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z Nuc Med z > Rad Protection practice test > Flashcards

Rad Protection practice test Flashcards

1
Q

If a lactating female is given a radiopharmaceutical,

a. the woman must immediately cease breastfeeding
b. the infant will not suffer any adverse effects
c. breastfeeding can usually be resumed 48 hrs after Tc-99m has been administered
d. a lactating woman can never be given a radiopharmaceutical

A

c

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2
Q

The following will give the highest whole body radiation exposure to a patient:

a. a single AP and lateral chest x-ray
b. one AP and lateral lumbar spine x-ray
c. a typical nuclear medicine bone scan
d. one year’s exposure to natural radiation

A

d

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3
Q

Exposure is expressed in

a. rads and roentgens
b. grays and sieverts
c. rads and sieverts
d. Roentgens

A

d

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4
Q

Regardless of the source of the radiation, the following is correct:

a. 100 rad = 1 Gy
b. 100 R = 1 Sv
c. 1 Sv = 1 Gy
d. 1 Sv = 1,000 rem

A

a

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5
Q

For the gray, this is false:

a. 1 Gy is generally approximately equivalent to 1 Sv
b. 100 rad = 1 Gy
c. it applies to multiple types of ionizing radiation and absorbers
d. it accounts for the total energy to which an organism is exposed

A

d

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6
Q

The quality factor

a. has the same value for 2 different types of radiation if the biological response produced is equivalent
b. increases as the energy of the radiation increases
c. only relates to photons
d. increases as the LET decreases

A

a

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7
Q

RBE equals

a. REM x rad
b. REM/rad
c. QF x REM
d. QF/rad

A

b

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8
Q

A radiation worker

a. must be over 18 years old
b. must not be pregnant
c. must be a graduate of an accredited nuclear medicine program
d. must not be exposed to a source of greater than 25 mSv/hr

A

a

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9
Q

A radiation license is required by anyone dealing with

a. >37 KBq of I-131, any amount of ionizing radiation and anyone dealing with ³1 scheduled quantity of an open, unsealed source
b. >37 KBq of I-131 and >1 scheduled quantity of an open, unsealed source
c. any amount of ionizing radiation and naturally occurring radiation
d. >37 KBq of I-131, any amount of ionizing radiation, >1 scheduled quantity of an open, unsealed source and naturally occurring radiation

A

b

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10
Q

A radiopharmacy license is valid for

a. 1 yr
b. 2 yrs
c. 3 yrs
d. 5 yrs

A

2

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11
Q

When applying for a license, the information that must be supplied includes the

a. nature and purpose of the radioactive substances being used
b. qualifications and training of workers and the nature and purpose of the radioactive substances being used
c. qualifications and training of workers, nature and purpose of the radioactive substances being used and a
d. description of the facilities, qualifications and training of workers, nature and purpose of the radioactive substances being used, a description of the facilities and method of disposal to be used

A

d

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12
Q

The department’s license must include all of the following except

a. a description of the specific measures used for decontamination
b. a list of areas where swipes will be performed regularly
c. a statement of disposal methods to be used
d. the type and amount of each radionuclide allowed on the site

A

a

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13
Q

An area with an occupancy factor of 1/4 means that

a. the exposure level is 4 times the MPD
b. the area is only occupied on average ~2 out of every 8 hrs (e.g., corridors, patient rooms)
c. only 1/4 of the maximum number of people are allowed into the area
d. the exposure level is only 1/16 of the MPBB

A

b

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14
Q

A TLD must be worn by

a. anyone who may receive > 5 mSv/yr
b. anyone who is in contact with any open or unsealed source of radiation
c. anyone who may transport radioactive material
d. a visitor to a nuclear medicine department

A

a

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15
Q

MPD is (“maximum permissible dose”)

a. the dose below which there is no radiation damage
b. developed using human volunteers
c. an arbitrary guideline based on the best available information and opinions
d. a primary guide based on observable biological effects

