Radiology/ Laser Safety (Mordecai) Exam 1 Flashcards

Question 1

Q

Who discovered X-ray therapy in 1895?

A) Thomas Edison
B) Marie Curie
C) Wilhelm Roentgen
D) Alexander Graham Bell

Answer

A

C) Wilhelm Roentgen

While experimenting with currents in a glass tube noticed that a fluorescent screen in the lab began to glow.
Placed objects between the screen and the tube –> called “x” ray = something unknown

Slide 3

Question 2

Q

Matching

Match the Type of Radiation with its definition

Answer

A

1 - C) Electromagnetic Radiation
2 - A) Mechanical Radiation
3 - B) Nuclear (Neutron) Radiation
4 - D) Cosmic (Beta) Radiation

Slide 4

Question 3

Q

What characteristic best describes non-ionizing radiation?

A) It creates ions by knocking electrons off atoms
B) It is unstable and can lead to nuclear decay
C) It is stable and does not break molecular bonds
D) It disrupts cellular DNA directly by breaking molecular bonds

Answer

A

C) It is stable and cannot knock electrons off atoms or break molecular bonds

Slide 5

Question 4

Q

Which of the following is an example of non-ionizing radiation that could be harmful due to heat energy?
Select 2

A) X-rays
B) Gamma rays
C) Radio waves
D) Alpha particles
E) Microwaves
F) Toasters

Answer

A

C) Radio waves
E) Microwaves

The Brave Little Toaster (1987)

Slide 5

Question 5

Q

What happens to atoms when exposed to ionizing radiation?

A) They lose protons, forming new elements
B) They lose energy, becoming ionized
C) Their electrons are knocked off, creating ions
D) Their nuclei become unstable, leading to fission

Answer

A

C) Their electrons are knocked off, creating ions

Slide 5

Question 6

Q

What is a significant intracellular consequence of ion electrical charges from ionizing radiation? Select 2

A) Increased DNA cellular repair mechanisms
B) Breaks in DNA chains causing apoptosis
C) Enhanced immune response
D) Additive of non-ionized particles in DNA
E) Mutations in DNA chains causing cancer

Answer

A

B) Breaks in DNA chains causing apoptosis
E) Mutations in DNA chains causing cancer

Mutated sperm or egg cell = birth defects

Shorse…or is it a Horsk?

Slide 5

Question 7

Q

Which statement best describes the risk of repeated exposure to ionizing radiation?

A) The risk decreases with each exposure
B) The risk is cumulative with each exposure
C) The risk resets after a 6 months
D) The risk can be subtractive with exposure

Answer

A

B) The risk is cumulative, increasing with more exposure
additive risk - accumulates over time

Slide 5

Question 8

Q

What is the main difference between X-rays and visible light rays?

A) X-rays are mechanical energy, while visible light is electromagnetic energy
B) The energy level, which is related to wavelength
C) X-rays can be seen by the human eye, while visible light cannot
D) The energy level, which is related to nuclear radiation

Answer

A

B) The energy level, which is related to wavelength

Slide 6

Question 9

Q

Which of the following statements is true about X-rays and visible light rays?

A) Both are forms of electromagnetic energy carried by photons
B) Both have the same wavelength and carried by photons
C) X-rays have longer wavelengths than visible light rays
D) Both are visible to the human eye

Answer

A

A) Both are forms of electromagnetic energy carried by photons

Photons are light particles

Slide 6

Question 10

Q

X-rays have __ wavelengths and __ energy.

A) longer, lower
B) shorter, lower
C) same, higher
D) shorter, higher

Answer

A

D) shorter, higher
* * X-rays have shorter wavelengths and higher energy.

Slide 6

Question 11

Q

Radio waves have ___ wavelengths and ___ energy.

A) shorter, higher
B) longer, higher energy
C) shorter, lower energy
D) longer, lower energy

Answer

A

D) longer, lower

- Radio waves have longer wavelengths and lower energy.

Slide 6

Question 12

Q

True or False

We can see x-ray and radio waves on either side of the visible spectrum

Answer

A

False
We see the shorter wavelength/higher energy X-ray waves only right side
We see the longer wavelength/lower energyradio waves only left side

Slide 6

Question 13

Q

What causes light to be emitted from an atom?

