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SBA Dentistry > Child Dental Health and Orthodontics > Flashcards

Child Dental Health and Orthodontics Flashcards

1
Q

How many times a year should a child with high caries risk have fluoride varnish applied?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 6

A

D. 4

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2
Q

If a child has an overjet of 11mm, which category of index of orthodontic treatment need (IOTN) would this demonstrate?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
e. 9

A

C. 5

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3
Q

A 14 year old child attends your practice and requests tooth whitening. What should you do?
a. Agree to the treatment because the child is Gillick competent
b. Refuse to treat the child because she is aged 14 years
c. Discuss the request with the parents alone
d. Discuss the request with the parent and child and obtain permission from both
e. Ask another dentist to witness the child’s request and, if he or she is in agreement, proceed with treatment

A

D. Discuss the request with the parent and child and obtain permission from both.
The child may well be competent to consent to treatment, however, this is an aesthetic treatment, and not one that is medically necessary. In this case, as the child is not an adult, it is appropriate that consent is gained from both parent and child.

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4
Q

Evidence from which one of the following study designs would most support the use of fluoridation in the water supply?
a. Case-control study
b. Cross-sectional study
c. Cohort study
d. Randomised controlled trial
e. Systemic review

A

E. Systemic review

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5
Q

What is the definition of subluxation?

A

The loosening of the tooth within the socket without any displacement

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6
Q

What is the definition of reimplantation?

A

The loss of a tooth from a socket that is then replaced within that socket

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7
Q

What is the definition of concussion?

A

Injury to the supporting tissues of a tooth without displacement

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8
Q

When is root formation completed post eruption for deciduous teeth?
a. 0-6 months post eruption
b. 6-12 months post eruption
c. 12-18 months post eruption
d. 18-24 months post eruption
e. 24-30 months post eruption

A

C. 12-18 months post eruption

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9
Q

What is the permanent teeth eruption pattern for mandibular teeth?
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
b. 6, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8
c. 6, 1, 2, 4, 5, 3, 7, 8
d. 6, 1, 2, 4, 5/3, 7, 8
e. 6, 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8

A

B. 6-1-2-3-4-5-7-8

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10
Q

What is the permanent teeth eruption pattern for maxillary teeth?
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
b. 6, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8
c. 6, 1, 2, 4, 5, 3, 7, 8
d. 6, 1, 2, 4, 5/3, 7, 8
e. 6, 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8

A

D. 6-1-2-4-5/3-7-8

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11
Q

When is crown formation completed prior to eruption?
a. 0-6 months before eruption
b. 6-12 months before eruption
c. 1-2 years before eruption
d. 2-3 years before eruption
e. 3-5 years before eruption

A

E. 3-5 years before eruption

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12
Q

When is root formation completed post eruption for permanent teeth?
a. 0-6 months post eruption
b. 6-12 months post eruption
c. 1-2 years post eruption
d. 2-3 years post eruption
e. 3-5 years post eruption

A

D. 2-3 years post eruption

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13
Q

What BPE scores do you use on kids younger than 7?

A

None

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14
Q

What BPE scores do you use on kids aged 7-11 years old?

A

Codes 0-2 only on 6s and 1s

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15
Q

What BPE scores do you use on children 12-17 years old?

A

All codes (0-4) only on 6s and 1s

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16
Q

What is the order of eruption for deciduous teeth?

A

A-B-D-C-E

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17
Q

What is the definition of of initial occlusal caries of a deciduous tooth according to the SDCEP guidance?
a. Non-cavitated, dentine shadow, radiograph: outer 1/3 of dentine
b. Dentine shadow or cavitation with visible dentine, radiograph: middle or inner 1/3 dentine
c. White spot lesions or shadow, radiograph: lesion confined to enamel
d. Enamel cavitation and dentine shadow or cavity with visible dentine, radiograph: may extend into inner 1/3 of dentine
e. White spot lesions but not dentinal caries