A

c

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16
Q

For the general public, MPD is

a. 25 uSv/hr
b. 5 mSv/yr
c. 10 mSv/quarter
d. 50 mSv/yr

A

b

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17
Q

The following MPD is incorrect:

a. 150 mSv/yr for hands or feet for a nuclear energy worker
b. 4 mSv for the balance of the pregnancy for a nuclear energy worker
c. 50 mSv/yr for whole body for a nuclear energy worker
d. 150 mSv/yr for the lens of an eye for a nuclear energy worker

A

a

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18
Q

MPBB is

a. determined by the MPD
b. not affected by the decay mode of the radionuclide in question
c. based on the external exposure rate
d. the amount of radioactive material in the body which, if held at constant activity, will deliver the occupational dose limit to the critical organ

A

d

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19
Q

The effective half-life

a. is generally longer than the biological half-life
b. is ~4 days for I-131
c. cannot be calculated
d. is almost infinite in a radiopharmaceutical that does not leave the body

A

b

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20
Q

The MIRD method of determining the radiation dose - (medical internal radiation dose)

a. is a common, standardized method used to determine radiation dosimetry
b. does not consider important factors such as energy or biological distribution
c. assumes that clearance is linear with time
d. does not account for particulate emissions

A

a

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21
Q

If a radiation worker receives 345 mSv averaged over a 10-year period, this dose is

a. considered to be within the allowable limits
b. over the allowable limit
c. within the accepted range for the general public
d. referred to chronic low level exposure

A

b

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22
Q

The following constitutes a misadministration of radiopharmaceutical: injecting a

a. therapeutic dose which is 5% more than was ordered
b. diagnostic dose which is 35% more than was ordered
c. radiopharmaceutical other than the one that was ordered
d. therapeutic dose which is 10% less than was ordered

A

c

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23
Q

After a misadministration of a therapeutic dose of radiopharmaceutical, you must telephone the appropriate regulatory body

a. immediately
b. by 24 hrs
c. by 2 weeks
d. if the patient has been informed, you do not have to telephone the regulatory body

A

b

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24
Q

The dose limit for a pregnant female nuclear energy worker is

a. 4 mSv for the balance of the pregnancy
b. 10 mSv for the balance of the pregnancy
c. 25 mSv for the balance of the pregnancy
d. 100 mSv for the balance of the pregnancy

A

a

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25
Q

For patients kept in the hospital following an I-131 therapy, the following is false:

a. no visitors are allowed while the patient is in hospital
b. nurses involved with the patient are not required to wear pocket dosimeters
c. toilets should be double flushed
d. the patient may be advised not to become pregnant for 3 months

A

a

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26
Q

Wipe records must be kept for

a. 1 yr
b. 2 yrs
c. 3 yrs
d. 90 days after notifying the authorities

A

c

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27
Q

The following would be considered a basic/low level radioisotope laboratory:

a. any area which stores radioactivity
b. any area which contains sealed or unsealed sources of radioactivity
c. any area in which <100 scheduled quantities of radioactivity may be used
d. Any area in which the exposure rate may be >2.5 mSv/hr

A

c

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28
Q

A nuclear medicine technologist would be classed a nuclear energy worker if the following condition is met:

a. all individuals credentialed as nuclear medicine technologists are considered to be nuclear energy workers
b. only those individuals who may receive more than 50 mSv/yr
c. anyone who works with open sources of radiation
d. only those who work in nuclear facilities

A

b

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29
Q

According to regulations, once a nuclear medicine technologist becomes aware that she is pregnant,

a. she should be given duties that do not involve the use of radiation
b. the regulating body should be informed
c. she should wear a whole body apron
d. her radiation exposure dose must remain below 4 mSv for the rest of term

A

d

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30
Q

The following does not affect the effective half-life:

a. the specific radionuclide
b. the total activity administered
c. the presence of a pathological condition
d. the type of radiopharmaceutical administered

A

b

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31
Q

If a 100 uCi point source of Co-57 is missing, you should

a. continue as normal
b. report the loss to the licensing body within 24 hrs
c. wipe the area in search of contamination
d. use a Co-58 source instead

