Oncology and Chemotherapy (Mordecai) Exam III Flashcards
The normal behavior of cells is to grow and divide when needed, what happens when they are damaged or old?
A) They continue to grow and divide
B) They die
C) They become cancer cells
D) They stop growing but do not die
B) They die
Slide 2
What characterizes the behavior of cancer cells compared to normal cells?
A) They die when they should die
B) They form only when needed
C) They survive when they should die
D) They grow at a slower rate
C) They survive when they should die
Form when they are NOT needed
Slide 2
Matching
Match the stages of tissue changes with their definitions
1 → B
2 → D
3 → C
4 → A
Slide 3
What is the definition of cancer according to the National Cancer Institute?
A) A single disease caused by viruses
B) A collection of related diseases
C) A genetic disorder with no external causes
D) A disease only affecting solid organs
B) A collection of related diseases
Slide 4
Cancer cells differ from normal cells because they ________ without stopping and spread into surrounding tissues.
A) Regenerate
B) Die
C) Grow
D) Divide
D) Divide
May form solid tumors or not (leukemias like blood cancers)
Slide 4
Which factors can cause cancer? Select 2
A) Inherited from parents
B) Direct or indirect contact
C) Excessive cell death
D) Mutations to DNA
E) Mobile phones
A) Inherited from parents
D) Mutations to DNA - exposure to things like radiation, chemicals and various drugs
Slide 4
Which characteristics describe how cancer cells differ from normal cells? Select 3
A) Cancer cells are less specialized
B) Cancer cells divide for shorter than needed
C) Abnormally influence normal cells
D) Cancer cells stop dividing when they receive apoptosis signals
E) Cancer cells evade the immune system
A) Cancer cells are less specialized
C) Abnormally influence normal cells
E) Cancer cells evade the immune system
Slide 5
How do cancer cells interact with normal cells?
Select 3
A) They encourage normal cells to die
B) They influence normal cells to feed the tumor by forming blood vessels
C) Can ignore pre-programmed apoptosis signals
D) They destroy blood vessels
E) They use the immune system to prevent cancer cell damage
B) They influence normal cells to feed the tumor by forming blood vessels - this is called angiogenesis
C) Can ignore pre-programmed apoptosis signals - these cells can ignore that pre-programmed apoptosis signals that keep them from dividing and multiplying out of control
E) They use the immune system to prevent cancer cell damage - they can basically influence things like the neutrophils and influence phagocyte production and activity to kind of prevent themselves from being broken down and gobbled up the way they should.
Slide 5
What are proto-oncogenes involved in under normal conditions?
A) Preventing cell division
B) Normal cell growth and division
C) DNA repair
D) Apoptosis (cell death)
B) Normal cell growth and division
Slide 6
What happens when proto-oncogenes become altered?
A) They slow down cell division
B) They become tumor suppressor genes
C) They become cancer-causing genes
D) They repair DNA damage
C) They become cancer-causing genes, allowing cells to grow and survive
Slide 6
What is the function of tumor suppressor genes when they are altered?
A) They allow genes to divide uncontrollably
B) They help the immune system attack cancer cells
C) They repair damaged DNA
D) They stop cell growth entirely
A) They allow genes to divide uncontrollably
Slide 6
DNA repair gene mutations can cause ________ in the cells.
A) Increased growth
B) Correct repair of damage
C) Other mutations
D) No impact
C) Other mutations
M - there can be alterations in DNA repair genes. And so the DNA helixes get damaged. And they replicate. And so this is sort of an incorrect damage repair and causes other mutations to occur along the way.
Slide 6
There are more than __________ types of cancers
A) 50
B)75
C) 90
D) 100
D) 100
Slide 7
How are cancers typically named?
A) Based on the age of the patient
B) Based on where the cancer originates
C) Based on the duration of the illness
D) Based on the color of the tumor
B) Based on the organs, tissues, or types of cells where the cancer originates
Slide 7
What type of cancer originates from the basal layer of the epidermis?
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Basal cell carcinoma
D) Sarcoma
C) Basal cell carcinoma
Slide 7
Adenocarcinoma typically affects ________ tissues that produce mucus, like the breast or prostate.
A) Glandular
B) Epithelial
C) Muscular
D) Bone
A) Glandular
Slide 7
What type of cancer affects epithelial cells, such as those lining the stomach, intestines, and bladder?
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Sarcoma
D) Leukemia
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
slide 7
Sarcomas are cancers that affect the ________.
A) Blood-forming tissues
B) Glandular tissues
C) Epithelial tissues
D) Bone and soft tissues
D) Bone and soft tissues
Bone cancer = osteosarcomas
Slide 7
What type of cancer begins in blood-forming tissues, such as the bone marrow?
A) Lymphoma
B) Sarcoma
C) Leukemia
D) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Leukemia
Slide 7
Which type of cancer begins in lymphocytes (T or B cells) and can build up in lymph nodes and vessels?
A) Leukemia
B) Lymphoma
C) Sarcoma
D) Basal cell carcinoma
B) Lymphoma
Slide 7
Which of the following are related to environmental exposure as risk factors for cancer?
Select 3
A) Radiation
B) Sunlight
C) Immunosuppression
D) Tobacco
E) Genetics
A) Radiation
B) Sunlight
D) Tobacco
Slide 8
Which factors are known to contribute to cancer risk through genetic and environmental pathways?
Select 3
A) Genetics
B) Gender
C) Diet
D) Immunosuppression
E) Lack of physical activity
A) Genetics
C) Diet
D) Immunosuppression
Obesity
Slide 8
Which of the following are general risk factors for cancer?
Select 3
A) Age
B) Alcohol
C) Cachexia
D) Cold weather
E) Hormones
A) Age
B) Alcohol
E) Hormones
M - both endogenous hormones and hormone replacement therapy have been linked to cancers
Slide 8
Why can some cancer screenings like colonoscopies cause problems?
Select 2
A) Burns
B) Airway complications
C) Perforation
D) Constipation
B) Airway complications
C) Perforation
M - There is potential for perforation, although that’s super rare.There’s also potential for airway complications and obstruction, if they lose their airway reflexes and they turned out have some some contents in their stomach, there’s potential for aspiration. So a colonoscopy isn’t completely benign, but usually the benefits outweigh the risk there.