A

A. Non-cavitated, dentine shadow, radiograph: outer 1/3 of dentine

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18
Q

What is the definition of of advanced occlusal caries of a deciduous tooth according to the SDCEP guidance?
a. Non-cavitated, dentine shadow, radiograph: outer 1/3 of dentine
b. Dentine shadow or cavitation with visible dentine, radiograph: middle or inner 1/3 dentine
c. White spot lesions or shadow, radiograph: lesion confined to enamel
d. Enamel cavitation and dentine shadow or cavity with visible dentine, radiograph: may extend into inner 1/3 of dentine
e. White spot lesions but not dentinal caries

A

B. Dentine shadow or cavitation with visible dentine, radiograph: middle or inner 1/3 dentine

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19
Q

What is the definition of of advanced interproximal caries of a deciduous tooth according to the SDCEP guidance?
a. Non-cavitated, dentine shadow, radiograph: outer 1/3 of dentine
b. Dentine shadow or cavitation with visible dentine, radiograph: middle or inner 1/3 dentine
c. White spot lesions or shadow, radiograph: lesion confined to enamel
d. Enamel cavitation and dentine shadow or cavity with visible dentine, radiograph: may extend into inner 1/3 of dentine
e. White spot lesions but not dentinal caries

A

D. Enamel cavitation and dentine shadow or cavity with visible dentine, radiograph: may extend into inner 1/3 of dentine

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20
Q

What is the definition of of initial interproximal caries of a deciduous tooth according to the SDCEP guidance?
a. Non-cavitated, dentine shadow, radiograph: outer 1/3 of dentine
b. Dentine shadow or cavitation with visible dentine, radiograph: middle or inner 1/3 dentine
c. White spot lesions or shadow, radiograph: lesion confined to enamel
d. Enamel cavitation and dentine shadow or cavity with visible dentine, radiograph: may extend into inner 1/3 of dentine
e. White spot lesions but not dentinal caries

A

C. White spot lesions or shadow, radiograph: lesion confined to enamel

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21
Q

What lesion on deciduous teeth does this describe (according to SDCEP guidelines)? “Non-cavitated, dentine shadow, radiograph: outer 1/3 of dentine”
a. Initial occlusal
b. Advanced Occlusal
c. Initial Proximal
d. Advanced Proximal
e. Anterior Initial

A

A. Initial Occlusal

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22
Q

What lesion on deciduous teeth does this describe (according to SDCEP guidelines)? “Dentine shadow or cavitation with visible dentine. Radiograph: middle or inner third dentine”
a. Initial occlusal
b. Advanced Occlusal
c. Initial Proximal
d. Advanced Proximal
e. Anterior Initial

A

B. Advanced Occlusal

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23
Q

What lesion on deciduous teeth does this describe (according to SDCEP guidelines)? “White spot lesions or shadow. Radiograph: lesion confined to enamel”
a. Initial occlusal
b. Advanced Occlusal
c. Initial Proximal
d. Advanced Proximal
e. Anterior Initial

A

C. Initial Proximal

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24
Q

What lesion on deciduous teeth does this describe (according to SDCEP guidelines)? “Enamel cavitation and dentine shadow or cavity with visible dentine. Radiograph: may extend into inner third of dentine”
a. Initial occlusal
b. Advanced Occlusal
c. Initial Proximal
d. Advanced Proximal
e. Anterior Initial

A

D. Advanced Proximal

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25
Q

What lesion on permanent teeth does this describe (according to SDCEP guidelines)? “Noncavitated enamel carious lesions: white spot lesions; discoloured or
stained fissures. Radiograph: up to the enamel-dentine junction or not visible”
a. Initial occlusal
b. Moderate Occlusal
c. Initial Proximal
d. Moderate Proximal
e. Extensive Occlusal

A

A. Initial Occlusal

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26
Q

What lesion on permanent teeth does this describe (according to SDCEP guidelines)? “Enamel cavitation and dentine shadow or cavity with visible dentine. Radiograph: up to and including middle third dentine”
a. Initial occlusal
b. Moderate Occlusal
c. Initial Proximal
d. Moderate Proximal
e. Anterior Initial

