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MOCK practice test Flashcards

1
Q 
The desired effect of I-131 administration for a cancerous thyroid is:
A. To block thyroid function
B. To Reduce thyroid function
C. To inhibit iodide oxidation
D. Ablation of thyroid tissue
E. Reduce the chance for hyperthyroidism
A

D. Ablation of thyroid tissue

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2
Q 
Adenosine is what type of pharmaceutical?
A. Beta Blocker
B. Antiarrhythmic Drug
C. Calcium Blocker
D. Vasoconstrictor
E. Vasodilator
A

E. Vasodilator

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3
Q 
Thallium 201 is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_analog
A. Potassium
B. Calcium
C. Cesium
D. Sodium
E. Gallium
A

A. Potassium

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4
Q 
Captopril Renal Scans are used to assess:
A. Obstruction
B. Chronic Renal Failure
C. Renal Artery Stenosis
D. Acute Renal Failure
E. Pyleonephritis
A

C. Renal Artery Stenosis

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5
Q 
Diffuse reduction in liver uptake with colloid shift to the spleen and bone marrow is seen in:
A. Hepatoma
B. Cirrhosis
C. Anemia
D. Liver Metastasis
E. Cystic Lesions
A

B. Cirrhosis

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6
Q

A Transmission Scan Refers To:
A. Use of external viewing stations
B. Placing a patient distant from a detector
C. Using a radionuclide as an external source
D. Combination X-Ray and radionuclide scan
E. A Dynamic list mode acquisition

A

C. Using a radionuclide as an external source

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7
Q 
Increased Gallium 67 Uptake is Typically Found In:
A. Neoplasms
B. Abscesses
C. Surgical Wounds
D. Lactating Breasts
E. All of the above
A

E. All of the above

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8
Q 
The number of Tc-99m MAA particles may need to be adjusted in patients with:
A. Severe Pulmonary Hypertension
B. History of Myocardial Infarction
C. Aortic Stenosis
D. Cirrhosis
E. Renal Disease
A

A. Severe Pulmonary Hypertension

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9
Q 
Placing a source with high activity near a scintillation detector may result in:
A. Excessive Gain
B. High Voltage Discharge
C. High Information Density
D. Dead Time Counting Loss
E. Scintillation Crystal Damage
A

D. Dead Time Counting Loss

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10
Q 
Dose calibrators are usually which type of detectors?
A. NaI Detectors
B. Geiger Counters
C. Ionization Chambers
D. Solid State Detectors
E. Multi-Crystal Detectors
A

C. Ionization Chambers

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11
Q 
Indium 111 DTPA is administered\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for Cisternography
A. Orally
B. Intramuscularly
C. Intrathecally
D. Intravenously
E. Subcutaneously
A

C. Intrathecally

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12
Q 
Which of the following is not pertinent history prior to performing a Hepatobiliary Scan:
A. Allergy to Iodine
B. Patient is taking Morphine for pain
C. Patient’s latest meal was 1 hour ago
D. Patient has not eaten in 2 Days.
E. All are pertinent
A

A. Allergy to Iodine

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13
Q 
A 256x256 image acquired in byte mode will require how many bytes of memory
A. 256
B. 512
C. 25,600
D. 52,245
E. 65,536
A

E. 65,536

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14
Q 
What is the NRC Limit of Aluminum Ion Concentration in Tc04-
A. 0.15 ug/ml
B. 1.0 ug/ml
C. 10 ug/ml
D. 100 ug/ml
E. None of the Above
A

C. 10 ug/ml

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15
Q 
The radionuclidic purity of a radioisotope can be determined using:
A. Gamma Spectroscopy
B. Paper Chromatography
C. Ion Exchange Chromatography
D. Measuring Radiation Intensity
E. A Dose Calibrator
A

E. A Dose Calibrator

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16
Q 
Chromatography procedures in Nuc. Med. Are used to Determine:
A. Radionuclidic Purity
B. Radiopharmaceutical sterility
C. Radiochemical Purity
D. Radioactive Decay
E. Molybdenum Contamination
A

C. Radiochemical Purity

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17
Q 
Compared to Tc-99m, Mo-99 has
A. A shorter half-life
B. Lower energy gamma rays
C. More nucleons in the nucleus
D. A stronger affinity for alumina
E. Less beta ray emission
A

D. A stronger affinity for alumina

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18
Q 
How many half-lives must you decay in storage radioactive material before disposal
A. 1
B. 10
C. 20
D. 100
E. 1000
A

