Radiochemistry/Pharmacy Flashcards
A chemical substance that contains radioactive atoms within its structure and is suitable for administration to humans for diagnosis or treatment of disease is known as a (an):
Radiopharmaceutical
Allergic reactions to radiopharmaceuticals are very common due to the large amount of active ingredients found in their formulations: (T/F)
False
Which of the agency is responsible for regulating and monitoring the manufacture, distribution, safety, and effectiveness of all drugs and medications, including radiopharmaceuticals, in the United States?
Food & Drug Administration (FDA)
The atomic mass of an element represents __________.
The number of protons and neutrons in one atom of an element. (Electrons are also included but the majority of the time, are excluded from calculations)
Based on manufacturer recommendations, Tc99m elution expires at:
12 Hours
A unique characteristic of a pharmaceutical includes __________, whereas a unique characteristic of an isotope includes ______________.
Biodistribution, half-life
The half-life of a radionuclide is ____________.
The time for any quantity of radionuclide to decrease to half its original value.
A radiopharmaceutical decaying as a (Beta -) emitter would most likely be useful in which of the following applications?
Therapy
The amount of radioactivity administered to a patient (dosage) is expressed in:
Curies (Ci)
The mechanism of decay for nuclides that have too many protons relative to the numer of neutrons is:
(Beta +)
When one of the species in a coordination compound is a metal ion, the resulting entity is known as a metal complex. Electron donor atoms that bond with the metal ion are donated by a species known as a(an) ___________.
Ligand
Radiopharmaceutical kits reconstitued with Tc99m Pertechnetate are prepared in nitrogen- or argon- purged vials to prevent:
Oxidation
Which of the following is not part of a commercially produced Tc99m radiopharmaceutical reagent vial?
a) Stannous Ion
b) Reducing Agent
c) Lyphilized Compound
d) Preservative-free Saline
d) Preservative-free Saline
What effect does hydrolysis have on the desired radiopharmaceutical product?
Produces Tc99mO2 complexed with other ingredients.
When labeling Tc99m (VII), in what state is the Tc99m changed to make it more reactive?
(IV) (4)
What is the purpose of ITLC (Instant Thin Layer Chromatography)?
Separate substances into their components.
A Tc-99m MDP dose is 20 mCi calibrated at 11:00. The patient shows up 3 hours late for their study. How much activity remains in the dose?
14.1 mCi
25 mCi is equivalent to how many MBq?
925 MBq
Which of the following components in a Tc99m labeled radiopharmaceutical preparation is a radiochemical impurity?
a) Aluminum
b) Mo99
c) 0.9% NaCl
d) Tc99m04-
d) Tc99m04-
The test kit used to measure aluminum ion concentration in Tc99m elute contains specially treated indicator paper and an aluminum solution with concentration of approximately:
10 ug/mL
On the basis of USP criteria, MAA particle size should be no larger than __________ in size?
150 um
What is the purpose of heating some kits during preparation?
Supply energy to complete the chemical reaction
Which species is not part of a Tc99m radiopharmaceutical preparation?
a) Tc99m04-
b) Hydrolyzed-Reduced Tc99m
c) Tc99m - Chelate
d) Tc99m - Buffer
d) Tc99m - Buffer
Microembolization of particles describes which method of localization?
Capillary Blockade
Why should bacteriostatic normal saline not be used in radiopharmaceutical preparation?
Causes oxidation of stannous ion
What effect does an elution with a high amount of ground-state Tc99 have on the radiopharmaceutical product?
Increase in unreacted free Tc04-
Covalent bonds are characterized by:
Sharing of a pair of electrons between atoms
Nuclear configuration determines what property of an atom?
Radioactive Decay
The type of radioactive decay that is characterized by the emission of a helium nucleus stripped of its two orbital electrons is:
Alpha
If a ligand coordinating with a metal ion contains two or more donor atoms, forming a ring stucture with the metal, the complex is called a metal ____________ and the complexing agent is called a ___________ agent.
Chelate / Chelating
Gamma emitters are used primarily for _________ purposes in nuclear medicine?