A

B. Moderate occlusal

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27
Q

What lesion on permanent teeth does this describe (according to SDCEP guidelines)? “Cavitation with visible dentine or widespread dentine shadow
Radiograph: inner third dentine”
a. Initial occlusal
b. Moderate Occlusal
c. Initial Proximal
d. Moderate Proximal
e. Extensive Occlusal

A

E. Extensive Occlusal

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28
Q

What lesion on permanent teeth does this describe (according to SDCEP guidelines)? “White spot lesions or dentine shadow. Enamel intact. Radiograph: outer third dentine”
a. Initial occlusal
b. Moderate Occlusal
c. Initial Proximal
d. Moderate Proximal
e. Extensive Occlusal

A

C. Initial Proximal

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29
Q

What lesion on permanent teeth does this describe (according to SDCEP guidelines)? “Enamel cavitation or dentine shadow. Radiograph: outer or middle third dentine”
a. Initial occlusal
b. Moderate Occlusal
c. Initial Proximal
d. Moderate Proximal
e. Extensive Proximal

A

D. Moderate Proximal

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30
Q

What lesion on permanent teeth does this describe (according to SDCEP guidelines)? “Cavitation with visible dentine or widespread dentine shadow. Radiograph: inner third dentine”
a. Initial occlusal
b. Moderate Occlusal
c. Initial Proximal
d. Moderate Proximal
e. Extensive Proximal

A

E. Extensive Proximal

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31
Q

Which of these is not a symptom of reversible pulpitis (according to the SDCEP guidelines)?
a. Pain to cold/sweet
b. Tooth not TTP
c. Resolves on removal of stimulus
d. Tooth difficult to localise
e. Pain to hot

A

E. Pain to hot

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32
Q

Which of these is not a symptom of irreversible pulpitis (according to the SDCEP guidelines)?
a. Spontaneous pain wakens child at night
b. Tooth TTP
c. Does not resolve on removal of stimulus
d. Pain to hot/cold
e. Does not resolve with placement of a temporary dressing

A

B. Tooth TTP
The tooth may be TTP but this will be related to coinciding periapical infection not the irreversible pulpitis itself.

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33
Q

Which of these is not a sign/symptom of a dental abscess or peri-radicular periodontitis (according to the SDCEP guidelines)?
a. Pain to hot/cold
b. Spontaneous pain that wakens the child at night
c. Tooth mobile and tender to percussion
d. Swelling
e. Malaise

A

A. Pain to hot/cold
The tooth may be painful to hot/cold but this will be related to coinciding pulpitis not the abscess/peri radicular periodontitis itself.

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34
Q

What is the treatment plan for a pre-cooperative child with reversible pulpitis on a primary tooth?
a. Restore or place dressing
b. Extraction under GA/refer
c. RCT or XLA
d. Appropriate pulp therapy
e. Nothing

A

A. Restore or place a dressing

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35
Q

What is the treatment plan for a pre-cooperative child with irreversible pulpitis on a primary tooth?
a. Restore or place dressing
b. Extraction under GA/refer
c. RCT or XLA
d. Appropriate pulp therapy
e. Nothing

A

B. Extraction under GA/refer

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36
Q

What is the treatment plan for a pre-cooperative child with reversible pulpitis on a permanent tooth?
a. Restore or place dressing
b. Extraction under GA/refer
c. RCT or XLA
d. Appropriate pulp therapy
e. Nothing

A

A. Restore or place dressing

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37
Q

What is the treatment plan for a cooperative child with reversible pulpitis on a primary tooth?
a. Restore or place dressing
b. Extraction under GA/refer
c. RCT or XLA
d. Appropriate pulp therapy
e. Nothing

A

A. Restore or place dressing

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38
Q

What is the treatment plan for a cooperative child with reversible pulpitis on a permanent tooth?
a. Restore or place dressing
b. Extraction under GA/refer
c. RCT or XLA
d. Appropriate pulp therapy
e. Nothing