A) The movement of protons within the nucleus
B) The collision of atoms with each other
C) The movement of electrons in atoms
D) The expansion of the atomic nucleus

Answer

A

C) The movement of electrons in atoms

Slide 7

Question 14

Q

When an atom is heated, moving particles excite the atom, causing the electron to jump to a __________ energy level/orbit.

A) Lower
B) Neutral
C) Higher
D) Unchanged

Answer

A

C) Higher

Slide 7

Question 15

Q

What must happen for an electron to fall back to its original orbit?

A) It must absorb more energy
B) It must lose mass
C) It must release energy
D) It must stop moving

Answer

A

C) It must release energy in the form of a photon

STNG

Slide 7

Question 16

Q

Why are small atoms less likely to absorb X-ray photons?

A) Their electron orbitals are further apart, with large jumps in energy
B) Their electron orbitals are closer together, with low jumps in energy
C) They have more electron orbitals with lower energy
D) Their electrons move faster at higher orbitals

Answer

A

B) Their electron orbitals are closer together, with low jumps in energy

Slide 8

Question 17

Q

On X-ray images, soft tissues tend to appear __________ because they are less likely to absorb X-ray photons.

A) Brighter
B) Lighter
C) Grayish
D) Clear

Answer

A

C) Grayish

Small atoms – closer together

Slide 8

Question 18

Q

Why do bones appear lighter and brighter on X-ray images compared to soft tissues?

A) Bones are composed of small atoms that reflect light
B) Bones are composed of large atoms that absorb more X-rays
C) Bones are denser and absorb less X-rays
D) Bones have more atoms that scatter X-rays

Answer

A

B) Bones are composed of large atoms that absorb more X-ray photons

Slide 8

Question 19

Q

Which type of atoms are more likely to absorb photons, such as X-rays?

A) Small atoms with closely spaced orbitals
B) Large atoms with closely spaced orbitals
C) Large atoms with greater energy differences between orbitals
D) Small atoms with greater energy differences between orbitals

Answer

A

C) Large atoms with greater energy differences between orbitals

Slide 8

Question 20

Q

What makes up an electrode pair of an X-ray machine? (select 2)
A) Cathode
B) Canode
C) Anode
D) Anole

Answer

A

B) Cathode
C) Anode

Slide 10

Question 21

Q

What role does the cathode play in the X-ray machine?

A) It is a positively charged plate that attracts electrons
B) It heats a filament, causing electrons to fly off
C) It creates photons that pass through the body
D) It focuses the X-ray beam on the target area

Answer

A

B) It heats a filament, causing electrons to fly off

Negative charged side of the x-ray tube

Slide 10

Question 22

Q

What happens to the electrons after they are released from the cathode?

A) They are absorbed by the body
B) They are focused into a beam of light
C) They are attracted to the anode
D) They immediately generate photons

Answer

A

C) They are attracted across the tube to the positively charged anode

Slide 10

Question 23

Q

What is the primary material used to make the anode in an X-ray machine?

A) Thorium
B) Tantallium
C) Tungsten
D) Thallium

Answer

A

C) Tungsten

Slide 10

Question 24

Q

What is the primary function of the window in the thick shield that surrounds the X-ray machine?

A) Allows a narrow beam of photons to escape
B) To protect the patient from photons
C) To cool the machine during operation
D) Fires photons whenever tissue gets too close

Answer

A

A) Allows a narrow beam of photons to escape

Slide 11

Question 25

Q

What role does the camera on the opposite side of the X-ray machine play?

A) It generates the X-rays
B) It records the pattern of X-ray photons
C) It focuses the beam onto the desired area
D) It adjusts the intensity of the X-ray beam

Answer

A

B) It records the pattern of X-ray photons

Slide 11

Question 26

Q

The image created by an X-ray is the result of a __________ reaction on film.

A) Electrical
B) Radiation
C) Mechanical
D) Chemical

Answer

A

D) Chemical

Slide 11

Question 27

Q

__________ light can darken or lighten the X-ray image.

A) Infrared
B) Ultraviolet
C) Ambient
D) Reflected

Answer

A

C) Ambient

Slide 11

Question 28

Q

Changes in the intensity of the X-ray beam can result in ____ or ____ exposure, altering the appearance of the image.