B. 10

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19
Q 
The Radiopharmaceutical of choice for a Salivary Gland Study is:
A. Tc-99m DTPA
B. Tc-99m Pertechnetate
C. Tc-99m MDP
D. Tc-99m Glucoheptonate
E. Tc-99m Tetrofosmin
A

B. Tc-99m Pertechnetate

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20
Q 
An Injection of Tc04- Would Have the Greatest Concentration in:
A. The Bowel
B. The Kidneys
C. The Myocardium
D. The Gastric Mucosa
E. Kuppfer Cells
A

D. The Gastric Mucosa

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21
Q 
In an abnormal gastroesophageal reflux scan, activity may be seen in:
A. Stomach
B. Kidneys
C. Duodenum
D. Colon
E. Lungs
A

E. Lungs

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22
Q 
Which Renal Imaging Agent is Cleared Virtually 100% by Glomerular Filtration
A. DMSA
B. DTPA
C. MAG3
D. Glucoheptonate
E. I-131 Hippurate
A

B. DTPA

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23
Q 
In-111 Octreotide is used to detect which type of tumors?
A. Colon
B. Skeletal
C. Neuroendocrine
D. Ovarian
E. Pulmonary
A

C. Neuroendocrine

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24
Q

When Performing a Lung Ventilation Study Utilizing Xe-133, the room should have positive
Pressure (True or False)

A

False

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25
Q 
If a Radionuclide Decays by Electron Capture, a\_\_\_\_\_\_ will also be emitted
A. Positron
B. Annihilation Photon
C. Characteristic X-Ray
D. Negatron
E. Proton
A

C. Characteristic X-Ray

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26
Q 
Dedicated PET scanners use \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for the detector:
A. Ionization Chamber
B. Geiger-Mueller Counter
C. BGO (Bismuth Germanate)
D. Pocket Dosimeter
E. NaI
A

C. BGO (Bismuth Germanate)

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27
Q 
The Primary Function of the Collimator is to Eliminate:
A. Obliquely entering gamma rays
B. Dead-time losses
C. Non-uniformity
D. Compton scattered radiation
E. All of the above
A

A. Obliquely entering gamma rays

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28
Q

Specific Activity is the:
A. Specific Organ of Radiopharmaceutical Uptake
B. Activity of isotope after 10 Half-lives
C. Activity required for a Procedure
D. Amount of Radioactivity per unit mass
E. Activity needed to create LD 50/30

A

D. Amount of Radioactivity per unit mass

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29
Q 
Which Procedure Does Not Require a Collimator:
A. Positron Emission Tomography
B. Anger Camera Scintigraphy
C. Triple Head Tomography
D. Extrinsic Uniformity Calibration
A

A. Positron Emission Tomography

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30
Q 
According to NRC Part 20: the Maximum exposure rate in an Uncontrolled area is:
A. 25 mr/hr
B. 50 mr/hr
C. 5 mr/hr
D. 2 mr/hr
E. 0.2 mr/hr
A

D. 2 mr/hr

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31
Q 
Exchange of Gasses Between Air in the Lungs and the Blood Occurs in the:
A. Alveoli
B. Bronchi
C. Trachea
D. Esophagus
E. None of the Above
A

A. Alveoli

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32
Q 
What is the Gamma Ray Energy of Sr-89
A. 210 Kev
B. 189 Kev
C. 375 Kev
D. 445 Kev
E. None of the Above
A

E. None of the Above

583

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33
Q 
What is the Clinical Use of Sm-153
A. Therapy for Polycythemia Vera
B. Palliative Therapy for Bone Metastasis
C. Bone Imaging
D. Renal Imaging
E. Therapy for Lymphoma
A

B. Palliative Therapy for Bone Metastasis

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34
Q 
What Radiopharmaceutical is used for the treatment of Polycythemia Vera:
A. Sr-89 Metastron
B. I-131 Hippuran
C. P-32 Sodium Phosphate
D. P-32 Sodium Chromate
E. In-111 Oncoscint
A

C. P-32 Sodium Phosphate

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35
Q 
What are the qualities of Tc-MAA and Tc-SC which do not allow testing for RH-Tc
A. Particulate
B. Pyrogenic
C. Carcinogenic
D. Unstable
E. Uncontrollable
A

A. Particulate

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36
Q 
In a prepared radiopharmaceutical kit, which of the following is Not a form Tc-99m present:
A. Bound Radiopharmaceutical
B. Unbound (Free) Tc04-
C. Molybdenum bound Tc-99m
D. Hydrolyzed Reduced Tc-99m
E. All of these may be present
A

