Radiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the risk of developing a fatal radiation-induced malignancy after having had a dental bitewing taken?
a. 1 in 2k
b. 1 in 200k
c. 1 in 2 million
d. 1 in 20 million
e. 1 in 200 million

A

D. 1 in 20 million
The Australian Dental Association estimates this to be the risk of a fatal malignancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following has the greatest impact on reducing the amount of radiation to which a patient will be exposed during the taking of a periapical radiograph?
a. The size of the film
b. The use of a film holder
c. The use of circular collimation
d. The use of rectangular collimation
e. The use of a lead apron

A

D. The use of a rectangular collimator
The use of rectangular collimation has a risk reduction of 61% with regards to a patient developing a fatal malignancy as a result of having had a periapical radiograph.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Under the Ionising Radiation (medical exposure) Regulations (IR(ME)R) 2000, which one of the following best describes the three roles that a qualified dental practitioner is automatically entitled to take on?
a. Medical physics expert, operator, referrer
b. Medical physics expert, practitioner, radiation protection adviser
c. Radiation protection adviser, referrer, practitioner
d. Radiation protection adviser, practitioner, operator
e. Referrer, practitioner, operator

A

E. Referrer, practitioner, operator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If a patient had a ‘bucket handle’ fracture, what would the fracture be?
a. A unilateral condylar fracture
b. A bilateral condylar fracture
c. A unilateral body of mandible fracture
d. A bilateral parasymphysial fracture
e. A fracture of the angle of the mandible and contralateral condylar fracture

A

D. A bilateral parasymphysial fracture
It is known as a bucket handle fracture because the unfavourable muscle pull causes the anterior fragment to be pulled downwards leading to the appearance of a bucket handle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Post-operatively, after a treatment for a bucket-handle fracture, the patient has anaesthesia of a very small circular area of the chin. However, they have full sensation of the lip. Which one of the statements below correctly explains this deficit in sensation?
a. The lingual nerve has cross-over with the IDN leading to an anomaly in sensation
b. The nerve to the stylohyoid has been damaged
c. The marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve has been damaged
d. The mental nerve has been damaged
e. A few aberrant nerve fibres from the nerve to mylohyoid have been stretched during retraction - leading to anaesthesia of the chin

A

E. A few aberrant nerve fibres from the nerve to mylohyoid have been stretched during retraction - leading to anaesthesia of the chin.
If the mental nerve had been damaged, there would be loss of sensation to the lower lip. If the marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve had been damaged, there would be drooping in the corner of the mouth (but no loss of sensation).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When a patient has a fractures zygoma, which nerve is commonly damaged, leading to paraesthesia or anaesthesia?
a. IDN
b. Facial nerve
c. Infraorbital nerve
d. Supraorbital nerve
e. Supratrochlear nerve

A

C. Infraorbital nerve
The infraorbital nerve is commonly damaged, leading to paraesthesia or anaesthesia. Rarely there is permanent damage to the nerve structure, and the vast majority of patients recover.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which eponymous hook is commonly used to reduce a zygomatic fracture?
a. Barnes
b. Gilles
c. Howarth
d. Bowdler-Henry
e. McIndoe

A

B. Gilles
The Gilles Hook is commonly used to reduce a fractured zygoma into its correct anatomical position. Howarth, Bowdler-Henry and McIndoe are also eponymous instruments (named after the person who made it).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which one of the following is not a complication of a fractured zygoma?
a. Diplopia
b. Infraorbital nerve paraesthesia
c. Trismus
d. Subconjunctival haemorrhage
e. Facial nerve palsy

A

E.
Facial nerve palsy us usually produced by wounding with a sharp weapon such as a knife or broken glass. Trismus occurs with fractured zygomas because the masseter is attached to the zygomatic arch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which one of the following things would you not warn the patient about when consenting for extractions of supernumeraries, the mandibular first molar and mandibular third molar?
a. Paraesthesia/anaesthesia of the IDN
b. Paraesthesia/anaesthesia of the lingual nerve
c. Paraesthesia/anaesthesia of the facial nerve
d. Pain, swelling and bruising
e. Antibiotics given may interfere with the contraceptive pill

A

C. Paraesthesia/anaesthesia of the facial nerve
All the other statements are valid complications of the procedure described.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which one of the following radiographic features would not suggest that the patient would be at high risk of damage to their IDN during removal of a mandibular third molar?
a. Loss of tramlines of the ID canal
b. Deviation of the tramlines of the ID canal
c. Widening of the tramlines of the ID canal
d. Narrowing of the tramlines of the ID canal
e. Radiolucent band across the tooth

A

C.
All of the other radiographic features indicate that the patient is at high risk of damage to their ID nerve during extraction of their mandibular 3rd molars.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the radiation exposure when taking an OPG?
a. 0.001mSv
b. 0.01mSv
c. 0.1mSv
d. 1.0mSv
e. 10.0mSv

A

B. 0.01mSv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is the most commonly associated pathology with wisdom teeth?
a. Pericoronitis
b. Mesio-angular impaction
c. Disto-angular impaction
d. Horizontal impaction
e. Cystic change

A

A. Pericoronitis
Pericoronitis is one of the most common presentations of pain with wisdom teeth. It is inflammation of the operculum, which is soft tissue, therefore does not show radiographically. Mesio-angular impaction > Disto-angular impaction > Horizontal impaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which are the most common type of cysts to be found accidentally on an xray?
a. Eruption cyst
b. Odontogenic keratocyst
c. Dentigerous cyst
d. Apical periodontal cyst
e. Lateral periodontal cyst