A) Over / under
B) Left / right
C) Deep / shallow
D) Strong / weak

Answer

A

A) Over / under

Slide 11

Question 29

Q

Which of the following is NOT a common use of radiography (standard X-rays)?

A) Bone fractures
B) Placement of feeding tubes
C) Diagnosis of aneurysms
D) Detection of foreign objects

Answer

A

C) Diagnosis of aneurysms

also used for Mammography

Slide 12

Question 30

Q

Computed Tomography (CT) scans combine X-rays with __________ to create accurate 3D images.

A) Ultrasound
B) Magnetic resonance
C) Computer processing
D) Radiation therapy

Answer

A

C) Computer processing

Helps to diagnose the anatomical pathology – where the tumor is and exact measurements

Slide 12

Question 31

Q

Fluoroscopy involves the use of constant X-rays to create __________ images, often with or without contrast.

A) Still
B) Blurred
C) Real-time
D) 3D

Answer

A

C) Real-time

Slide 12

Question 32

Q

Which imaging technique involves high levels of xray exposure and is often used for procedures such as aneurysm coiling and cardiac stent placement?

A) Radiography
B) Mammography
C) Computed Tomography (CT)
D) Fluoroscopy

Answer

A

D) Fluoroscopy

*need to wear lead at all times

Slide 12

Question 33

Q

True or False

X-rays cannot be used therapeutically

Answer

A

False
They can be used for radiation therapy
* At higher doses, radiation can damage the cancer cell’s DNA

Slide 13

Question 34

Q

What is the most common side effect of radiation therapy?
A) Hair loss
B) Diarrhea
C) Urinary changes
D) Fatigue

Answer

A

D) Fatigue

Slide 14

Question 35

Q

Which area of the body is associated with skin changes, edema, and tenderness as side effects of X-ray treatment?

A) Head/neck
B) Pelvis
C) Breast
D) Abdomen

Answer

A

C) Breast

Slide 14

Question 36

Q

Which of the following side effects is commonly associated with X-ray treatment of the rectum?

A) Hair loss
B) Infertility
C) Nausea/Vomiting
D) Taste changes

Answer

A

B) Infertility

Fatigue, diarrhea, Sexual Problems and urinary changes

Slide 14

Question 37

Q

Which of the following are common side effects of X-ray treatment for the abdomen? (Select 3)

A) Diarrhea
B) Skin changes
C) Blurry vision
D) Urinary changes
E) Headache

Answer

A

A) Diarrhea
B) Skin changes
D) Urinary changes

N/V,Fatigue

Slide 14

Question 38

Q

Which is NOT a side effect for X-ray treatment of the head/neck?

A) Mouth changes
B) Dysphagia
C) Taste changes
D) SOB
E) Hair loss

Answer

A

D) SOB

Slide 14

Question 39

Q

True or False

Hypothyroidism is a side effect of Head/Neck radiation therapy

Answer

A

True

Slide 14

Question 40

Q

Which of the following side effects are commonly associated with X-ray treatment for the brain? (Select 3)

A) Headache
B) Blurry vision
C) Edema
D) Nausea/Vomiting
E) Cough

Answer

A

A) Headache
B) Blurry vision
D) Nausea/Vomiting

Fatigue, Hair Loss, skin changes

Slide 14

Question 41

Q

Which of the following are common side effects of X-ray treatment for the chest?

A) Cough, dysphagia, headache
B) Cough, shortness of breath, dysphagia
C) Dysphagia, hair loss, urinary changes
D) Fatigue, skin changes, dysphagia

Answer

A

B) Cough, shortness of breath, dysphagia

Fatigue, Hairloss

slide 14

Question 42

Q

What unit is used to measure radiation doses, nearly equivalent to the Rad?

A) Sievert
B) Millisievert
C) Rem
D) Curie

Answer

A

C) Rem

Radiation dose times a weighting factor

Slide 15

Question 43

Q

Radiation doses are often measured in __________, which is 1/1000 of a Rem.

A) Millirad
B) Millicurie
C) Millisievert
D) Millirem

Answer

A

D) Millirem (mrem)

Slide 15

Question 44

Q

How much radiation exposure is considered the annual allowable dose for the lens of the eye?

A) <500 mrem
B) <5,000 mrem
C) <15,000 mrem
D) <50,000 mrem

Answer

A

C) <15,000 mrem

Slide 15

Question 45

Q

What is the maximum annual allowable dose of radiation for pregnant individuals?