Diagnostic
the “lock-and-key” binding of a molecule to a specific receptor site referes to which method of localization?
Receptor Binding
With technetium compounds, the general redox reactions involve the reduction of technetium pertechnetate by ________________ chloride.
Stannous (Sn)
What is the most common excretion pathway for radipharmaceuticals?
Urine
A patient is administered I-131 sodium iodide for a thyroid therapy. I-131 has a physical half-life of 8 days. their individual biological half-life for elimination of this drug is 3 days. What is the overall effective half-life or this radiopharmaceutical?
2.2 days
What is not a route of administration for radipharmaceuticals?
Intramuscular
Which method of localization provides information about blood flow patterns within the venous system?
First Transit
A Patient is administered F-18 FDG for a PET scan. The patient ate a full breakfast that morning and did not have the proper fasting blood glucose level at the time of injection. Why will the quality of their scan be compromised?
FDG molecules will be competitively inhibited by presence of glucose
A syringe of F-18 FDB currently reads 10 mCi at 11:00 am. What was the original amount of radioactivity when it was drawn in the Radiopharmacy at 6:00 am?
66.7 mCi
Some kit preparations require the use of a buffer to:
Neutralize an acid or base
Radiolysis generates free radicals and is one of the main factors for degradation of radiolabeled preparations due to:
Breakage of chemical bonds between the radionuclide and the molecule.
Venting is used during radiopharmaceutical kit preparation in order to:
Add oxygen to the reaction vial
What is the acceptable radionuclidic purity standards levels of Mo99 used for kit preparation
0.15 uCi of Mo99 / 1 mCi of Tc99m
In genreal, for diagnostic imaging applications, clearance of a radiopharmaceutical from the blood plasma is desirable because it:
Decreases background counts
Regadenoson acts on this receptor.
A2A
Adenosine (Drug Class)
Vasodilator
Adenosine (Contraindications)
-AV nodal issues
- Depresses the SA and AV nodes
-Asthamtic Patients
Adenosine (Acts on)
A2A, A2B, A1, A3
Adenosine (Rate)
140 ug/kg/min for 6 min
IV Infusion
Adenosine (Reversal Drug)
Aminophylline (125-250 mg, IV)
Dipyridamole (Contraindications)
-AV nodal issues
- Depresses the SA and AV nodes
-Asthamtic Patients
Dipyridamole (Rate)
0.56 mg/kg over 4 min
IV Infusion
Dipyridamole (Reversal)
Aminophylline (125-250 mg, IV)
Regadenoson (Brand Name)
Lexiscan
Regadenoson (Acts on)
A2A Receptor
Regadenoson (Contraindications)
-2nd or 3rd degree AV block
- Sinus node dysfunction (unless the patient has an artificial pacemaker)
Regadenoson (Drug Interactions)
-Caffeine
-Theophylline
-Aminophylline
(all held 12 hours prior)
Regadenoson (Dose)
0.4 mg in 5mL pre-filled syringe
- IV Injection (over 10 seconds)
Regadenoson (Reversal Drug)
Aminophylline (125-250mg, IV)
Dobutamine (Brand Name)
Dobutrex
Dobutamine (Acts on)
B1 Receptor Agonist
Dobutamine (Mechanism of Action)
Increases contractility and oxygen demand, indirectly causes coronary dilatation
Dobutamine (Precaution, HR Target)
If heart rate is < 85% of predicted target rate after maximal dose is reached, IV atropine 0.2 mg to 1 mg may be administered.
Dobutamine (Drug Interactions)
- NOt affected by caffeine or xanthine drugs
- Beta blockers should be discontinued 24 hr prior
Dobutamine (Dose Rate)
- Incremental Dosage
Start (10 uq/kg/min every 3 minutes)
Max (40 uq/kg/min) - Over 12 Minutes
Aminophylline
Vasodialator Reversal Medication
(Bronchodilator)
Atropine
Use to treat symptoms of low heart rate (bradycardia)
Atropine (Dose Rate)
0.5-1.0 mg to increase heart rate by 15 beats per minute.