Slide 9
Which of the following statements describe potential issues with cancer screenings? Select 2
A) Screenings have rare complications
B) Screenings are always accurate without false results
C) Screenings can produce false-positive results
D) Screenings are only useful for late-stage cancers
E) Screenings can produce false-negative results
C) Screenings can produce false-positive results
E) Screenings can produce false-negative results
Slide 9
Cancer screenings are considered effective when they show:
Select 3
A) More early-stage cancers found
B) Less late-stage cancers found
C) More false positives
D) Fewer deaths from cancer
E) Screenings only detecting late-stage cancers
A) More early-stage cancers found
B) Less late-stage cancers found
D) Fewer deaths from cancer
Slide 9
What does absolute risk measure?
A) The number of people who avoid cancer in a population
B) How many people get a specific condition in a certain period of time
C) The relative likelihood of developing cancer based on lifestyle
D) The percentage of people in an exposed group who get cancer
B) How many people get a specific condition in a certain period of time
- How many people get “x” in a certain period.
Ex. If 4 people out of a group of 100,000 get “x” then risk is 4 in 100,000
Slide 10
Relative risk compares the percentage of people in the ________ group who develop a disease to the unexposed group.
A) Exposed
B) Elderly
C) Control
D) Average
A) Exposed
M - for example, if the exposure was cigarette smoking and the disease is cancer -> then you would say the number of cigarette smokers with cancer divided by the number of people that don’t smoke with cancer
Slide 10
A relative risk greater than 1 means a trait is linked to ________ disease risk.
A) Decreased
B) Increased
C) No change in
D) No relationship to
B) Increased
M - if RR>1 then there’s a positive correlation with the exposure and the disease.
Slide 10
What does a relative risk (RR) of less than 1 suggest?
A) The trait is not linked to the disease
B) The trait is linked to an increased likelihood of disease
C) The trait is linked to a decreased likelihood of disease
D) The trait has no relationship to disease
C) The trait is linked to a decreased likelihood of disease
M - RR < 1, then there is a negative correlation. If less smokers have cancer than non-smokers
Slide 10
What does a relative risk (RR) of 1 indicate?
A) The trait is linked to an increased risk of disease
B) The trait is linked to a decreased risk of disease
C) The trait has no association with the risk of disease
D) The trait causes the disease in all cases
C) The trait has no association with the risk of disease
M - RR=1, there are an equal amount of smokers with cancer as non-smokers with cancer, then there would be no link between smoking and cancer, then there is a negative correlation.
Sldie 10
Which of the following statements are true about standard cancer screenings that insurance covers based on the research? Select 3
A) Colonoscopies can detect pre-cancerous polyps early.
B) Pap smears are used to detect breast cancer.
C) Mammograms are recommended annually for women over 40.
D) Pap smears are shown to reduce cervical cancers
E) Colonoscopies are generally non-invasive and can be performed at any age.
A) Colonoscopies can detect pre-cancerous polyps early.
C) Mammograms are recommended annually for women over 40.
D) Pap smears are shown to reduce cervical cancers
Slide 11
Tumor staging refers to (2):
A) How fast the tumor is growing
B) If the tumor has metastasized
C) The tumor’s ability to resist treatment
D) The tumor’s recurrence rate
E) How large the tumor is
B) If the tumor has metastasized
E) How large the tumor is
Slide 12
True or False
As cancer progresses it changes in diagnosis and staging.
FALSE
M - patients don’t get restaged as cancer changes and progresses or is treated. You just get one staging and it’s done
slide 12
Matching
Match the tumor staging and its definition
T: size/extent of primary tumor
N: # of nearby lymph nodes which are +
M: is there metastasis
slide 12
Which of the following are correct regarding the Primary tumor or “T” in the TNM staging system? Select 3
A) TX means the tumor cannot be measured.
B) T0 means the tumor cannot be found.
C) T1-T4 refers to the size and/or extent of the tumor.
D) T1 indicates metastasis.
E) T0 indicates the tumor is very small.
A) TX means the tumor cannot be measured.
B) T0 means the tumor cannot be found.
C) T1, T2, T3, T4 refer to the size and/or extent of the tumor. The larger the tumor or the more it has grown into nearby tissues and invasive.
slide 13
Which of the following statements are correct about the Regional Lymph Nodes “N” in the TNM staging system? Select 3
A) NX means the lymph nodes cannot be measured.
B) N0 means no cancer in nearby lymph nodes.
C) N3 indicates that there are no lymph nodes involved.
D) N1-N3 means the cancer has spread to distant organs.
E) N1-N3 refer to the number and location of lymph nodes with cancer.
A) NX means the lymph nodes cannot be measured.
B) N0 means no cancer in nearby lymph nodes.
E) N1-N3 refer to the number and location of lymph nodes with cancer. The higher the number after the N, the more lymph nodes that contain cancer.
Slide 13
Which of the following are true about the distant metastasis “M” in the TNM staging system? Select 3
A) MX means metastasis cannot be measured.
B) M0 indicates that the cancer has not spread to other parts of the body.
C) M1 indicates cancer has spread to the lungs only.
D) M0 means the cancer has spread to distant organs.
E) M1 means the cancer has spread to other parts of the body.
A) MX means metastasis cannot be measured.
B) M0 indicates that the cancer has not spread to other parts of the body.
E) M1 means the cancer has spread to other parts of the body.
Slide 13
Matching
Match the staging name with its definition
In situ = C
Localized = D
Regional = A
Distant = E
Unknown = B
These are all staged based on the degree of spread.
Slide 14
Which of the following conditions are linked to a median survival of 6 months or less in cancer patients? Select 3
A) Patient spends > ½ day in bed
B) Serum calcium < 10 mg/dL
C) DVT or PE
D) Spleen, muscle, or thyroid metastases
E) Malignant pericardial effusion
A) Patient spends > ½ day in bed
C) DVT or PE
E) Malignant pericardial effusion
Slide 15
In cancer patients with a median survival of 6 months or less, serum albumin is typically ________.
A) > 3.5 mg/dL
B) < 3.5 mg/dL
C) between 3.5 - 4.5 mg/dL
D) higher than 5 mg/dL
B) < 3.5 mg/dL
Slide 15
For cancer patients with poor prognosis, serum calcium levels are often above ________.
A) 9.0 mg/dL
B) 10.5 mg/dL
C) 11.2 mg/dL
D) 12.0 mg/dL
C) 11.2 mg/dL
M- we know there’s some bone involvement,breakdown, maybe some kidney involvement as well
Slide 15
Which of the following indicate a poor cancer prognosis? Select 3
A) 2 or more brain metastases
B) Patients spends 10 hrs in bed
C) 2 or less brain metastases
D) Spinal cord compression
E) Weight loss > 10% in 6 months
A) 2 or more brain metastases
D) Spinal cord compression with limited mobility
E) Weight loss > 10% in 6 months
Slide15
Which of the following conditions are linked to a median survival of 6 months or less in cancer patients? Select 2
A) Patient spends < ½ day in bed
B) Recurrence of disease after chemotherapy
C) Spinal cord decompression
D) Hepatic, bone, or adrenal metastases
E) Non-Malignant pericardial effusion
B) Recurrence of disease after chemotherapy
D) Hepatic, bone, or adrenal metastases
Slide 15
Which types of cancer frequently metastasize to the bone?