A) <15,000 mrem
B) <50,000 mrem
C) <500 mrem
D) <5,000 mrem

Answer

A

C) <500 mrem

prefer to occur after 2nd trimester! Less likely to affect replicating cells within the fetus/organogenesis

Slide 15

Question 46

Q

The annual allowable radiation dose for extremities is less than __________ mrem.

A) 500
B) 5,000
C) 15,000
D) 50,000

Answer

A

D) 50,000

Slide 15

Question 47

Q

The annual allowable radiation dose for the whole body is less than __________ mrem.

A) 500
B) 5,000
C) 15,000
D) 50,000

Answer

A

B) 5,000

Slide 15

Question 48

Q

Which of the following is a direct source of radiation? Select 2

A) Gamma rays from radioactive materials
B) Primary X-ray beams
C) Cosmic rays from space
D) Beta particles from nuclear reactors
E) Leakage from equipment
F) Theta particles from space

Answer

A

B) Primary X-ray beams
E) Leakage from equipment

Slide 16

Question 49

Q

What is the typical amount of radiation exposure (in mrem) from a Coronary Angiogram?

A) 5-10 mrem
B) 1,500 mrem
C) 5,000 mrem
D) 5,700 mrem

Answer

A

B) 1,500 mrem

Slide 16

Question 50

Q

A Chest X-ray (CXR) typically results in a radiation dose of __________ mrem.

A) 5-10
B) 10-15
C) 10-20
D) 15-20

Answer

A

A) 5-10

Slide 16

Question 51

Q

The amount of radiation exposure from an angioplasty procedure is typically __________ mrem.

A) 5-10
B) 1,500
C) 5,000
D) 5,700

Answer

A

D) 5,700

Slide 16

Question 52

Q

The amount of radiation from a CT scan is approximately __________ mrem.

A) 5-10
B) 1,500
C) 5,000
D) 5,700

Answer

A

C) 5,000

Slide 16

Question 53

Q

Which procedure results in the highest radiation dose?

A) Chest X-ray (CXR)
B) Coronary Angiogram
C) Angioplasty
D) Computed Tomography (CT)

Answer

A

C) Angioplasty

Slide 16

Question 54

Q

Which of the following describes what a indirect, scattered source of radiation?

A) Direct X-ray beams targeting the patient
B) X-rays reflected off surfaces
C) Natural radiation from the atmosphere
D) Radiation emitted directly from radioactive materials

Answer

A

B) X-rays reflected off surfaces like tables, patients, and other objects

Slide 17

Question 55

Q

What happens when the collimation or the width of the beam is narrowed during an X-ray procedure?

A) The scatter stays the same
B) No scatter occurs
C) More scatter occurs
D) Less scatter occurs

Answer

A

D) Less scatter occurs

Wider the collimation, the more radiation scatter)

Slide 17

Question 56

Q

When object thickness increases (obese), __________ scatter will occur.

A) More
B) Less
C) Same
D) No

Answer

A

A) More

clarified by Dr. Mordecai

Slide 17

Question 57

Q

How does increasing the air gap (the distance from the patient) affect the amount of scattered radiation?

A) It decreases scatter
B) It increases scatter
C) It has no effect on scatter
D) It focuses the scatter

Answer

A

B) It increases scatter

Slide 17

Question 58

Q

Fetal radiation doses below __________ mrem are unlikely to cause effects, especially after 20 weeks of pregnancy.

A) 1,000
B) 5,000
C) 10,000
D) 50,000

Answer

A

C) 10,000

Slide 18

Question 59

Q

Which of the following are key methods to reduce radiation exposure according to the ALARA principle? (Select 3)

A) Time
B) Distance
C) Temperature
D) Shielding
E) Frequency

Answer

A

A) Time - Reduce the time spent near the beam entry

B) Distance - further away the less exposure

D) Shielding -Lead aprons, portable shields, thyroid, lead glasses

slide 19

Question 60

Q

Doubling the distance from a direct radiation source reduces the exposure rate to __________ of the original level.

A) Half
B) One-third
C) One-fourth
D) One-fifth

Answer

A

C) One-fourth

Basically it will go down to 1/4 of what the original level was. So 1/4th of 20mrem is 5mrem.
## Footnote

Slide 19

Question 61

Q

What distance from the patient is recommended to reduce scatter radiation?