A

b

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32
Q

he radiation sticker required on a package that emits 600 mSV at the surface and has a TI of 0.5 is a

a. white sticker
b. yellow I sticker
c. yellow II sticker
d. yellow III sticker

A

b

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33
Q

The maximum exposure from a package with a transport index of 1.0 is

a. 2.5 uSv/hr
b. 5 uSv/hr
c. 10 uSv/hr
d. 25 uSv/hr

A

c

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34
Q

A package that contains an excepted quantity of radioactivity

a. does not require a radioactive label on its surface
b. can contain only solid or liquid material
c. must have an exposure reading at the surface not greater than 1.0 mSv/hr
d. there are no packages that contain radioactivity that are excepted

A

a

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35
Q

The following belong in a Type A package:

a. fissile material
b. higher activities than permitted in Type B packaging
c. only gaseous radioactivity and long-lived radioisotopes
d. most radionuclides transported by a nuclear medicine department

A

d

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36
Q

Radioactive shipment information that should be verified with the packing slip includes

a. radioisotope/radiopharmaceutical
b. radioisotope/radiopharmaceutical and activity
c. radioisotope/radiopharmaceutical, activity and shipper
d. radioisotope/radiopharmaceutical, activity, shipper and disposal method

A

c

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37
Q

Upon receipt of a radioactive package, it appears that the box is wet. You should

a. send the box back to the shipper
b. wipe test the box immediately
c. wipe test the box immediately and monitor the package at 1 m
d. contact the CNSC immediately if the contents of the box have caused this, wipe test the box immediately and monitor the package at 1 m

A

d

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38
Q

The highest allowable surface dose for packages bearing a radioactive white I label is

a. 0.5 mSv/hr
b. 5 mSv/hr
c. 50 mSv/hr
d. 500 mSv/hr

A

b

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39
Q

A radiopharmaceutical supplier can ship materials to a department or other user once

a. all QC has been done on a radiopharmaceutical
b. it has a written request from the user
c. it has proof that the user is a licensed facility
d. the shipment has been recorded on the log

A

c

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40
Q

The following packages must be wipe tested upon receipt:

a. white I
b. yellow II
c. yellow III
d. all of these

A

d

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41
Q

The following is false:

a. a white I label indicates activity less than 5 Bq/cm2
b. a “Caution: Radiation Material” sign is necessary in areas with a dose rate > 25 Sv/hr
c. a yellow II label indicates an exposure of 5 - 100 mSv/hr
d. A yellow III label indicates greater than 5 mSv/hr at 1 m

A

a

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42
Q

When transporting radioactivity,

a. a package surveyed at 25 mSv/hr will have a transport index of 25
b. no package can have an exposure of greater than 2.5 Sv/hr at the surface
c. nuclear medicine packages must be in a B-type container
d. public mail can be used for transport if the dose is < or = to 2.5 mSv/hr

A

d

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43
Q

The following is an acceptable method of disposal:

a. 37,000 KBq of Tc-99m in 10 kg of dry garbage
b. a generator column thrown into the regular garbage if it has a survey reading of 25 mSv/hour
c. 1 uCi of I-131 in 1 L of water
d. 0.1 uCi/m3 of I-131 in an incinerator

A

a

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44
Q

An appropriate wipe protocol would be

a. sealed sources should be wipe tested immediately before use if stored for >12 months
b. wipe test a sealed source if it is more than 25 MBq
c. wipe test sealed sources twice a year
d. only use dry swabs for wiping

A

a

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45
Q

When receiving a shipment of 2,000 mCi of I-131, you should

a. swipe any surface that appears to be damaged
b. swipe the entire package surface
c. swipe the bottom of the package and any damaged surface
d. randomly select an area about 10 x 10 cm and wipe it

A

b

46
Q

If you receive a package which has removable radioactive contamination in excess of 22,000 dpm per 100 / cm2, you should

a. immediately send it back to the supplier
b. immediately contact the final carrier and telephone the regulatory body
c. wash the package with a decontaminant and redo the swipe
d. open the package and put the packing materials into waste storage

A

b

47
Q

Shipment assays should be within _____ of those that you obtain with your own dosimeter.