A

A. Restore or place dressing

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39
Q

What is the treatment plan for a pre-cooperative child with irreversible pulpitis on a permanent tooth?
a. Restore or place dressing
b. Extraction under GA/refer
c. RCT or XLA
d. Appropriate pulp therapy
e. Nothing

A

C. RCT or XLA
If the child remains uncooperative, refer to specialist.
You would also try to dress with sub-lining of corticosteroid antibiotic paste and prescribe pain relief

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40
Q

What is the treatment plan for a cooperative child with irreversible pulpitis on a primary tooth?
a. Restore or place dressing
b. Extraction under GA/refer
c. RCT or XLA
d. Appropriate pulp therapy
e. Nothing

A

D. Appropriate pulp therapy
You could also do an extraction

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41
Q

What is the treatment plan for a cooperative child with irreversible pulpitis on a permanent tooth?
a. Restore or place dressing
b. Extraction under GA/refer
c. RCT or XLA
d. Appropriate pulp therapy
e. Nothing

A

C. RCT or XLA

42
Q

What is the treatment plan for a pre-cooperative child with dental abscess in a primary tooth?
a. Restore or place dressing
b. Extraction under GA/refer
c. RCT or XLA
d. Appropriate pulp therapy
e. Nothing

A

B. Refer for extraction with sedation or GA

43
Q

What is the treatment plan for a pre-cooperative child with dental abscess in a permanent tooth?
a. Restore or place dressing
b. Extraction under GA/refer
c. RCT or XLA
d. Appropriate pulp therapy
e. Nothing

A

C. RCT or XLA
This may require referral for specialist care

44
Q

What is the treatment plan for a cooperative child with dental abscess in a primary tooth?
a. Restore or place dressing
b. Extraction under GA/refer
c. RCT or XLA
d. Appropriate pulp therapy
e. Nothing

A

D. Appropriate Pulp Therapy (or XLA)

45
Q

What is the treatment plan for a cooperative child with dental abscess in a permanent tooth?
a. Restore or place dressing
b. Extraction under GA/refer
c. RCT or XLA
d. Appropriate pulp therapy
e. Nothing

A

C. RCT or XLA

46
Q

What is the treatment plan for a cooperative child with dental abscess in multiple primary teeth?
a. Restore or place dressing
b. Extraction under GA/refer
c. RCT or XLA
d. Appropriate pulp therapy
e. Nothing

A

B. Extraction under GA or sedation

47
Q

At what age can you start applying fluoride varnish (according to SDCEP guidance)?
a. as soon as the first tooth begins to erupt
b. 1 year old
c. 2 years old
d. 3 years old
e. 4 years old

A

C. 2 years old
This can be applied twice a year.

48
Q

What concentration of fluoride is appropriate for a child under 3 years with a standard caries risk (according to SDCEP)?
a. 1000-1500ppm F- smear size
b. 1350-1500ppm F- smear size
c. 2800ppm F- smear size
d. 1000-1500ppm F- pea size
e. 1350-1500ppm F- pea size

A

A. 1000-1500ppm F- smear size

49
Q

What concentration of fluoride is appropriate for a child under 3 years with a high caries risk (according to SDCEP)?
a. 1000-1500ppm F- smear size
b. 1350-1500ppm F- smear size
c. 2800ppm F- smear size
d. 1000-1500ppm F- pea size
e. 1350-1500ppm F- pea size

A

B. 1350-1500ppm smear size

50
Q

What concentration of fluoride is appropriate for a child 3 years and over with a standard caries risk (according to SDCEP)?
a. 1000-1500ppm F- smear size
b. 1350-1500ppm F- smear size
c. 2800ppm F- smear size
d. 1000-1500ppm F- pea size
e. 1350-1500ppm F- pea size

A

D. 1000-1500 F- pea size

51
Q

What concentration of fluoride is appropriate for a child 3 years and over with a high caries risk (according to SDCEP)?
a. 1000-1500ppm F- smear size
b. 1350-1500ppm F- smear size
c. 2800ppm F- smear size
d. 1000-1500ppm F- pea size
e. 1350-1500ppm F- pea size

A

E. 1350-1500ppm F- pea sized
For children ages 10+ you can consider 2800ppm F-

52
Q

What % concentration is typical fluoride varnish?