A) 3 feet
B) 6 feet
C) 9 feet
D) 12 feet

Answer

A

B) 6 feet

attempt to be > 6ft from patient

Sldie 19

Question 62

Q

When wearing two dosimeter badges, one should be worn on the collar outside the apron, and the other should be worn on the __________ inside the apron.

A) Chest
B) Back
C) Waist
D) Shoulder

Answer

A

C) Waist

Slide 20

Question 63

Q

The DONTS

Do not share dosimeters with others or leave them in the car because __________ radiation can interfere with their accuracy.

A) Solar
B) Gamma
C) X-ray
D) Cosmic

Answer

A

D) Cosmic

Slide 20

Question 64

Q

The principles of MRI are based on interactions between:
A) Electromagnetic waves and electrons
B) Static magnetic fields and atom nuclei
C) Sound waves and bones
D) Radioactive isotopes and tissues

Answer

A

B) Static magnetic fields and (individual) atom nuclei

Slide 24

Answer 65

A

C) Hydrogen

Slide 24

Answer 66

A

C) By using radio wave pulses to change the orientation of specific atoms, which radiates energy to create an image

Slide 24

Answer 67

A

C) The time till tissue relaxation when radiofrequency turned off

When the radio frequency is turned off, protons realign with the magnetic field releasing electromagnetic energy.

Slide 25

Answer 68

A

B) Various densities of hydrogen nuclei in tissues

C) Different chemical and physical properties of tissues

Slide 25

Answer 69

A

C) T1 and T2

Slide 25

Answer 70

A

A) The magnetic vector relaxes

Radio frequency is off and not trying to move the orientation of the atom
Provides a good grey-white matter contrast
Good for viewing anatomy

Slide 25

Answer 71

A

B) Fat appears bright; water appears dark

provides good grey-white matter contrast…anatomy

Slide 25

Answer 72

A

A) The axial spin relaxes

Radio frequency turned on
Great for identifying tissue edema
Good for viewing pathology

Slide 25

Answer 73

A

A) Fat appears dark; water appears bright

identifies tissue edema easily…pathology

Slide 25

Answer 74

A

C) Gadolinium

Slide 26

Answer 75

A

C) By altering the magnetic properties of nearby water molecules

Slide 26

Answer 76

A

A) Itching
B) Rash
C) Abnormal skin sensation

Rare severe reactions

Slide 26

Answer 77

A

C) 24 hours

Slide 26

Answer 78

A

True

Slide 27

Answer 79

A

A) Attractive force pulling them toward the center of the magnet

B) Torque attempting to line them up with the magnetic field

Slide 27

Answer 80

A

E) Plastic surgical tools

Slide 27

Answer 81

A

A) Projectile risk

B) Electromagnetic interference causing artifacts such as in ECG interpretatio

C) Radiofrequency energy causing tissue/device heating

E) Acoustic noise up to 125 dB, requiring hearing protection for CRNA and patient

Slide 28

Answer 82

A

C) 10 minutes

F) distortion

Slide 29

Answer 83

A

C) Both sedation and general anesthesia

po or IV;
Sevoflurane MRI safe vaporizer;
TIVA

Slide 29

Answer 84

A

A) EKG, pulse oximetry, BP, and capnography every 15 minutes when providing anesthetics

B) Airway management (cannula, mask, ETT, or LMA)

C) Suction availability

E) Minimizing movement (e.g., use of Versed)

F) MRI-compatible infusion pumps or long IV tubing

Complications, have airway access
Laryngoscope handles, blades are not MRI compatible, induction done in separate room

Slide 30

Answer 85

A

B) Airway inaccessibility

Slide 31

Answer 86

A

B) Brachial plexus injury

Slide 31

Answer 87

A

A) Pacemakers
B) AICDs
C) Implanted insulin pumps

Slide 32

Answer 88

A

B) Dizziness, headache, light flashes, and nausea

Move calmly in the MRI room.

Slide 32

Answer 89

A

ALL OF THE ABOVE

Heart valves safe
Endovascular and biliary stents are usually embedded after eight weeks
Coronary stents OK immediately
Vascular ports and IVC filters are safe
Any Orthopedic implants…titanium, safe; screws are made of lead and securely in bone.