a. ± 1%
b. ± 3%
c. ± 10%
d. ± 20%

A

c

48
Q

The following poses the greatest radiation hazard:

a. inhalation of an radioiodine-containing compound
b. swallowing Tc-99m sulfur colloid
c. inhaling Xe-133
d. having small cuts on your hands

A

a

49
Q

A P-32 source should be shielded using

a. lead
b. plastic/Lucite
c. aluminum
d. no shielding required for this source

A

b

50
Q

The following would provide the highest radiation dose to a patient:

a. inhaling the vapors from 3,700 MBq of I-131
b. an injection of 740 MBq of Tc-99m MDP
c. ingesting 370 KBq of C-14
d. ingesting 37 MBq of Sr-89

A

d

51
Q

Acceptable shielding would be provided by

a. a lead syringe shield for I-123 and Lucite for B- emitters
b. Lucite for B- emitters
c. a lead syringe shield for I-123 and lead glass for gamma emitters contained in a syringe
d. a lead syringe shield for I-123, Lucite for B- emitters and lead glass gamma emitters contained in a syringe

A

d

52
Q

To limit the radiation absorbed dose from a renal scan, the patient should

a. void frequently
b. limit the time spent with small children over the next 24 hrs
c. wear a lead apron
d. take Lugol’s solution

A

a

53
Q

The ALARA concept

a. determines the MPBB, is primarily concerned with understanding radiation risks and is not concerned with non-occupationally exposed individuals
b. determines the MPBB and is not concerned with non-occupationally exposed individuals
c. is primarily concerned with understanding radiation risks and takes into account the costs of various dose reducing options
d. determines the MPBB, is primarily concerned with understanding radiation risks, is not concerned with non-occupationally exposed individuals and takes into account the costs of various dose-reducing options

A

c

54
Q

A patient was treated with 50 mCi of I-131. The approximate exposure rate at 10 ft from this patient

a. this cannot be determined without a specific gamma constant
b. is 18.5 mSv/hr
c. depends on the type of tissue involved
d. is 10.0 mSv/hr

A

a

55
Q

The Ten Day Rule

a. guarantees that a woman is not pregnant
b. ensures that the woman’s exposure is minimal at this time
c. helps reduce the risk of exposing an embryo
d. can only be applied to women undergoing diagnostic studies

A

c

56
Q

The approximate effective half-life of Tc-99m MDP (biological half-life is 24 hrs) is

a. 0.21 hrs
b. 5 hrs
c. 6 hrs
d. 24 hrs

A

b

57
Q

For background radiation,

a. medical sources contribute more background to the general population than natural sources
b. cosmic radiation varies in intensity depending on the specific location on the Earth’s surface
c. it takes into account occupational exposures
d. it is typically measured in terms of tenths of mGy/yr

A

b

58
Q

To reasonably decrease radiation dose to a patient,

a. use a minimal injected dose
b. use a minimal injected dose and decrease the amount of time spent with the patient
c. use a minimal injected dose, decrease the amount of time spent with the patient and have the patient wear a lead apron
d. decrease the amount of time spent with the patient, have the patient wear a lead apron and use a different injection technique

A

a

59
Q

To reduce your radiation exposure,

a. increase the distance from your patients
b. decrease the time spent with your patients and increase the distance from your patients
c. wear a TLD, monitor yourself upon leaving the department and increase the distance from your patients
d. wear a TLD, monitor yourself upon leaving the department, decrease the time spent with your patients and increase the distance from your patients

A

b

60
Q

A point source measured at a distance of 1 m results in 1,000 photons being detected. At a distance of 5 m,

a. it is decreased by a factor of 5
b. it does not change
c. it is increased to 25, 000 times the original amount
d. it is decreased by 25

