from the nucleus
C) At a random distance from the nucleus
D) Outside the atom

Answer 96

A) Closest to the nucleus

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Question 97

Which of the following steps are involved in the production of radiation? (Select all that apply)

A) Absorption of energy from an energy source
B) Electrons becoming excited and moving to higher orbits
C) Electrons returning to their ground state and emitting photons of energy
D) Electrons staying in their excited state permanently

Answer 97

A) Absorption of energy from an energy source

B) Electrons becoming excited and moving to higher orbits

C) Electrons returning to their ground state and emitting photons of energy

Slide 37

Question 98

Which property of laser radiation refers to all photons having the same wavelength?

A) Coherence
B) Collimation
C) Monochromatic
D) Dispersion

Answer 98

C) Monochromatic

Slide 38

Question 99

What does coherence in laser radiation mean?

A) All photons are moving randomly.
B) The travel of photons is synchronized in time and space.
C) The photons have varying wavelengths.
D) The beam of photons is dispersed in different directions.

Answer 99

B) The travel of photons is synchronized in time and space.

Don’t move randomly

Slide 38

Question 100

What does collimation in laser radiation refer to?

A) The spreading out of photons in many directions.
B) The laser beam photons being nearly parallel.
C) The synchronization of photon travel in time and space.
D) The variation in photon wavelengths.

Answer 100

B) The laser beam photons being nearly parallel.

Allows beam to be focused on small area

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Question 101

Which of the following are advantages of laser surgery? (Select all that apply)

A) Excellent precision
B) Poor hemostasis
C) Rapid healing
D) Increased scar formation
E) Less postoperative edema and pain
F) Lower infection rates

Answer 101

A) Excellent precision

• Good hemostasis

C) Rapid healing

• Less scar formation

E) Less postoperative edema and pain

F) Lower infection rates

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Question 102

What gives a type of laser its name?

A) Wavelength
B) Lasing Medium
C) Beam Intensity
D) Frequency

Answer 102

B) Lasing Medium

Question 103

Which of the following are examples of lasing mediums? (Select all that apply)
A) Argon
B) Carbon Dioxide
C) Helium
D) Nd:YAG

Answer 103

A) Argon
B) Carbon Dioxide
D) Nd:YAG

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Question 104

Which of the following statements are true about the Argon laser? (Select all that apply)

A) It has modest tissue penetration of 0.05-2mm
B) It is used in dermatology
C) It has deep tissue penetration of more than 5mm
D) It is not used in medical procedures

Answer 104

A) It has modest tissue penetration of 0.05-2mm

B) It is used in dermatology

Slide 40

Question 105

Which of the following are characteristics of the Carbon Dioxide laser? (Select all that apply)

A) Minimal scatter
B) Causes significant surrounding tissue damage
C) Surrounding tissue damage is negligible
D) Commonly used for procedures on vocal cords and in the oropharynx

Answer 105

A) Minimal scatter

C) Surrounding tissue damage is negligible (Absorbed by water with minimal heat dispersion)

D) Commonly used for procedures on vocal cords and in the oropharynx

Slide 40

Question 106

Which of the following are characteristics of the Nd:YAG
laser? (Select all that apply)

A) Most powerful laser
B) Superficial tissue penetration
C) Deeper tissue penetration
D) Used for tumor debulking

Answer 106

A) Most powerful laser

C) Deeper tissue penetration (2-6mm)

D) Used for tumor debulking

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Question 107

Which two laser hazards are of the greatest concern to CRNAs?

A) Perforation of a vessel or structure
B) Airway fire
C) Embolism
D) Atmospheric contamination
E) Inappropriate energy transfer

Answer 107

B) Airway fire

D) Atmospheric contamination (Important to wear Particulate laser mask that will protect you from breathing anything)

Slide 41

Question 108

Which of the following are hazards associated with laser use? (Select all that apply)

A) Atmospheric decontamination
B) Perforation of a vessel or structure
C) Embolism
D) Inappropriate energy transfer
E) Increased recovery time

Answer 108

B) Perforation of a vessel or structure

C) Embolism

D) Inappropriate energy transfer

Slide 41

Question 109

What is laser plume primarily composed of?

A) Large dust particles
B) Fine particulates produced by vaporization of tissue
C) Excessive laser light
D) Water vapor

Answer 109

B) Fine particulates produced by vaporization of tissue

Slide 42

Question 110

Which of the following are potential risks associated with exposure to laser plume?