A

5%

53
Q

How often a year should you apply fluoride for children over 2 years who are of standard caries risk?

A

2 times a year

54
Q

How often a year should you apply fluoride for children over 2 years who are of high caries risk?

A

4 times a year

55
Q

What component in fluoride varnishes are most likely to cause allergic reactions?
a. Ethanol
b. White Beeswax
c. Shellac
d. Colophony
e. Mastic

A

D. Colophony
Children who have been hospitalised due to severe asthma or an allergy in the last 12 months or who are allergic to sticking plasters may be at risk of an allergic reaction to colophony. In these cases, consider using a colophony-free varnish.

56
Q

For what carious lesion is a Hall crown the most preferred option for a primary tooth?
a. Initial occlusal
b. Advanced Occlusal
c. Initial Proximal
d. Advanced Proximal
e. Anterior Initial

A

D. Advanced proximal
Hall crowns may also be used for occlusal lesions but other methods are more preferred (such as caries removal, restorations and fissure sealants).

57
Q

Approximately what % of children will be affected by MIH (according to the SDCEP)?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%
e. 25%

A

C. 15 %

58
Q

At what age can you start giving patients dental amalgams?

A

15 years old - unless there are exceptional circumstances

59
Q

A panicking mother informs you that her 3 year old child’s upper central deciduous incisor had avulsed. What advice would you give her?
a. Store the tooth in milk and bring the child to the surgery immediately
b. Store the tooth in cold water and bring the child to the surgery
c. Tell the mother to try to reinsert the tooth into the socket, apply pressure and attend the surgery
d. Attend the surgery immediately with the tooth, but no special precautions for the storage of the tooth
e. Store the tooth in chlorhexidine mouthwash and attend the surgery immediately

A

D. Attend the surgery immediately with the tooth, but no special precautions for storage of the tooth.
The clue is the age of the patient. The child is 3 years old so it’ll be a deciduous tooth, which should not be reimplanted.

60
Q

What is the material of choice for a devitalising pulpotomy?
a. Calcium hydroxide
b. Formocresol
c. Ferric sulphate
d. Beechwood creosoate
e. Tranexamic acid

A

C. Ferric Sulphate
Formocreosol or beechwood creosoate used to be indicated for a non-vital pulpotomy, however there have been concerns about the oncogenic nature of the above treatments. Ferric sulphate is now the treatment of choice. Tranexamic acid is used after extraction in cases where haemostasis has not been achieved.

61
Q

A 9 year old child requires extraction of her upper right first permanent molar under LA. Her MH is unremarkable except that she had rheumatic fever at 3 years old and a chest infection 4 months ago, which was treated with penicillin. What is the correct precaution for this child?
a. No antibiotics required for prophylaxis
b. 600mg Clindamycin orally 1 hour pre-operatively
c. 750mg amoxicillin orally 1 hour pre-operatively
d. 3g amoxicillin orally 1 hour pre-operatively
e. 3g amoxicillin intravenously 1 hour pre-operatively

A

A. No antibiotics required for prophylaxis
Pre-operative antibiotics prophylaxis is no longer recommended in this case.

62
Q

A 13 year old child presents with a retained upper left deciduous canine. The successor is not palpable. What would be the most appropriate investigations?
a. OPG and Periapical
b. Periapical radiograph
c. Vitality test of the deciduous canine
d. OPG
e. Lateral Ceph

A

A. OPG and Periapical
This is the parallax technique, and enables you to assess whether the missing tooth is placed palatally or buccally. If the tooth is palatally placed it will appear to have moved in the same direction as the Xray tubehead. If the opposite is true, it is placed buccally.