A

d

61
Q

A source of 5,000 photons is measured at a distance of 1 m. A barrier is placed 5 m away. It is necessary to reduce the exposure from the source to less than 10 photons. The minimum number of HVLs you will need is

a. 500
b. 9
c. 5
d. cannot be determined without knowing the barrier substance

A

b

62
Q

The approximate HVL in lead for Tc-99m is

a. 2.5 cm
b. 0.25 cm
c. 2.5 mm
d. 0.25 mm

A

d

63
Q

The exposure rate from the 364 KeV photons of a patient treated with 100 mCi of I-131 would be measured in

a. rad/cm2
b. Gy/hr
c. sieverts/hr
d. R/hr

A

d

64
Q

The ALARA principle is

a. an attempt to minimize radiation dose levels to patients
b. to regulate the handling of radioactive material
c. a guide to reduce occupational exposure
d. a plan of action that the RSO is expected to follow in the event of a regional radiation accident

A

c

65
Q

A patient registers 40 C/kg/hr at 1 m. The exposure level will register 100 mC/kg/hr at a distance of

a. 20.0 m
b. 2.00 m
c. 0.0025 m
d. 6.32 m

A

a

66
Q

The half-value layer is

a. 2.5 mm of Pb for Tc-99m
b. approximately 0.3 of a TVL (tenth-value layer)
c. unaffected by the density of the absorber
d. the amount of absorber needed to reduce the energy of the incident photons to one-half of their original energy

A

b

67
Q

I-131 has a specific gamma ray constant of 2.2 R/mCi/hr at 1 cm. Ten (10) mCi of I-131 at 1 m with 6 mm of Pb placed between the source and technologist will yield a dose rate of

a. 22 R/hr
b. 5.5 R/hr
c. 0.6 mR/hr
d. cannot be determined without knowing the HVL for Pb

A

d

68
Q

When shielding for I-131,

a. it is best not to have Pb as an attenuator because the Pb will cause bremsstrahlung
b. a low density, hydrogenated material will be a better attenuator than tungsten or lead
c. the density will not affect the mass attenuation coefficient
d. the total amount of activity should not be used to determine the amount of attenuator; rather the type of emissions determines the shielding

A

c

69
Q

Properties of the radiopharmaceutical that will affect the patient’s absorbed dose include the

a. amount and type of radionuclide, radiochemical purity of the substance and route of administration
b. amount and type of radionuclide and route of administration
c. radiochemical purity of the substance and radionuclidic purity
d. radiochemical purity of the substance, route of administration and radionuclidic purity

A

d

70
Q

When working in a nuclear medicine facility, the part of a technologist’s body that normally receives the highest radiation dose is the

a. lens of the eye
b. hands
c. gonads
d. Chest

A

b

71
Q

This quarter’s TLD reading measures 35 mSv. You should

a. do nothing
b. inform the worker within 24 hrs
c. inform the AECB within 24 hrs and provide an investigation report to the AECB within 10 days
d. inform the worker within 24 hrs, inform the AECB within 24 hrs and provide an investigation report to the AECB within 10 days

A

d

72
Q

Bioassays

a. are affected by the radiopharmaceutical and the radionuclide that the individual has been in contact with
b. should be done biannually
c. are usually done by hand counts
d. can only be done for iodine and Tc containing compounds

A

a

73
Q

Bioassays are most important for

a. general duty nuclear medicine technologists
b. workers dealing with I-123
c. workers dealing with I-131
d. patients receiving multiple doses of Tc-99m

A

c

74
Q

After preparing and administering a therapeutic dose of I-131, you should be surveyed

a. on the same working day
b. within 24 hrs
c. no earlier than 6 hrs or later than 7 days
d. there is no requirement or specific schedule for this

A

c

75
Q

You are required to survey areas where radiopharmaceuticals are prepared or administered

a. daily
b. twice a week
c. weekly
d. when there is a suspected spill

A

a

76
Q

You should monitor yourself for radiation contamination

a. when you have been involved with a spill
b. when you think you may be contaminated and when you have been involved with a spill
c. when you think you may be contaminated, when you have been involved with a spill and when you leave the
d. department throughout the day, when you think you may be contaminated, when you have been involved with a spill and when you leave the department

A

b

77
Q

A patient received a therapy dose of 1,750 mCi of I-131. After receiving the dose, the measured exposure rate at 1 meter was 55 mC/hr. The patient is monitored 4 days later using exactly the same geometry and survey meter. The new reading is

a. 147 mCi
b. 51.4 mCi
c. 350 mCi
d. 1.4 mCi

A

c

78
Q

Swipes

a. are abnormally high if the counts are >500 cpm
b. never need be done in patient care areas
c. are not required by the radioisotope license
d. Do not always detect all sources of contamination