A) Breast, lung, kidney, and prostate
B) Colon, liver, and pancreas
C) Skin, liver, and brain
D) Stomach, esophagus, and thyroid
A) Breast, lung, kidney, and prostate
Slide 16
One potential intervention for managing bone metastasis pain is ________.
A) Radiation therapy only
B) NSAIDs and/or opioids
C) Surgery only
D) Physical therapy
B) NSAIDs and/or opioids
M - NSAIDs and opioids can be utilized for pain. There is the risk of addiction with opioids, but if it’s a late stage cancer, then we the concern about addiction kind of goes out the window.
Slide 16
Cancer metastasis to the bone can present as _______ lesions.
A) Osteoblastic and osteoclastic
B) Osteclastic and osteolytic
C) Osteolytic and osteoblastic
D) None of the above
C) Both osteolytic and osteoblastic
M - these metastasis tend to radiate to the bone, and it becomes very painful. We can see these osteolytic and osteoblastic lesions as the bone starts to break down and attempts to rebuild itself. We start to see these lesions on X-ray when the cancer has metastasized to the bones.
Slide 16
Which of the following treatments may be used for bone metastasis from cancers like breast or prostate? Select 3
A) Radiotherapy
B) Hormonal therapy
C) Vestibuloplasty
D) Chemotherapy
E) Physical therapy
A) Radiotherapy
B) Hormonal therapy
D) Chemotherapy
Slide 16
A potential treatment for spinal fractures caused by bone metastasis is ________.
A) Radiotherapy
B) Vertebroplasty
C) Chemotherapy
D) Hormonal therapy
B) Vertebroplasty
M - mets to the spine, causes the bones to weaken and ultimately start to compress on those spinal nerves. Vertebroplasty is when they inject cement and it builds up collapsed vertrebra and open up the spaces and relieve the nerve pain on those spinal nerves. This can be a good kind of palliative treatment.
Slide 16
What is the primary cause of cancer pain?
A) Damage from chemotherapy
B) Tumor invading tissues innervated by afferent neurons
C) Treatment with radiation therapy
D) Emotional stress from diagnosis
B) Tumor invading tissues innervated by afferent neurons
Slide 17
Which of the following are common causes of higher cancer pain?
(Select 3)
A) Invasion of tumor into the pleura
B) Direct invasion of the nerve plexus
C) Emotional stress
D) Side effects from medication
E) Invasion of tumor into the peritoneum
A) Invasion of tumor into the pleura
B) Direct invasion of the nerve plexus
E) Invasion of tumor into the peritoneum
Slide 17
True or False
Most cancer pain is due to the cancer itself and not the treatment.
True
Slide 17
According to the WHO cancer pain stepladder, pain medications should be administered:
Select 2
A) When requested by the patient
B) Promptly and on a regular schedule
C) After a delay to assess the severity of the pain
D) As the patient’s pain decreases
A) When requested by the patient
B) Promptly and on a regular schedule
M - ..when a patient says that they’re hurting, they’re immediately given something for pain. There’s no wait for a schedule. It’s prompt administration of pain medicine.
The second one is that they also have a pain schedule that’s not PRN but a prophylactic. You know, every three hour or every four hour around the clock pain medicine that they’re receiving.
Slide 18
_________ are added as necessary in cancer pain management.
A) Anxiolytics
B) PPI
C) Antibiotics
D) Anticoagulants
A) Anxiolytics
Slide 18
What is the effectiveness of the WHO cancer pain stepladder when all three interventions are applied?
A) 50-60%
B) 70-80%
C) 80-90%
D) 90-100%
C) 80-90%
M - What they found is that when these patients receive all three of these interventions, (Prompt administration
On schedule; not prn and antianxiety drugs), they we see about an 80 to 90% effectiveness in relieving pain and anxiety associated with cancer.
Slide 18
Nerve blocks for cancer pain are primarily used when:
Select 2
A) The patient does not want to take medications
B) Pharmacologic treatments fails
C) Persistant pain or excessive side effects
D) The patient is allergic to opioids
B) Pharmacologic treatments fails
C) Persistant pain or excessive side effects
slide 19
Nerve blocks are mostly used for patients with __________ life expectancy in cancer pain management.
A) Long
B) Short
C) Indefinite
D) Intermediate
B) Short
Slide 19
While nerve blocks can decrease opioid usage, the pain relief provided is usually __________.
A) Permanent
B) Effective
C) Complete
D) Incomplete
D) Incomplete
Slide 19
Which cancers are commonly treated with a celiac plexus block? select 3
A. Hepatic
B. Gastric
C. Lung
D. Pancreatic
E. Rectal
A. Hepatic
B. Gastric
D. Pancreatic
Slide 20
The celiac plexus block involves neurolysis of the sympathetic fibers of ________ and parasympathetic celiac plexus fibers.
A. T1-T4
B. T5-T12
C. L1-L5
D. T8-L2
B. T5-T12
Slide 20
In celiac plexus neurolysis, __________ is injected to deaden the nerves and block pain transmission signals.
A. Lidocaine
B. Morphine
C. Alcohol
D. Epinephrine
C. Alcohol
Slide 20
Pain relief from a celiac plexus block lasts for how long?
A. 1-2 months
B. 3-6 months
C. 6-12 months
D. Over a year
B. 3-6 months
Slide 20
Which of the following are side effects of a celiac plexus block? select 2
A. Diarrhea
B. Hypertension
C. Hypotension
D. Bradycardia
A. Diarrhea
C. Hypotension
Slide 20
Which nerve block is most often used for rib metastasis?
A. Celiac plexus
B. Intercostal nerves
C. Lumbar sympathetic ganglion
D. Hypogastric plexus
B. Intercostal nerves
Slide 20
The lumbar sympathetic ganglion block can help alleviate pain associated with which of the following conditions?
A. Pelvic tumors
B. Rib metastasis
C. Gastric cancer
D. Pancreatic cancer
A. Pelvic tumors
M - very helpful in pelvic tumors related to things like ovarian cancers and uterine cancers and things like that.