63
Q

Which one of the following defines the Frankfort plane?
a. Distance between the upper and lower incisors in the vertical plane
b. Line joining porion with orbitale
c. Distance between the upper and lower incisors in the horizontal plane
d. Line joining nasion with orbitale
e. Line joining porion with nasion

A

B. Line joining the perion with oribtale
A defines overbite and C defines overjet and the others are false

64
Q

Which one of these best describes the nasion?
a. Most anterior point on the fronto-nasal suture
b. Lowermost point of bony orbit
c. Superior aspect of the external auditory meatus
d. Midpoint of the sella tucica
e. Most posterior and inferior point on the outline of the angle of the mandible

A

A. Most anterior point on the fronto-nasal suture

65
Q

Which one of these best describes the porion?
a. Most anterior point on the fronto-nasal suture
b. Lowermost point of bony orbit
c. Superior aspect of the external auditory meatus
d. Midpoint of the sella tucica
e. Most posterior and inferior point on the outline of the angle of the mandible

A

C. Superior aspect of the external auditory meatus

66
Q

Which one of these best describes the oribtale?
a. Most anterior point on the fronto-nasal suture
b. Lowermost point of bony orbit
c. Superior aspect of the external auditory meatus
d. Midpoint of the sella tucica
e. Most posterior and inferior point on the outline of the angle of the mandible

A

B. Lowermost point of the bony orbit

67
Q

Which of the following does not cause staining of teeth?
a. Porphyria
b. Products of pulpal necrosis
c. Cefotaxime
d. Chlorhexidine
e. Tetracycline

A

C. Cefotaxime
Porphyria causes red staining of teeth, products of necrosis leads to a grey appearance of the enamel, chlorhexadine leads to brown staining and tetracycline leads to blue/brown banding of the teeth

68
Q

A patient presents with an increased overjet of 7mm; an anterior openbite of 5mm; and a lower left second permanent molar partially erupted and impacted against the first permanent molar. Which IOTN category would the patient call into?
a. 1 (none)
b. 2 (little)
c. 3 (moderate)
d. 4 (great)
e. 5 (very great)

A

D. 4 Great
Having an overjet 6-9mm, an openbite >4mm and partially erupted impacted teeth places the patient in the IOTN 4 category.

69
Q

What is the normal SNA angle for Lat Ceph tracing?
a. 81+/-3
b. 79 +/-3
c. 81+/-4
d. 79+/-4
e. 83+/-3

A

A. 81+/-3 degrees

70
Q

What is the normal SNB angle for Lat Ceph tracing?
a. a. 81+/-3
b. 79 +/-3
c. 81+/-4
d. 79+/-4
e. 83+/-3

A

B. 79+/-3 degrees

71
Q

What is the normal ANB angle for Lat Ceph tracing?
a. 1+/-3
b. 2 +/-3
c. 3+/-1
d. 3+/-2
e. 2+/-1

A

D. 3+/-2 degrees

72
Q

Which of the following describes the mandibular plane?
a. Porion to orbitale
b. Posterior nasal spine to anterior nasal spine
c. Gonion to menton
d. Porion to menton
e. Gonion to porion

A

C. Gonion to menton
Gonion is the lowermost posterior part of the angle of the mandible. Menton is the lowest point of symphysis of the mandible

73
Q

An anxious mother presents to your surgery with her 4 month old child who is febrile, has cervical lymphadenopathy and a combination of vesicles and ulcers on the gingivae and oral mucosa. What is your diagnosis?
a. Teething
b. Dentoalveolar abscess
c. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
d. Impetigo
e. Traumatic ulceration

A

C. Primary herpatic gingivostomatitis
The child has lymphadenopathy which rules out A and E. Impetigo presents periorally not intraorally. The description is of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis, and should be managed with diet, fluids and review.

74
Q

What is the advised splint time for subluxation?

A

2 weeks

75
Q

What is the advised splint time for extrusive luxation?

A

2 weeks

76
Q

What is the advised splint time for lateral luxation?

A

4 weeks

77
Q

What is the advised splint time for Intrusive luxation?