A

d

79
Q

To determine the presence of contamination when doing a wipe test, you should consider the

a. type of radionuclide being assessed
b. detector counting efficiency and wipe efficiency
c. detector counting efficiency, type of radionuclide being assessed and wipe efficiency
d. detector counting efficiency, type of radionuclide being assessed, wipe efficiency and size of the detector being used

A

c

80
Q

If you are directly involved with a radioactive spill, your first action should be to

a. locate and inform the RSO
b. inform the CNSC
c. limit access to the area
d. retrieve the contamination kit

A

c

81
Q

If there is a minor spill, your first responsibility is to

a. put up a “Caution Radiation” sign
b. restrict access and notify the persons in the area that there has been a spill
c. notify the RSO
d. survey and decontaminate the area

A

b

82
Q

The best way to remove surface contamination from the skin is usually to

a. flush the area with water
b. clean the area with lukewarm water and detergent
c. scrub the site with a nail brush
d. rub the area with isopropyl alcohol

A

b

83
Q

In the case of a major spill,

a. report the incident to the CNSC within 24 hours
b. cordon off the area until the CNSC arrives
c. inform the RSO but the CNSC need not be informed
d. clean and monitor the area and proceed with routine duties

A

a

84
Q

The following would be considered a major spill:

a. 370 MBq of Tc-99m
b. 10 scheduled quantities of I-131
c. a wipe result of 500 Bq/cm2
d. An exposure in the hot lab of 25 uSv/hr

A

?

85
Q

The following wipe results would indicate that a working area had significant contamination:

a. 5 Bq/100 cm2 of surface
b. fixed contamination of 1.0 uSv/hr at 0.5 m
c. 2.5 uSv/hr at the surface of a white I package
d. 0.1 excepted quantity on a surface

A

b

86
Q

For decontaminating skin,

a. use copious amounts of hot water
b. gently rub the area and reassess the area after cleaning
c. use copious amounts of hot water, gently rub the area and reassess the area after cleaning
d. use copious amounts of hot water, use alcohol or MEK to remove stubborn areas of activity and gently rub the area and reassess the area after cleaning

A

b

87
Q

When decontaminating, you must remember that

a. in a major spill, one scheduled quantity has been spilled
b. the first step is always to inform the RSO
c. major iodine and Tc spills are cleaned up in the same manner
d. scrubbing of the skin may be appropriate, but only if the skin is not broken

A

d

88
Q

The following would be appropriate:

a. 200 Bq from a sealed source and inform CNSC within 24 hrs
b. 1.0 mSv/hr at the surface of a yellow III package and inform RSO
c. 0.5 Bq/cm2 at the reception desk and decontaminate and inform RSO
d. 80 Bq of Tc-99m in a wipe of the floor of an imaging room and seal the room until the next day

A

c

89
Q

For storing radioactive substances,

a. generators are to be stored for 660 hrs (10 times the half-life of Mo-99)
b. the storage area should be swipe-tested every 6 months
c. the dose should not exceed 25 mSv/hr outside the storage area
d. radioisotopes such as Ga-67 and In-111 should not be stored

A

c

90
Q

An appropriate disposal method would be

a. 37 KBq of I-131 NaI/L water down the sink
b. 37 MBq of Tc-99m in 100 kg of garbage
c. vent 3.7 MBq of Xe-133 per cubic meter of air
d. 0.7 MBq of Tl-201 per kg of garbage

A

b

91
Q

A correct exempted quantity value is

a. I-131 - 1 uCi
b. Tc-99m - 10 uCi
c. Co-57 - 1 mCi
d. Tl-201 - 0.1 mCi

A

a

92
Q

A correct storage/disposal process is

a. to return sealed sources to the manufacturer
b. 1 GBq of Tc-99m could be stored for 2 days and then disposed in 1 kg of regular garbage
c. generators can be safely disposed after about 660 hrs of decay
d. 50 scheduled quantities of I-131 can be disposed down the sink in 1,000 L of water after 2 days of decay