Slide 20
Which of the following are benefits of continuous catheter techniques? (Select 2)
A. Decrease in systemic side effects
B. Lack of homogenous drug distribution
C. Ubiquitous technique and equipment
D. Granulomas
A. Decrease in systemic side effects
C. Ubiquitous technique and equipment
Slide 21
Which of the following is NOT a drawback of continuous catheter techniques?
A. Granulomas formation
B. Limited duration of therapy
C. Migration of the catheter
D. Unlimited therapy duration
E. Infection rates
F. Lack of homogenous drug distribution
D. Unlimited therapy duration
Slide 21
Chemotherapy is used to target cells in different phases of:
A. The immune system
B. The respiratory cycle
C. The cell cycle
D. The digestive system
C. The cell cycle
slide 23
Chemotherapy can be used to prepare patients for:
A) Bone marrow transplant
B) Surgery
C) Radiation therapy
D) Immunotherapy
A) Bone marrow transplant
Slide 23
Chemotherapy is commonly used to:
Select 2
A) Kill cancer cells
B) Promote cell growth
C) Shrink tumors
D) Regenerate healthy tissue
A) Kill cancer cells
C) Shrink tumors,
Slide 23
Chemotherapy is sometimes used to control ________ immune diseases, such as lupus and rheumatoid arthritis.
A) underactive
B) overactive
C) suppressed
D) genetic
B) overactive
M - certain autoimmune diseases where the immune system is haywire, like lupus, rheumatoid arthritis, multiple sclerosis..
Slide 23
Alkylating agents damage cell DNA, making cells _______ to reproduce.
A) able
B) unable
C) slow
D) programmed
B) unable
Slide 24
Which of the following are true about alkylating agents?
Select 3
A) Work in all phases of cell cycle
B) They only work in the S phase of the cell cycle.
C) They treat various types of cancer.
D) They increase the risk of leukemia after treatment.
E) Treat only small amounts of specific cancer
A) Work in all phases of cell cycle
C) They treat various types of cancer.
D) They increase the risk of leukemia after treatment.
Slide 24
Alkylating agents can lead to dose dependent leukemia _________ years after treatment.
A) 1-5
B) 1-7
C) 5-10
D) 5-12
C) 5-10
Slide 24
Nitrosoureas are alkylating agents that can cross the _______.
A) blood-brain barrier
B) immune system
C) digestive tract
D) lungs
A) blood-brain barrier
Good for brain tumors
Slide 24
An example of an alkylating agent that can cross the blood-brain barrier is:
A) Methotrexate
B) Cisplatin
C) Vincristine
D) Paclitaxel
B) Cisplatin
M - cisplatin has the s/e of peripheral neuropathy and acute renal failure when it’s given along with NSAIDs
slide 24
Antimetabolites interfere with ________ and DNA by acting as substitutes for normal building blocks.
A) Proteins
B) RNA
C) Lipids
D) Enzymes
B) RNA
Slide 25
Antimetabolites are used to treat:
Select 4
A) Breast cancer
B) Fallopian cancer
C) Leukemia
D) Intestinal cancer
E) Liver cancer
F) Ovarian cancer
A) Breast cancer
C) Leukemia
D) Intestinal cancer
F) Ovarian cancer
M - they are effective on both solid tumors and blood tumors.
Slide 25
Which of the following are examples of antimetabolites?
Select 2
A) Methotrexate
B) Bleomycin
C) Cisplatin
D) 5-FU
A) Methotrexate
D) 5-FU
Slide 25
Examples of anti-tumor antibiotics include: select 3
A) Doxorubicin
B) Bleomycin
C) Mitomycin-C
D) Methotrexate
A) Doxorubicin - adriamycin
B) Bleomycin
C) Mitomycin-C
“rubicins”
Slide 26
Anti-tumor antibiotics have a lifetime dose limit because of their potential to damage which organ?
A) Liver
B) Kidneys
C) Heart
D) Lungs
C) Heart
This happens in large doses
Slide 26
Which chemotherapy agents have the potential to cause pulmonary toxicity?
A) Bleomycin
B) Methotrexate
C) Doxorubicin
D) 5-FU
A) Bleomycin
M - Instances of pulmonary oxygen toxicity whenever patients are on bleomycin and they receive high levels of oxygen
Slide 26
Topoisomerase inhibitors are a type of _______ alkaloid that prevent DNA strands from separating to copy.
A) Plant
B) Bacterial
C) Fungal
D) Synthetic
A) Plant
Slide 27
Topoisomerase inhibitors can be used to treat all of these except:
A) Ovarian cancer
B) Leukemias
C) Colorectal cancer
D) Brain cancer
E) Pancreatic cancer
F) GI cancer
G) Lung cancer
D) Brain cancer
Slide 27
Topoisomerase inhibitors increase the risk of:
A) Developing a second cancer
B) Increased heart rate
C) Developing resistance to chemotherapy
D) Renal toxicity
A) Developing a second cancer
Slide27
Mitotic inhibitors are plant alkaloids that damage cells in all phases by:
A) Preventing DNA from being copied
B) Blocking RNA replication
C) Preventing protein synthesis
D) Stimulating immune response
C) Preventing protein synthesis
Slide 28
A potential side effect of mitotic inhibitors is ______ neuropathy.
A) Central
B) Peripheral
C) Visceral
D) Autonomic
B) Peripheral
M - peripheral neuropathy is a pretty mild side effect to have. If a patient can beat cancer and have peripheral neuropathy, I would call that a win.
Slide 28
Which of the following is true about targeted therapy?
A) It affects both cancer cells and normal cells equally.
B) It uses specific proteins or receptors on cancer cells.
C) It suppresses the immune system by targeting specific protiens
D) It targets normal cells to attack cancer cells
B) It uses specific proteins or receptors on cancer cells.
Normal cells are NOT affected
Slide 29
Hormone therapy is used to:
Select 2
A) Prevent the body from making hormones
B) Speed up cancer cell growth
C) Slow down hormonal tumors
D) Enhance immune response
A) Prevent the body from making hormones
C) Slow down hormonal tumors
slide 29
Hormone therapy is commonly used to slow the growth of which types of tumors?
A) Brain, breast and uterine
B) Breast, stomach and liver
C) Breast, prostate, and uterine
D) Prostate, kidney and pancreas
C) Breast, prostate, and uterine
Slide 29
Immunotherapy helps (2):
A) Better recognize cancer cells
B) Suppress the immune system
C) Boost the immune system
D) Prevent protein synthesis
A) Better recognize cancer cells
C) Boost the immune system
Slide 29
Chemotherapy is most likely to damage cells that form blood in the ______.