A. Development of asthma
B. Headache and nausea after inhalation
C. Interstitial pneumonia, bronchiolitis, emphysema
D. Immediate skin burns
E. Potential carcinogenic effects
F. Increase in blood pressure

Answer 110

B. Headache and nausea after inhalation

C. Interstitial pneumonia, bronchiolitis, emphysema

E. Potential carcinogenic effects

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Question 111

Which of the following precautions should be taken during laser procedures? Select all that apply.

A. Ensure that the provider is wearing laser glasses.
B. Tape the patient’s eyes and provide laser glasses.
C. Ensure that all windows in the room are covered.
D. Wear masks specifically designed to filter laser plume that may contain vaporized viruses.
E. Utilize appropriate suction to remove laser plume from the surgical site.
F. Have water or saline irrigation available on the back table.
G. Don’t tent drapes to avoid pockets of oxygen for the patient.

Answer 111

ALL OF THE ABOVE

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Question 112

Which of the following components are part of the fire triad? Select all that apply.

A. Ignition source
B. Fuel
C. Oxidizer
D. Water
E. Carbon dioxide

Answer 112

A. Ignition source
B. Fuel
C. Oxidizer

Slide 44

Question 113

Which of the following are major sources of fires in the operating room? Select all that apply.

A. Electrosurgical units (ESU) and cautery devices
B. Laser
C. Anesthesia machines
D. Surgical drapes
E. Ventilators

Answer 113

A. Electrosurgical units (ESU) (Electrosurgical units aka “Bovie”) and cautery devices
B. Laser

Question 114

Which of the following scenarios can lead to an endotracheal fire? Select all that apply.

A. Surgeon is lasering the airway through the endotracheal tube (ETT) and burns through the PVC tube.
B. Surgeon is completing a tonsillectomy in a pediatric patient with an uncuffed tube.
C. Surgeon is using a bovie to cut through the trachea for a tracheotomy.
D. Surgeon is performing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy using only non-heat-generating tools.
E. Surgeon is suturing skin during a routine outpatient procedure.

Answer 114

A. Surgeon is lasering the airway through the endotracheal tube (ETT) and burns through the PVC tube.

B. Surgeon is completing a tonsillectomy in a pediatric patient with an uncuffed tube.

C. Surgeon is using a bovie to cut through the trachea for a tracheotomy.

Slide 45

Question 115

Which of the following practices promote airway fire safety during laser procedures? Select all that apply.

A. Use laser-resistant endotracheal tubes (ETTs).
B. Use high-inspired oxygen concentrations (100% O₂).
C. Apply wet pledgets around the ETT and tape the strings to the face.
D. Fill the ETT cuff with methylene blue to show signs of rupture.
E. Use a bovie to cut into the trachea during a tracheotomy.
F. Remove the ETT during the laser procedure and reinsert as needed.

Answer 115

A. Use laser-resistant endotracheal tubes (ETTs).

Low-inspired (21% if possible) O2

C. Apply wet pledgets around the ETT and tape the strings to the face.

D. Fill the ETT cuff with methylene blue to show signs of rupture.

Use scissors to cut into trachea instead of bouvie

F. Remove the ETT during the laser procedure and reinsert as needed.

Question 116

Which of the following are key components of an anesthesia plan for airway surgery? Select all that apply.

A. Preoperative evaluation of the airway
B. Mutual planning with the surgeon
C. Use of total intravenous anesthesia (TIVA)
D. Routine use of inhalation agents for maintaining anesthesia.

Answer 116

A. Preoperative evaluation of airway (stridor, flow volume loops, CT, fiberoptic eval)

B. Mutual planning with surgeon (Intermittent apneic oxygenation, jet ventilation)

C. Total IV anesthesia (Propofol, remifentanil, Xylocaine spray)

Slide 47

Question 117

Which of the following are components of an anesthesia plan to prevent airway fire during laser procedures? Select all that apply.

A. Fill the endotracheal tube (ETT) cuff with methylene blue.
B. Use dry gauze for protection around the airway and face.
C. Use short, repeated pulses of laser instead of long continuous mode.
D. Maintain oxygen concentration below 30% and avoid nitrous oxide.
E. Communicate and monitor video cameras for signs of an airway fire.

Answer 117

A. Fill the endotracheal tube (ETT) cuff with methylene blue.

Wet saline gauze protection of airway/face

C. Use short, repeated pulses of laser instead of long continuous mode.

D. Maintain oxygen concentration below 30% and avoid nitrous oxide.

E. Communicate and monitor video cameras for signs of an airway fire.

Slide 48