A

a

93
Q

An I-131 source has been in decay storage for 80 days, you should now

a. monitor the source
b. remove or obliterate the label
c. wait another 80 days and then dispose of it
d. dispose of the source via the sewage system

A

a

94
Q

Based on the radiation protection principles,

a. radiation exposure is directly proportional to the time the person is exposed to the radiation dose
b. radiation exposure is indirectly proportional to the time the person is exposed to the radiation dose
c. the longer the exposure, the smaller the radiation dose
d. total radiation exposure does not depend on the time that the person is exposed to the radiation source

A

a

95
Q

Bioassays are required for I-131 and I-125 radionuclides when the level of radioiodine activity handled (volatile or dispersible) exceeds

a. 1 mCi in a fume hood
b. 10 mCi in a glovebox
c. 1 mCi open bench
d. 100 mCi in a fume hood

A

c

96
Q

When receiving an A-type package, you should

a. monitor package prior to unpacking
b. let it stand for 12 hrs before unpacking
c. ensure that only the RSO may open this package
d. ensure that the package was sent with defaced labels

A

a

97
Q

When transporting a Type A package,

a. always leave the case unlocked
b. 4 transport radioactive signs must be present on the vehicle
c. no transportation of dangerous goods forms are needed
d. no necessary precautions are needed for this type

A

b

98
Q

The principles of ALARA include

a. dilution, distance and time
b. dilution, dumping and shielding
c. shielding, time and distance
d. distance, shielding and dilution

A

c

99
Q

The maximum permissible dose for a nuclear medicine technologist is

a. 500 mSv/yr whole body
b. 7.5 Sv/yr whole body
c. 13 mSv/quarter whole body
d. 75 mSv/yr whole body

A

a

100
Q

Hot trash (with a physical T1/2 of < 65 days) should be stored to decay for

a. 3 months
b. 3 half-lives
c. 10 half-lives
d. when activity measured at the surface is less than 2 mR/hr

A

c

101
Q

The annual limit on the occupational dose for an adult is

a. 50 uSv
b. 150 uSv
c. 50 mSv
d. 0.5 Sv

A

c

102
Q

The allowable exposure rate for packages containing radioactive materials with a type II label is

a. < 0.5 mSv/hr at surface and none at 1 m
b. 0.5 - 50 mSv/hr at surface and < 1 at 1 m
c. > 50 mSv/hr at surface and > 1 at 1 m
d. > 50 mSv/hr at surface and >10 at 1 m

A

c

103
Q

Radionuclidic waste should be decayed for a minimum of ___ half-lives and then surveyed for disposal.

a. 4
b. 6
c. 10
d. 12

A

c

104
Q

A radioactive sample should be decayed in storage for at least

a. 4 half-lives
b. 8 half-lives
c. 10 half-lives
d. 12 half-lives

A

c

105
Q

When preparing doses, you can minimize your radiation exposure by

a. spending as little time as possible around open sources
b. putting as much distance as possible between you and open sources
c. always using protective shielding when working around open sources
d. all of the above

A

d

106
Q

Dose calibrator and survey meter records must be keep for at least

a. 1 yr
b. 3 yrs
c. 5 yrs
d. 6 yrs

A

b

107
Q

The half-value layer for 140 KeV gamma rays in lead is about?

a. 0.0015 cm
b. 0.0256 cm
c. 0.2190 cm
d. 0.4021 cm

A

b

108
Q

Tc-99m should be decay stored for at least

a. 24 hrs
b. 48 hrs
c. 60 hrs
d. 72 hrs

A

c

109
Q

The maximum amount of Tc-99m allowed in each liter of sewage is

a. 1 MBq
b. 3.7 MBq
c. 1 KBq
d. 37 KBq

A

d

110
Q

When dispensing radiopharmaceuticals, we don’t need to indicate the following:

a. lot #
b. total activity
c. date
d. generator manufacturer

A

d

z Nuc Med z (14 decks)

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