A) Liver
B) Kidneys
C) Bone marrow
D) Brain
C) Bone marrow
M - We see neutropenia, a drop in red blood cell production and white blood cell production. These patients are often on neutropenic precautions and need to be pretty isolated because they are going to be immunocompromised
Slide 30
One of the common side effects of chemotherapy is hair loss, as it damages ______.
A) Skin cells
B) Hair follicles
C) Bone cells
D) Blood vessels
B) Hair follicles
Slide 30
Cells in which of the following areas are most susceptible to damage from chemotherapy?
Select 3
A) Mouth
B) Liver
C) Digestive tract
D) Reproductive system
E) Spleen
A) Mouth
C) Digestive tract
D) Reproductive system
M - these patients experience ulcers in the mouth or the GI tract. This can affect their appetite and their nutrition and they are placed on appetite stimulants to increase their intake to help reduce nutritional deficits while they’re trying to get over this cancer.
Slide 30
According to the 2011 American Society of Clinical Oncology Practice Guidelines, one possible addition to treat chemotherapy-induced N/V is a ______ antagonist, which may inhibit hormonal contraceptives for up to 28 days.
A) 5HT3
B) NK1 (neurokinin-1)
C) Dopamine
D) Histamine
B) NK1 (neurokinin-1)
Aprepitant (neurokinin 1 antagonist)
“Third in line drug to give”
slide 31
What class of drugs is recommended for treating N/V in chemotherapy according to the 2011 guidelines?
A) Dopamine antagonists and anxiolytics
B) 5HT3 antagonists and dexamethasone
C) NSAIDs and anxiolytics
D) 5HT3 and anticholinergics
B) 5HT3 antagonists and dexamethasone
slide 31
Which of the following is more effective than phenothiazines (prochlorperazine or chlorpromazine) for N/V related to chemotherapy?
A) Antihistamines
B) Marijuana
C) 5HT3 antagonists
D) Proton pump inhibitors
B) Marijuana
slide 31
Marijuana has which of the following effects related to chemotherapy-induced N/V?
select 2
A) Depresses CNS vomiting center
B) Is less effective than phenothiazines
C) Decreases anesthetic requirements
D) Increases risk of constipation
A) Depresses CNS vomiting center
C) Decreases anesthetic requirements by 15-30%
Slide 31
Patients who have had radiation to their neck will need to have their __________ assessed for possible complications during surgery.
A. Heart
B. Airway
C. Circulation
D. Pancreas
B. Airway
M - if they had radiation to their neck, then we’ll need to assess their airway and their range of motion. They have severely limited range of motion d/t their tissues getting stiff and rigid, so they they’re going to be more prone to be difficult Airways.
Slide 33
A patient may need to pause chemotherapy treatment due to excessive __________.
Select 2
A. Immunocompromise
B. Hair loss
C. Hypotension
D. Headaches
A. Immunocompromise
C. Hypotension
M - did they experience during chemo and did they have to pause or stop their treatment for any specific reason due to excessive side effects like significant hypotension, significant immunocompromised to where they’re they’re more sensitive to just day-to-day viruses, and so if they’re if they’re too immunocompromised
Slide 33
Radiation treatment can cause a ___ increase in embolic events in the peripheral vascular system.
A. 2x
B. 4x
C. 6x
D. 8x
C. 6x
Evidence of DVTs?
Slide 34
Which of the following is a condition that may arise after radiation therapy for head/neck cancers?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Diabetes
B. Hypothyroidism
Get thyroid function tests
Slide 34
During radiation therapy assessments for carotid artery disease, clinicians should ______ for bruits.
A. Palpate
B. Auscultate
C. Inspect
D. Percuss
B. Auscultate
Carotid doppler studies
Slide 34
True or False
Cancer patients are more prone to airway management issues because of their stiff tissues due to radiation.
True
Slide 34
What are the potential effects of radiation on the chest wall and/or left breast? (Select 4 that apply)
A) Pericarditis
B) Cardiomyopathy
C) Valvular abnormalities
D) Dysrhythmias
E) Pulmonary embolism
F) Aortic dissection
A) Pericarditis
B) Cardiomyopathy
C) Valvular abnormalities
D) Dysrhythmias
EKG and the stress test and/or echo as needed
Slide 35
Which of the following is a potential complication of radiation therapy to the lungs, breast, or mediastinum?
A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Pleural effusion
C) Radiation pneumonitis
D) Tuberculosis
C) Radiation pneumonitis
Slide 35
Which of the following tests may be used to evaluate a patient for radiation pneumonitis? (Select 3 that apply)
A) Oxygen saturation (O2 sats)
B) Chest X-ray (CXR)
C) Pulmonary Function Tests (PFTs)
D) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
E) Blood cultures
A) Oxygen saturation (O2 sats)
B) Chest X-ray (CXR)
C) Pulmonary Function Tests (PFTs) if needed
Slide 35
True or False
You’ll need to keep FiO₂ at a higher level when a patient is taking Bleomycin.
FALSE
You’ll need to keep FiO₂ at a LOWER level when a patient is taking Bleomycin.
Slide 36
Which chemotherapeutic agent is associated with the development of cardiomyopathy?
A) Methotrexate
B) Paclitaxel
C) Adriamycin
D) Cisplatin
C) Adriamycin
(Doxorubicin)
Morde: So we talked about Adriamycin, which is Doxorubicin. We want your patients to have a cardiac work up
Memory Trick: Adria Cardia
Slide 36
Which chemotherapeutic agent is known to cause pulmonary toxicity?
A) Doxorubicin
B) Cisplatin
C) Methotrexate
D) Bleomycin
D) Bleomycin
Morde: We talked about Bleomycin.
They’re more at risk for pulmonary toxicity related to high oxygen levels.
So this oxygen toxicity causes pulmonary damage in their in these patients.
Memory Trick: Bleo Pulmo
Slide 36
Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents are known to cause peripheral neuropathy? (Select 2 that apply)
A) Cisplatin
B) Doxorubicin
C) Vincristine
D) Methotrexate
E) Bleomycin
A) Cisplatin
C) Vincristine (mitotic inhibitor)
Slide 36
What preoperative abnormalities might be seen in a cancer patient? (Select 4 that apply)
A) Anemia
B) Neutropenia
C) Thrombocytopenia
D) Hypercalcemia
E) Hypokalemia
A) Anemia (↓ RBCs)
B) Neutropenia (↓ WBCs)
C) Thrombocytopenia (↓ PLTs)
Morde: Remember ‘cause, this chemotherapy isn’t usually very precise on which cells it’s attacking. So our good immune cells get attacked too.