A

4 weeks

78
Q

What is the advised splint time for a root fracture in the mid third?

A

4 weeks

79
Q

What is the advised splint time for a root fracture in the coronal third?

A

4 weeks

80
Q

What is the advised splint time for a root fracture in the apical third?

A

4 months

81
Q

What is the advised splint time for avulsion with a dry time of less than 60 mins?

A

2 weeks

82
Q

What is the advised splint time for avulsion with a dry time of more than 60 mins?

A

4 weeks

83
Q

What is the advised splint time for an alveolar fracture?

A

4 weeks

84
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding how deciduous molars differ from permanent molars is correct?
a. Deciduous molars have thinner enamel, a less bulbous crown and larger pulp horns
b. Deciduous molars have thinner enamel, a more bulbus crown and smaller pulp horns
c. Deciduous molars have thinner enamel, a less bulbous crown and smaller pulp horns
d. Deciduous molars have thicker enamel, a less bulbous crown and larger pulp horns
e. Deciduous molars have thinner enamel, a more bulbous crown and larger pulp horns

A

E. Deciduous molars have thinner enamel, a more bulbous crown and larger pulp horns than permanent molars

85
Q

A failure of fusion of which of the following leads to the formation of a cleft lip?
a. Lateral palatal shelves and the primary nasal process
b. Maxillary processes and the median nasal process
c. Maxillary processes and the lateral palatal shelves
d. Mandibular processes and the maxillary processes
e. Lateral palatal shelves and the median nasal processes

A

B. Maxillary processes and the median nasal process
Failure of fusion of the maxillary processes and median nasal process causes cleft lip. This is to be differentiated from cleft palate which is formed from the failure of the latera palatal shelves to rotate downwards and fuse behind the primary palate

86
Q

Patients with a cleft palate often have which skeletal relationship?
a. Class I
b. Class II div 1
c. Class II div 2
d. Class II either div 1 or 2
e. Class III

A

E. Class III
Due to the failure of the maxilla to grow in proportion with the rest of the face, the maxilla is often smaller than the mandible and therefore the patient has a skeletal class III relationship.

87
Q

A 15 year old patient who is still a thumb sucker attends your surgery for an orthodontic assessment. Which malocclusion is she likely to have?
a. Posterior open bite
b. Anterior open bite
c. Increased overbite
d. Median diastema
e. Class III skeletal relationship

A

B. Anterior openbite

88
Q

Which of the following is not a good method of child behaviour management?
a. Behaviour shaping
b. Desensitisation
c. Tell, show, do
d. Positive reinforcement
e. Sensitisation

A

E. Sensitisation
The first four are well-recognised behaviour management techniques. Sensitisation is the opposite of what we are trying to achieve

89
Q

The freeway space is defined as:
a. The interocclusal clearance when the mandible is in rest position
b. The projection of the jaws from beneath the cranial base
c. The space between the occlusal surfaces of the teeth when the mandible is in a position of habitual posture
d. The sagittal movement of the mandible during closure from a habitual position to centric occlusion
e. The position of the mandible when the muscles which are acting on it show minimal activity

A

A. The interocclusal clearance when the mandible is in rest position
B defines prognathism, C defines interocclusal clearance, D defines mandibular deviation and E defines the rest position

90
Q

Prognathism is defined as:
a. The interocclusal clearance when the mandible is in rest position
b. The projection of the jaws from beneath the cranial base
c. The space between the occlusal surfaces of the teeth when the mandible is in a position of habitual posture
d. The sagittal movement of the mandible during closure from a habitual position to centric occlusion
e. The position of the mandible when the muscles which are acting on it show minimal activity

A

B. The projection of the jaws from beneath the cranial base

91
Q

Interocclusal clearance is defined as:
a. The interocclusal clearance when the mandible is in rest position
b. The projection of the jaws from beneath the cranial base
c. The space between the occlusal surfaces of the teeth when the mandible is in a position of habitual posture
d. The sagittal movement of the mandible during closure from a habitual position to centric occlusion
e. The position of the mandible when the muscles which are acting on it show minimal activity

