Periodontics Flashcards

1
Q

Which one of the following would be the most appropriate way to clear a periodontal probe of potential prions found in a patient with Creutzfeldt Jakob disease?
a. Gamma radiation
b. Incineration
c. Soap and water
d. Sodium hypochlorite
e. Vacuum autoclave

A

B. Incineration
Prions are highly resistant to disinfectants, heat, UV radiation, ionising radiation and formalin. However, prions can be deactivated by heat, chemicals and a combination of heat, chemicals, pressure and time. Prions can be destroyed through incineration provided that the incinerator can maintain a temperature of 900 degrees F for 4 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

After establishing drainage, which one of the following is the most appropriate first-line antimicrobial for a patient with a lateral periodontal abscess, lymphadenopathy and pyrexia?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Co-amoxiclav
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Erythromycin
e. Metronidazole

A

E. Metronidazole
Metronidazole is a core antibiotic for the treatment of anaerobic infections. Its mechanism of action is not entirely clear, but it is thought that the active metabolite interferes with DNA synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A 4 year-old presents with spontaneous bleeding of the gingivae. What is the likely diagnosis?
a. Gingivitis
b. Gingival hyperplasia
c. Leukaemia
d. Lymphoma
e. Vitamin E deficiency

A

C. Leukaemia
Presentation is highly variable, depending on the child’s age and the extent of leukemic infiltration of the bone marrow and other sites.
Classic signs include: anaemia; thrombocytopenia; hepatosplenomegaly; or lymphadenopathy. Initial symptoms are often non-specific and vague.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which one of the following statements best describes the diagnosis of peri-implantitis?
a. BOP has a low sensitivity and low specificity
b. Implant mobility has a high sensitivity and high specificity
c. Probing depth has low sensitivity and high specificity
d. Pus expelled on digital pressure has high sensitivity and high specificity
e. Radiographic bone loss has high sensitivity and low specificity

A

D. Pus expelled on digital pressure has high sensitivity and high specificity.
Microbiological diagnostics are of high prognostic value and thus comprise an essential support for the choice of appropriate therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which one of the following bacterial species is not associated with adult periodontitis?
a. Fusobacterium nucleatum
b. Bacteroides forsythus
c. Porphyromonas gingivalis
d. Shigella sonnei
e. Prevotella intermedia

A

D. Shigella sonnei
All of the bacteria in the list are responsible for adult periodontitis except Shigella sonnei, which is responsible for acute diarrhoea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) is true?
a. It is caused by gram positive anaerobic bacteria
b. It is characterised by chronic onset
c. It affects non-smokers more than smokers
d. It is caused by acid fast bacilli
e. It is characterised by interproximal necrosis

A

E. It is characterised by interproximal necrosis.
ANUG is caused by gram-negative anaerobic bacteria, usually in the mandible, has a very distinctive smell (fetor oris) and is more common in smokers and those with poor oral hygiene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the correct treatment for a patient with ANUG?

A

ANUG is a very painful condition. The bacterial component is treated with metronidazole. Local measures should also be carried out - such as removing supra and subgingival deposits and OHI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the maximum normal tooth movement of a crown in the horizontal plane?
a. 0.05mm
b. 0.1mm
c. 0.15mm
d. 0.2mm
e. 0.25mm

A

D. 0.2mm movement of the crown of a tooth in the horizontal plane is considered normal.
0.2-1mm is Grade 1 mobility. >1mm is Grade 2 mobility and grade 3 means movement in the vertical plane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following clinical conditions predisposes patients with impaired/defective neutrophil function to severe periodontitis?
a. Patterson-Brown-Kelly syndrome
b. Chediak-Higashi disease
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Hyperthyroidism
e. Gardner’s syndrome

A

B. Chediak-Higashi disease
None of the others are relevant to periodontal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which one of the following is associated with abnormal collagen formation, leading to periodontal disease?
a. Type I diabetes mellitus
b. Papillon-Lefevre syndrome
c. Hypophosphatasia
d. Type 2 diabetes
e. Hyperphosphatasia

A

C. Hypophosphatasia
Hypophosphatasia is associated with abnormal collagen formation and periodontal disease. Papillon-Lefevre syndrome is associated with abnormal neutrophil function, which leads to periodontal disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In juvenile periodontitis, which bacterium is the recognised aetiological agent?
a. Porphyromonas gingivalis
b. Prevotella intermedia
c. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcromitans
d. Borrelia burgdorferi
e. Fusobacterium intermedium

A

C. A. Actinomycetemcomitans is a capnophilic, non-motile rod that possesses a potent leucotoxin, which causes lysis of polymorphonuclear leucocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which teeth are most commonly affected in juvenile periodontitis?
a. Incisors and first permanent molars
b. Incisors and canines
c. Canines and premolars
d. Premolars and first permanent molars
e. Canines and first permanent molars

A

A. Incisors and first permanent molars. As these are the first teeth to erupt, they seem to be the teeth which are affected most by juvenile periodontitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What pressure should be used when probing for a BPE?
a. 5g
b. 25g
c. 75g
d. 150g
e. 500g

A

B. 25g
This is the level of force prescribed by the World Health Organisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following statements regarding dental calculus is false?
a. It is mineralised dental plaque
b. It is composed of hydroxyapatite
c. It is the primary cause of periodontitis
d. The other surface remains covered by a layer of plaque
e. It forms when plaque is mineralised from calcium and phosphate ions

A

C. The primary cause of periodontitis is plaque, not calculus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the active component of Elyzol, a topical antimicrobial placed in deep periodontal pockets?
a. Tetracycline
b. Amoxicillin
c. Clindamycin
d. Erythromycin
e. Metronidazole

A

E. Metronidazole
Elyzol is 25% metronidazole in a gel form, and is placed in the periodontal pocket. It has been shown to be efficacious in the treatment of periodontal disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

After a course of periodontal treatment, how long should you wait to perform a six-point pocket examination to see if there has been any improvement?
a. Immediately after the treatment has finished
b. 1 week
c. 1 month
d. 3 months
e. 6 months

A

D. 3 months
It takes at least 2 months for healing in the pocket to occur. Therefore, 3 months would be the ideal length of time to wait before performing a 6PPC.