D) Hypercalcemia (↑ Ca⁺⁺)
Morde: due to either bone bone breakdown or kidney impairment or both
Slide 37
Why is hypercalcemia common in cancer patients?
A) Increased calcium absorption from the intestines
B) Decreased osteoclast activity
C) Many drugs are toxic to the bone marrow, liver, and kidneys, contributing to calcium imbalances
D) Reduced renal excretion of calcium due to liver toxicity
C) Many drugs are toxic to the bone marrow, liver, and kidneys, contributing to calcium imbalances
Slide 37
Why is adrenal insufficiency commonly seen in cancer patients?
A) Chemotherapy-induced renal toxicity
B) Use of steroid treatments
C) Radiation therapy to the brain
D) Bone marrow suppression
B) Use of steroid treatments
Slide 37
Which test is commonly used to diagnose adrenal insufficiency?
A) Thyroid function test
B) ACTH stimulation test
C) D-dimer test
D) Serum calcium test
B) ACTH stimulation test
Slide 37
Why is tumor resection a risk factor for tumor recurrence? (Select 3 that apply)
A) Tumor cells can spread into the bloodstream
B) Residue remains behind
C) Localized spread via lymphatics
D) Tumor cells are completely eliminated during resection
A) Tumor cells can spread into the bloodstream
B) Residue remains behind
C) Localized spread via lymphatics
Slide 38
Which of the following is NOT a factor contributing to relative immunosuppression that can occur due to surgery?
A) Inflammatory response
B) Surgical stress
C) Effects of anesthesia
D) Complete immune activation during surgery
E) Administration of opioids
D) Complete immune activation during surgery
Slide 38
Which of the following are effects of inflammation from tissue trauma and physiological stress in relation to cancer? (Select 3 that apply)
A) Activation of overexpression of COX-2 genes
B) Suppression of prostaglandin and thromboxane production
C) Catalysis of prostaglandins and thromboxane from arachidonic acid
D) Elevated COX-2 levels promote cell survival and cancer growth
E) Stimulation of NK cells to destroy cancer cells
A) Activation of overexpression of COX-2 genes
C) Catalysis of prostaglandins and thromboxane from arachidonic acid
D) Elevated COX-2 levels promote cell survival and cancer growth
May suppress NK cells
Slide 39
How long can inflammation and stress last after surgery?
A) Hours
B) Days
C) Weeks
D) Months
C) Weeks
Morde: It doesn’t go away as soon as the surgery is over, but it’s going to continue to ride out for for several weeks.
Slide 39
β adrenergic receptors signaled by the fight or flight response at the __ of tumor growth and metastasis will __ cancer cell activity via nerve fiber delivery of __.
A) Center, downregulate, dopamine
B) Margins, inhibit, serotonin
C) Sites, upregulate, norepinephrine
D) Blood vessels, decrease, acetylcholine
C) Sites, upregulate, norepinephrine
norepinephrine
β adrenergic receptors signaled by the fight or flight response at the sites of tumor growth and metastasis will upregulate cancer cell activity via nerve fiber delivery of norepinephrine.
(summary)
Slide 39
Which of the following are effects of opioids related to cancer progression? Select 3
A) Inhibit leukocyte migration
B) Directly stimulate proliferation and invasion of cancer cells
C) Promote apoptosis through NK cell activity
D) Inhibit apoptosis by inhibiting NK cell activity
A) Inhibit leukocyte migration
B) Directly stimulate proliferation and invasion of cancer cells
D) Inhibit apoptosis by inhibiting NK cell activity
Slide 40
Which of the following are potential effects of volatile anesthetics related to cancer progression? Select 3
A) Increase migration and invasion by affecting platelets
B) Induce chemo resistance
C) Enhance NK cell activity
D) Inhibit NK cells
A) Increase migration and invasion by affecting platelets
B) Induce chemo resistance
D) Inhibit NK cells
Slide 40
What effects does propofol have on cancer cells?
A) Increases cell migration and inhibits apoptosis
B) Decreases cell migration and promotes apoptosis
C) Inhibits apoptosis and enhances invasion
D) Stimulates NK cell inhibition
B) Decreases cell migration
Down regulates signaling pathways
and
promotes apoptosis
Promotes cytotoxicity of NK cells
Slide 40
Long-term administration of NSAIDs _______ proliferation of cancer cells.
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Has no effect on
D) Enhances
B) Decreases
Slide 40
According to the study by Weng M. et al., what effect does neuraxial anesthesia have on colorectal cancer outcomes after surgery?
A) Increases cancer recurrence and decreases survival
B) Reduces cancer recurrence and improves survival
C) Has no impact on cancer recurrence or survival
D) Increases cancer recurrence but improves survival
B) Reduces cancer recurrence and improves survival
Slide 41
According to the study by Sessler DI et al. on breast cancer recurrence, what was the recurrence rate in patients who received regional anesthesia/sedation with paravertebral block and propofol compared to those who received general anesthesia with sevoflurane and opioids?
A) 20% recurrence in the regional anesthesia group and 10% in the general anesthesia group
B) 15% recurrence in both groups
C) 10% recurrence in both groups
D) 5% recurrence in the regional anesthesia group and 15% in the general anesthesia group
C) 10% recurrence in both groups
Slide 42
According to Sessler DI and Riedel BR in their study on anesthesia and cancer recurrence, the degree of biological upset is most dependent on which factor?
A) Type of anesthesia used
B) Duration of surgery
C) Degree of surgical insult
D) Patient’s age and comorbidities
C) Degree of surgical insult
Anesthetic management potentially influences long-term outcome:
* Regional anesthesia
* B-antagonists, NSAID, lidocaine
* Propofol vs volatile
Slide 43
__ is the leading cause of cancer deaths in both genders.
A) Breast cancer
B) Lung cancer
C) Prostate cancer
D) Colorectal cancer
B) Lung cancer
Due to peak in smoking 1940-1970
Slide 45
What is the primary cause of lung cancer, accounting for approximately 90% of cases?
A) Radon gas
B) Asbestos
C) Tobacco smoke
D) Air pollution
C) Tobacco smoke
3 decade lag time in cancer occurrence
Slide 45
Which of the following substances, other than tobacco, are known to cause lung cancer? select 2
A) Asbestos
B) Radon gas
C) Lead
D) Carbon monoxide
A) Asbestos
B) Radon gas
Slide 45
Which of the following are types of lung cancer? (Select all that apply)
A) Small cell lung cancer
B) Non-small cell lung cancer
C) Carcinoid tumor
D) Mesothelioma
A) Small cell lung cancer
B) Non-small cell lung cancer
C) Carcinoid tumor
D) Mesothelioma
Slide 46
Which of the following are subtypes of non-small-cell lung cancer (NSCLC)? (Select 3 that apply)
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Large cell carcinoma
D) Mesothelioma
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Large cell carcinoma
Slide 46
True or False
Non-small cell lung cancer makes up 75-80% of all lung cancer cases.