A

C. The space between the occlusal surfaces of the teeth when the mandible is in a position of habitual posture

92
Q

Mandibular deviation is defined as:
a. The interocclusal clearance when the mandible is in rest position
b. The projection of the jaws from beneath the cranial base
c. The space between the occlusal surfaces of the teeth when the mandible is in a position of habitual posture
d. The sagittal movement of the mandible during closure from a habitual position to centric occlusion
e. The position of the mandible when the muscles which are acting on it show minimal activity

A

D. The sagittal movement of the mandible during closure from a habitual position to centric occlusion

93
Q

Rest position is defined as:
a. The interocclusal clearance when the mandible is in rest position
b. The projection of the jaws from beneath the cranial base
c. The space between the occlusal surfaces of the teeth when the mandible is in a position of habitual posture
d. The sagittal movement of the mandible during closure from a habitual position to centric occlusion
e. The position of the mandible when the muscles which are acting on it show minimal activity

A

E. The position of the mandible when the muscles which are acting on it show minimal activity

94
Q

What teeth should a 9 year old have in a given quadrant?

A

1, 2, C, D, E

95
Q

Which of the following is not a cause of a median diastema?
a. Normal development
b. Microdontia
c. Hypodontia
d. Lingual frenum
e. Midline supernumerary

A

D. Lingual frenum
The presence of a lingual frenum has not effect on the positioning of the upper central incisors.

96
Q

Which of the following is not a part of a removable appliance?
a. Active component
b. Retention
c. Anchorage
d. Base plate
e. Bracket

A

E. Bracket
A bracket is part of a fixed appliance. All the others are important parts of removable orthodontic appliances

97
Q

Which of the following is a side effect of treatment with phenytoin (which is commonly prescribed for childhood epilepsy)?
a. Staining of teeth
b. Gingival hyperplasia
c. Mental retardation
d. Taurodontism
e. Hutchinson’s incisors

A

B. Gingival hyperplasia
Hutchinson’s incisors are caused by congenital syphilis. Taurodontism is unrelated to any causative factors, and staining is clinically related to tetracycline.

98
Q

What is the normal angulation of the Frankfort plane (in degrees)?
a. 91
b. 97
c. 109
d. 119
e. 126

A

C. 109 degrees.
The Frankfort plane is defined as the plane through the orbitale and porion. This is meant to approximate the horizontal plane when the head is in the free postural position.

99
Q

When performing inhalation sedation for children, which is the gas used?
a. 40% nitrous oxide
b. 100% nitrous oxide
c. Midazolam
d. Halothane
e. Fluothane

A

A. 40% nitrous oxide.
100% nitrous oxide will kill the child, midazolam is an intravenous sedative and halothane and fluothane are both general anaesthetic agents.

100
Q

An injury to the supporting tissue of the tooth without displacement is the tooth defines what type of injury?
a. Concussion
b. Luxation
c. Subluxation
d. Intrusion
e. Extrusion

A

A. Concussion
Luxation is defined as displacment of the tooth. Subluxation is defined as loosening of the tooth without displacement. Intrusion is displacement of a tooth into its socket and extrusion is displacement of a tooth out of its socket.

101
Q

Which condition is associated with mulberry molars in children?
a. Autism
b. Down’s Syndrome
c. Osgood Syndrome
d. Syphilis
e. Diabetes Mellitus

A

D. Syphilis
A mulberry molar is a tooth with alternating non-anatomical depressions and rounded enamel nodules on its crown surface. It is usually associated with congenital syphilis.

102
Q

Which one of the following statements about non-accidental injury is true?
a. Usually older children are involved
b. Frenal tears are common when a child falls over
c. The child and parent’s versions of events are similar
d. It is unusual to find bruises of different vintages on children
e. There is often a delay in seeking treatment with these children

A

E. There is often a delay in seeking treatment for these children

SBA Dentistry (10 decks)

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