Slide 32

Answer 90

A

C) Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation

Slide 35

Answer 91

A

B) Ordinary light contains many wavelengths that spread out in many directions, while laser light has a specific wavelength with a focused narrow beam and high intensity.

Slide 35

Answer 92

A

ALL OF THE ABOVE

Cosmetic surgeries
Refractive eye surgery to reshape cornea (LASIX)
Dental procedures
General surgery (Condyloma resection, TURP/TURB)
ENT procedures (Sinuses, Tracheal tumor resection, )Vocal cord polyp resection

Slide 36

Answer 93

A

B) Lowest

Slide 37

Answer 94

A

A) Closest to the nucleus

Slide 37

Answer 95

A

A) Absorption of energy from an energy source

B) Electrons becoming excited and moving to higher orbits

C) Electrons returning to their ground state and emitting photons of energy

Slide 37

Answer 96

A

C) Monochromatic

Slide 38

Answer 97

A

B) The travel of photons is synchronized in time and space.

Don’t move randomly

Slide 38

Answer 98

A

B) The laser beam photons being nearly parallel.

Allows beam to be focused on small area

Slide 38

Answer 99

A

A) Excellent precision

Good hemostasis

C) Rapid healing

Less scar formation

E) Less postoperative edema and pain

F) Lower infection rates

Slide 39

Answer 100

A

B) Lasing Medium

Answer 101

A

A) Argon
B) Carbon Dioxide
D) Nd:YAG

Slide 40

Answer 102

A

A) It has modest tissue penetration of 0.05-2mm

B) It is used in dermatology

Slide 40

Answer 103

A

A) Minimal scatter

C) Surrounding tissue damage is negligible (Absorbed by water with minimal heat dispersion)

D) Commonly used for procedures on vocal cords and in the oropharynx

Slide 40

Answer 104

A

A) Most powerful laser

C) Deeper tissue penetration (2-6mm)

D) Used for tumor debulking

Slide 40

Answer 105

A

B) Airway fire

D) Atmospheric contamination
Important to wear Particulate laser mask that will protect you from breathing anything

Slide 41

Answer 106

A

B) Perforation of a vessel or structure

C) Embolism

D) Inappropriate energy transfer

Slide 41

Answer 107

A

B) Fine particulates produced by vaporization of tissue

Slide 42

Answer 108

A

B. Headache and nausea after inhalation

C. Interstitial pneumonia, bronchiolitis, emphysema

E. Potential carcinogenic effects

Slide 42

Answer 109

A

ALL OF THE ABOVE

Slide 43

Answer 110

A

A. Ignition source
B. Fuel
C. Oxidizer

Slide 44

Answer 111

A

A. Electrosurgical units (ESU) (Electrosurgical units aka “Bovie”) and cautery devices

B. Laser

Answer 112

A

A. Surgeon is lasering the airway through the endotracheal tube (ETT) and burns through the PVC tube.

B. Surgeon is completing a tonsillectomy in a pediatric patient with an uncuffed tube.

C. Surgeon is using a bovie to cut through the trachea for a tracheotomy.

Slide 45

Answer 113

A

A. Use laser-resistant endotracheal tubes (ETTs).

Low-inspired (21% if possible) O2

C. Apply wet pledgets around the ETT and tape the strings to the face.

D. Fill the ETT cuff with methylene blue to show signs of rupture.

Use scissors to cut into trachea instead of bouvie

F. Remove the ETT during the laser procedure and reinsert as needed.

Slide 46

Answer 114

A

A. Preoperative evaluation of airway
(stridor, flow volume loops, CT, fiberoptic eval)

B. Mutual planning with surgeon
(Intermittent apneic oxygenation, jet ventilation)

C. Total IV anesthesia (Propofol, remifentanil, Xylocaine spray)

Slide 47

Answer 115

A

A. Fill the endotracheal tube (ETT) cuff with methylene blue.

Wet saline gauze protection of airway/face

C. Use short, repeated pulses of laser instead of long continuous mode.

D. Maintain oxygen concentration below 30% and avoid nitrous oxide.

E. Communicate and monitor video cameras for signs of an airway fire.

Slide 48

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Radiology/ Laser Safety (Mordecai) Exam 1 Flashcards

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