True
Slide 46
Which of the following are true about small cell lung cancer (SCLC)? (Select 2 that apply)
A) It is neuroendocrine in origin
B) It is considered metastatic on presentation
C) It is typically localized on presentation
D) It is mesothelial in origin
E) It is slow-growing
A) It is neuroendocrine in origin
B) It is considered metastatic on presentation
Staging is only ”limited” or “extensive”
Slide 47
True or False
Small cell lung cancer is always curable and never recurs after initial treatment.
FALSE
Small cell lung cancer always recurs and is resistant to further treatment
Morde: So there’s generally a pretty poor prognosis and low survival rate with small cell lung cancers.
Slide 47
What are the 2 common treatment options for small cell lung cancer (SCLC)?
A) Surgery
B) Chemotherapy
C) Radiation of the tumor and cranium (prophylactically)
D) Immunotherapy
B) Chemotherapy
C) Radiation of the tumor and cranium (prophylactically)
Slide 47
Which of the following are potential major side effects of small cell lung cancer (SCLC)? (Select 3 that apply)
A) Hyponatremia (↓ Na⁺)
B) Hypercortisolism
C) Lambert-Eaton Syndrome
D) Hypercalcemia
A) Hyponatremia (↓ Na⁺)
SIADH
B) Hypercortisolism
C) Lambert-Eaton Syndrome
Slide 48
What is the medical term for hypercortisolism?
A) Addison’s Disease
B) Graves’ Disease
C) Cushing’s Disease
D) Hashimoto’s Disease
C) Cushing’s Disease
Slide 48
Lambert-Eaton syndrome symptoms get __ with exercise throughout the day.
A) Worse
B) Better
C) No change
D) Unpredictable.
B) Better
Slide 48
Myasthenia Gravis symptoms get __ throughout the day, especially with exercise and movement.
A) Stronger
B) Weaker
C) No change
D) Better
B) Weaker
Slide 48
Which of the following is NOT true about Lambert-Eaton Syndrome?
A) It is also called myasthenic syndrome
B) It is characterized by proximal lower limb weakness and fatigability
C) It is identical to myasthenia gravis
D) It is similar to myasthenia gravis but has distinct differences
C) It is identical to myasthenia gravis
Slide 48
Which of the following are true regarding Lambert-Eaton Syndrome? (Select 2 that apply)
A) It does not improve with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
B) It is extremely sensitive to non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents
C) It worsens with exercise throughout the day
D) It improves with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
A) It does not improve with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
B) It is extremely sensitive to non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents
Slide 48
Which Carcinoid tumor type is mostly benign and has a greater than 90% five-year survival rate?
A) Small cell lung cancer
B) Non-small cell lung cancer
C) Neuroendocrine tumors
D) Mesothelioma
C) Neuroendocrine tumors
Slide 49
Carcinoid syndrome is usually caused by tumors of which part of the body?
A) Lungs
B) Brain
C) GI tract
D) Skin
C) GI tract
Slide 49
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Carcinoid Syndrome?
A) Tumor secretion of serotonin, histamine, prostaglandins, and tachykinins
B) Hemodynamic collapse unresponsive to pressors
C) Coronary artery spasm
D) Complete cure with simple surgical resection
D) Complete cure with simple surgical resection
Slide 49
What are the main treatments for Carcinoid Syndrome?
A) Chemotherapy and radiation
B) Octreotide and somatostatin
C) Corticosteroids and beta blockers
D) Antibiotics and immunotherapy
B) Octreotide and somatostatin
These inhibit tumor growth, angiogenesis, and the hormones secreted from the tumor.
Slide 49
Which type of lung cancer is pathologically heterogeneous and has a 5-year survival rate that greatly improves with surgery?
A) Small cell lung cancer
B) Non-small cell lung cancer
C) Mesothelioma
D) Carcinoid tumors
B) Non-small cell lung cancer
- 10% w/o surgery
- 40% w/ surgery
Slide 50
Squamous cell lung cancers grow to a large size but __ late.
A) Metastasize
B) Resolve
C) Shrink
D) Proliferate
A) Metastasize
Slide 51
Which symptoms are related to the mass effect of squamous cell lung cancer? (Select all that apply)
A) Hemoptysis
B) Obstructive pneumonia
C) Superior vena cava syndrome
D) Endobronchial tumor
A) Hemoptysis
B) Obstructive pneumonia
C) Superior vena cava syndrome
D) Endobronchial tumor
Slide 51
What is the most common subtype of non-small cell lung cancers (NSCLC)?
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Large cell carcinoma
C) Adenocarcinoma
D) Small cell lung cancer
C) Adenocarcinomas
Slide 52
Which of the following is NOT commonly affected by adenocarcinoma of the lung?
A) Brain
B) Bone
C) Liver
D) Adrenals
E) Chest wall
F) Diaphragm
G) Stomach
H) Pericardium
G) Stomach
Slide 52
Adenocarcinomas will typically metastasize ___.
A) Earlier
B) Later
C) Very late
D) At the same time as other cancers
E) Never
A) Earlier
Adenocarcinomas will typically metastasize earlier.
Slide 52
Which two hormones are typically secreted by adenocarcinomas?
A) Thyroid hormone and cortisol
B) Growth hormone and ACTH
C) Insulin and glucagon
D) Epinephrine and norepinephrine
B) Growth hormone and ACTH
causing:
* Insulin resistance…to diabetes
* Dyslipidemia
* Moon facies
* Buffalo hump
* Delayed wound healing
* Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
* Osteoporosis
Slide 52
Which of the following are characteristics of large-cell lung cancer? (Select 3 that apply)
A) It is the least common of the non-small cell lung cancers (NSCLC)
B) It metastasizes rapidly
C) It forms large cavitating tumors
D) It is slow-growing and rarely metastasizes
A) It is the least common of the non-small cell lung cancers (NSCLC)
B) It metastasizes rapidly
C) It forms large cavitating tumors
Slide 53
Which of the following should be assessed in patients with lung cancer? (Select 4 that apply)
A) Mass effect
B) Metastases
C) Increased renal function
D) Medication-related complications
E) Decreased risk of blood clots
F) Metabolic abnormalities
A) Mass effect
B) Metastases
D) Medication-related complications
Bleomycin: oxygen-induced pulmonary toxicity;
Cisplatin: ARF with NSAIDS
F) Metabolic abnormalities
Hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, hyperglycemia (Cushings)
Memory Trick: “4 Ms of Lung Cancer”
Slide 54
Which chemotherapeutic agent, when combined with NSAIDs, can induce acute renal failure?