17
Q

Which one of the following drugs does not cause gingival hyperplasia?
a. Ciclosporin
b. Phenytoin
c. Phenobarbital
d. Nifedipine
e. Diphenylhydantoin (dilantin)

A

C. Phenobarbital
Ciclosporin is an immunosuppressant, Phenytoin and dilantin are anti-epileptics and nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker. They all cause gingival hyperplasia. Phenobarbital does not.

18
Q

Which one of the following is not used in guided tissue regeneration?
a. Gore-Tex
b. Autogenous gingival grafts
c. Cellulose barrier membrane
d. Collagen barrier membrane
e. Silica

A

E. Silica
Silicone, not silica, is used in guided tissue regeneration. Gore-Tex is a non-resorbable material, and a second procedure is required to remove it.

19
Q

If a patient has a BPE score of 2, what is the correct course of treatment?
a. Nothing
b. OHI
c. OHI and PMPR
d. OHI, PMPR and correction of iatrogenic factors
e. OHI, PMPR and root planing

A

D. OHI, PMPR and correction of iatrogenic factors.
Root planing is not indicated as there are no pockets >3.5mm

20
Q

A lesion is described as a small apostrophe-shaped or slit-like fissure of the gingivae extending from the gingival margin to a depth of up to 5-6mm. This lesion is normally found between the mandibular central incisors. What is the lesion?
a. McCall’s festoon
b. Stillman’s cleft
c. O’Leary’s cleft
d. William’s festoon
e. Barnes’ festoon

A

B. Stillman’s cleft

21
Q

Interleukins (ILs) are important in the host cell response. Which one of the following interleukins is not derived from T cells?
a. IL-1
b. IL-2
c. IL-3
d. IL-4
e. IL-5

A

A. IL-1
There are two types of IL-1: IL-1alpha and IL-1beta. they are not derived from T cells but from many other cells including macrophages, dendritic cells, some B cells and fibroblasts.

22
Q

As humoral immunity plays a huge part in periodontal disease, which immunoglobulin is found in the greatest quantity in human serum?
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgG
e. IgM

A

D. IgG
The most prominent immunoglobulin is IgG, followed by IgA.

23
Q

Which of the following is not a sign of chronic gingivitis?
a. Marginal redness
b. Swelling
c. BOP
d. Stippling
e. Increased probing depth

A

D. Stippling
In gingivitis, there is loss of stippling

24
Q

Which one of the following is not a potential pathway for initiation or spread of periodontal inflammation?
a. Dentinal tubules
b. Lateral and accessory root canals
c. Cracks and fracture lines
d. Iatrogenic perforations
e. Poor irrigation during the drilling of restorations

A

E. All the others are putative pathways for periodontal inflammation. Poor irrigation during restorative procedures may lead to pulpal irritation and death, but not periodontal inflammation.

25
Q

Which one of the following bacteria involved in periodontal disease is a spirochaete?
a. Porphyromonas gingivalis
b. Fusobacterium nucleatum
c. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
d. Prevotella intermedia
e. Treponema denticola

A

E. Treponema denticola.
P.gingivalis, F.nuceatum, P.intermedia are obligate anerobes. A. actinomycetemcomitans is a mucroaerophillic bacillus.

26
Q

Which one of the following is not a local factor in periodontal disease?
a. Poor crown margins
b. Badly designed partial dentures
c. Smoking
d. Diabetes
e. Mouth breathing

A

D. Diabetes
All of the above except diabetes are local factors. Diabetes and pregnancy are systemic or host factors.

27
Q

Which complement component is found in high levels in gingival crevicular fluid and causes chemotaxis and vasodilation?
a. C2
b. C4a
c. C4b
d. C5a
e. C5b

A

D. C5a
Cell lysis is only one function (and probably not the most important one) of the compliment system

28
Q

Which 3 of the following microorganisms are found in supragingival plaque?
a. Gram-positive
b. Gram-negative
c. Fermentative organisms
d. Aerobic
e. Anaerobic

A

A, D, C
The most commonly found micro-organisms in supragingival plaque are: gram-positive, aerobic and fermentative bacteria.

29
Q

Which 3 of the following microorganisms are found in subgingival plaque?
a. Gram-positive
b. Gram-negative
c. Proteolytic
d. Aerobic
e. Anaerobic

A

B, C, E
The most commonly found micro-organisms in subgingival plaque are proteolytic, gram-negative and anaerobic bacteria.

30
Q

Which one of the following is used to describe a condition in which a human, who is not himself sick, harbours an infective organism which may cause disease in those to whom it is transmitted?
a. Carrier site
b. Homozygous
c. Karyotype
d. Polyzygous
e. Heterozygous

A

A. Carrier Site
A carrier is a person who is phenotypically normal but may have an underlying genetic disorder.

31
Q

Which interleukin (IL) is most responsible for neutrophil chemotaxis?
a. IL-1
b. IL-4
c. IL-8
d. IL-15
e. IL-20

A

C. IL-8
IL-8 is most responsible for neutrophil chemotaxis.

32
Q
A