A

D. Apical periodontal cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Other than DPT, what other X-ray may be appropriate to when assessing cysts in the mandible?
a. PA mandible
b. AP mandible
c. OM 0 degrees
d. Lower occlusal
e. Reverse Towne’s

A

D. Lower occlusal
The lower occlusal enables you to assess the bucco-lingual expansion of the cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which syndrome is associated with odontogenic keratocysts?
a. Gorlin-Goltz
b. Peutz-Jeghers
c. Gardner’s syndrome
d. Apert’s syndrome
e. Horner’s syndrome

A

A. Gorlin-Goltz
Odontogenic keratocysts are associated with with Gorlin-Goltz syndrome. This syndrome consists of fronto-temporal bossing, calcified falx cerebri and multiple basal cell naevi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where are odontogenic keratocysts most commonly found?
a. Maxillary antrum
b. Mandibular third molar region
c. Mandibular anterior region
d. Maxillary anterior region
e. None of the above

A

B. Mandibular third molar region

17
Q

Which of the following statements regarding processing radiographs is true?
a. The developer is an acidic solution
b. The developer needs changing daily
c. Fixation is the process by which silver halide crystals are removed to reveal the white areas on the film
d. The lower the temperature of the developer solution, the faster the film will be developed
e. If the film is not left in the developer long enough, then the radiograph will be too dark

A

C. Fixation is the process by which silver halide crystals are removed to reveal the white areas on the film.
The developer is an alkaline solution, which is oxidised by air, and needs changing only every 10 days or so. If the film is not left in the developer long enough, it will be too light as not enough silver will be deposited on it.

18
Q

In order to limit the dose for a periapical radiograph:
a. Use a low-speed film
b. Use a lead apron
c. Use the optimal voltage (700kV)
d. Use the bisecting angle technique
e. Use a rectangular collimator

A

E. Use a rectangular collimator
The use of a rectangular collimator decreases the dose of radiation by 50%. Lead aprons are not used anymore and are no longer recommended. The optimal voltage is 70kV and a fast-speed film should be used.

19
Q

The correct order of the stages of processing radiographic film is:
a. Developing, washing, fixing, washing, drying
b. Fixation, washing, developing, washing, drying
c. Washing, developing, washing, fixation, drying
d. Washing, fixing, washing, developing, drying
e. Washing, developing, fixation, washing, drying

A

A. Developing, washing, fixing, washing, drying
Remember that the film needs to be washed between developing and fixation, and the fixative needs to be washed off before drying.

20
Q

Which one of the following annual dose limits is the correct ionising radiation regulations (IRR) 1999 limit?
a. General public - 2 mSv
b. Non-classified workers - 2 mSv
c. Non-classified workers - 20 mSv
d. Classified workers - 2 mSv
e. Classified workers - 20 mSv

A

E. Classified workers - 20 mSv
The IRR 1999 annual dose lmits are:
- Classified workers - 20 mSv
- Non-classified workers - 6 mSv
- General public - 1 mSv

21
Q

Which one of the following lesions would not present as a multi-locular radiolucent lesion in the mandible?
a. Ameloblastoma
b. Calcifying Epithelial Odontogenic Tumour (CEOT)
c. Odontogenic keratocyst
d. Odontogenic Myxoma
e. Aneurysmal bone cyst

A

B. CEOT
A CEOT is a radiopaque lesion, owing to its calcifying nature

22
Q

Which one of the following lesions would not present as a radiopaque lesion in the mandible?
a. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour (CEOT)
b. Submandibular salivary calculus
c. Cemento-osseous dysplasia
d. Complex odontoma
e. Odontogenic fibroma

A

E. Odontogenic fibroma
All the other lesions are radiopaque

23
Q

Which one of the following lesions could present as a unilocular radiolucent lesion in the mandible?
a. Dentigerous cyst
b. Ameloblastoma
c. Stafne’s bone cavity
d. Ameloblastic fibroma
e. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

24
Q

What type of filter is used in X-ray machines?
a. Tungsten
b. Tin
c. Copper
d. Molybdenum
e. Aluminium

A

E. Aluminium
Aluminium is the material which is most frequently used as the filter in X-ray machines.

25
Q

Which part of the X-ray machine removes the peripheral X-rays, therefore minimising the dose to the patient?
a. Collimator
b. Filter
c. Imagine intensifier
d. Generator
e. Ion chamber

A

A. Collimator
Collimators help to shape the beam of radiation emerging from the machine, and they can limit the maximum field size of a beam.

26
Q

What is the optimal shape for a collimator?
a. Round
b. Rectangular
c. Square
d. Hexagonal
e. Circular

A

C. Square
A square is the most optimal shape for a collimator.

27
Q

What is the radiation dose to a patient - in milli-Sieverts (mSv) - associated with having an orthopantomogram (OPG)?
a. 0.034
b. 0.34
c. 3.4
d. 34
e. 340

A

A. 0.034
A natural yearly background radiation dosage on average is 1-3 mSv. An OPG provides the same amount of background radiation as transatlantic flights.

28
Q

Which one of the following does NOT support the ALARA principle?
a. Minimising errors
b. Slow-speed film
c. Aluminium filter
d. Timer
e. Collimator

A

B. Slow-speed film
ALARA stands for: As Low As Reasonable Achievable. This term was introduced by the International Commission on Radiological Protection and requires that all be reasonably done to lower radiation exposures below dose limits. Use of fast speed films means that exposure times can be reduced.

29
Q
A