A) Bleomycin
B) Doxorubicin
C) Cisplatin
D) Methotrexate
C) Cisplatin
Slide 54
Which of the following are preoperative considerations for lung surgery? (Select all that apply)
A) Care with sedation
B) Antisialagogues
C) SCIP antibiotics
D) Assess difficulty of lung isolation
E) Assess risk of hypoxemia during one-lung ventilation
A) Care with sedation
Mild with placement of monitoring lines
B) Antisialagogues
May help with fiberoscopy for DLT placement
C) SCIP antibiotics
D) Assess difficulty of lung isolation
CXR/CT
E) Assess risk of hypoxemia during one-lung ventilation
Slide 55
High % of V/Q to operative lung on the preoperative V/Q scan.Which of the following is NOT a factor that can help predict one-lung desaturation?
A) High percentage of ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) to the operative lung on the preoperative V/Q scan
B) Poor PaO₂ during two-lung ventilation
C) Right-sided thoracotomy
D) High PaO₂ during two-lung ventilation
D) High PaO₂ during two-lung ventilation
Factors Predicting 1-lung desaturation:
- High % of V/Q to operative lung on the preoperative V/Q scan.
- Poor PaO₂ during two lung ventilation
Especially in the lateral position - Right sided thoracotomy
Slide 57
True or False
In a V/Q scan, the darker the area, the more perfusion is present in that region.
True
Morde: So resecting areas that are darker is going to result in a more dramatic change in the VQ
Slide 58
What is the formula for predicted post-operative FEV₁ ?
A) (Preop FEV₁ %) x (1 - % of body weight / 100)
B) (Preop FEV₁ %) x (1 - % of lung tissue removed / 100)
C) (Preop FEV₁ %) ÷ (1 - % of lung tissue removed / 100)
D) (Preop FEV₁ %) ÷ (1 - % of total lung capacity)
B) (Preop FEV₁ %) x (1 - % of lung tissue removed / 100)
Slide 59
A patient has had a right upper and right middle lobectomy done. The patients preoperative FEV₁ was 60%. What is the predicted post-operative FEV₁ ?
RUL = 6 segment
RML = 4 segment
6 + 4 = 10 segments
10 / 42 total segments = 23.8 %
ppoFEV₁ = 60 x (1 - 23.8/100)
ppoFEV₁ = 45.72%
Slide 59
Which of the following are commonly used for post-thoracotomy/thoracoscopy analgesia? (Select all that apply)
A) Epidural
B) Paravertebral blocks
C) NSAIDs
D) Opioids
A) Epidural
B) Paravertebral blocks
C) NSAIDs
D) Opioids
Slide 60
According to the American Society of Regional Anesthesia and Pain Medicine guidelines, which of the following factors are included in their protocols regarding epidural management after thrombolytic therapy? (Select 3 that apply)
A) How long you need to wait before placing an epidural after the last dose of thrombolytic therapy
B) How long you need to wait to turn on the epidural
C) How long you need to wait before pulling the catheter out at the end of the case
D) The patient’s platelet count before the procedure
E) How long to wait after administering opioids
A) How long you need to wait before placing an epidural after the last dose of thrombolytic therapy
B) How long you need to wait to turn on the epidural
C) How long you need to wait before pulling the catheter out at the end of the case
Slide 61-62
How many dermatomes are typically covered by a single shot of a paravertebral block?
A) 1-2 dermatomes
B) 2-4 dermatomes
C) 4-6 dermatomes
D) 6-8 dermatomes
C) 4-6 dermatomes
Slide 63
How do paravertebral blocks work?
A) They block spinal nerves as they exit the intervertebral foramen
B) They block the spinal cord directly
C) They block peripheral nerves in the limbs
D) They block the brachial plexus
A) They block spinal nerves as they exit the intervertebral foramen
- more sensitive to LA
Slide 63
Which of the following are indications for paravertebral blocks? (Select all that apply)
A) Fractured ribs
B) Benign/malignant neuralgia
C) Lung contusions
D) Major surgeries
A) Fractured ribs
B) Benign/malignant neuralgia
C) Lung contusions
D) Major surgeries
Slide 63
Which of the following are contraindications for paravertebral blocks? (Select all that apply)
A) Site infection
B) Empyema
C) Paravertebral tumor
D) Kyphoscoliosis
A) Site infection
B) Empyema
C) Paravertebral tumor
D) Kyphoscoliosis
Slide 63
A paravertebral block at which vertebral level is necessary for a sternotomy?
A) T2
B) T4
C) T6
D) T8
B) T4
Slide 64
A paravertebral block at which vertebral level is necessary for a thoracotomy?
A) T4
B) T5
C) T6
D) T8
C) T6
Slide 64
A paravertebral block at which vertebral level is necessary for abdominal procedures?
A) T6
B) T8
C) T10
D) T12
C) T10
Slide 64
What does an intercostal nerve block innervate?
A) Only the abdominal wall
B) Only the chest wall
C) Both the chest and abdominal wall musculature
D) Only the diaphragm
C) Both the chest and abdominal wall musculature
Slide 65
What is required for an effective intercostal nerve block?
A) Blockade of only the dermatome at the level of the incision
B) Blockade of 2 dermatomes above and 2 dermatomes below the incision
C) Blockade of 4 dermatomes above the incision only
D) Blockade of 1 dermatome above and 1 dermatome below the incision
B) Blockade of 2 dermatomes above and 2 dermatomes below the incision
Slide 65
Which of the following are indications for an intercostal nerve block? (Select 3 that apply)
A) Thorax surgery
B) Upper abdomen surgery
C) Mastectomy
D) Lower extremity surgery
A) Thorax surgery
B) Upper abdomen surgery
C) Mastectomy
Slide 65
Which of the following are disadvantages of intercostal nerve blocks? (Select 2 that apply)
A) Pneumothorax
B) Local anesthetic (LA) toxicity with multiple levels of blockade
C) Increased risk of bleeding
D) Limited duration of action
A) Pneumothorax
B) Local anesthetic (LA) toxicity with multiple levels of blockade
Slide 65
When performing an intercostal or paravertebral block, which anatomical landmarks are important to identify?
A) Spinous process
B) Tip of the scapula
C) Angle of the rib
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
Slide 65