C. Molybdenum bound Tc-99m

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37
Q 
A MAG3 Renal Scan with Lasix (Furosemide) is used to Diagnose:
A. Renal Vascular Hypertension
B. Renal Tumors
C. Obstructive Uropathy
D. Transplant Rejection
E. Hydronephrosis
A

C. Obstructive Uropathy

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38
Q 
What are the radiation exposure limits of a Yellow III labeled box at the surface and 3 ft, 
respectively? 
A. 200 mr/hr and 10 mr/hr
B. 200 mr/hr and 50 mr/hr
C. 50 mr/hr and 10 mr/hr
D. 10 mr/hr and 2 mr/hr
E. There is no limit
A

A. 200 mr/hr and 10 mr/hr

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39
Q 
In Tl-201 imaging, What is the optimal delay time between stress and rest images
A. Immediate 
B. 30 - 60 Minutes
C. 1 - 2 Hours
D. 3 - 4 Hours
E. 6 - 8 Hours
A

D. 3 - 4 Hours

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40
Q 
What is the recommended Testing Frequency on a dose Calibrator for Accuracy:
A. Annually and after repair
B. Semi-Annually and after repair
C. At Installation and after repair
D. Daily and after repair
E. Quarterly and after repair
A

A. Annually and after repair

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41
Q 
What is the cause of multiple “hot-spots” in a Tc-99m MAA Perfusion Lung Scan:
A. Bolus Injection
B. Improper needle gauge
C. Free Tc04-
D. Blood mixing with the MAA
E. Normal variant
A

D. Blood mixing with the MAA

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42
Q 
A dose of radiation which kills 50% of an exposed population in 30 days is:
A. LET 50
B. LD 50/30
C. LD 30/50
D. RBE 50/30
E. None of the Above
A

B. LD 50/30

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43
Q 
What is the Half-life and Energy of I 123?
A. 60 Days and 122 Kev
B. 13 Hours and 159 Kev
C. 8 Days and 364 Kev
D. 60 Days and 35 Kev
E. 13 Hours and 247 Kev.
A

B. 13 Hours and 159 Kev

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44
Q 
What is the recommended Testing Frequency of a Dose Calibrator for Constancy:
A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Monthly
D. Quarterly
E. Annually
A

A. Daily

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45
Q 
What is the Radiopharmaceutical of Choice for Adrenal Medullary Imaging:
A. I-131/I-123 NaI
B. I-131/I-123 MIBG
C. I-131/I-123 NP-59
D. All Can Be Used
A

B. I-131/I-123 MIBG

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46
Q 
Why Do We Use Cs-137 for Constancy Testing of our Dose Calibrator:
A. Because it is Stable
B. Because it has Multiple Energies
C. Because it has a Long Half-Life
D. Because it has a Low Energy Gamma
E. All of The Above
A

C. Because it has a Long Half-Life

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47
Q 
Which Fourier Functional Image Represents a Pixel’s Change in Counts Over Time:
A. Constancy
B. Phase
C. Relativity
D. Amplitude
E. Coincidence
A

?

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48
Q 
What Radiopharmaceutical is used for “hot-spot” myocardial imaging:
A. Tc-99m MDP
B. Tc-99m PYP
C. Tc-99m Sestamibi
D. Tc-99m Tetrofosmin
E. Tl 201
A

B. Tc-99m PYP

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49
Q 
If IV Contrast is given for a CT Scan, What Effect will this have on Thyroid Imaging?
A. No Effect
B. Decreased Imaging Time
C. Decreased Iodine Uptake
D. Increased Iodine Uptake
E. Decreased Background
A

C. Decreased Iodine Uptake

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50
Q 
Inflammation of the Stomach is called:
A. Mucosa
B. Carcinoma
C. Gastritis
D. Meckels Diverticulum
E. GI Bleed
A

C. Gastritis

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51
Q 
Which of the Following is Not Accelerated by a Cyclotron:
A. Electrons
B. Protons
C. Neutrons
D. Alpha particles
E. All can be Accelerated
A

A. Neutron

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52
Q 
Fourier Phase Images of The Heart Represent:
A. Changes in Amplitude
B. Changes in Rhythm
C. Changes in Synchronization
D. Ischemic Changes
E. Myocardial Infarction
A

?

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53
Q 
What is the size of MAA Particles:
A. 100 - 200 microns
B. 10 - 20 microns
C. 10 - 90 microns
D. 1 - 10 microns
E. 100 - 900 microns
A

C. 10 - 90 microns

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54
Q

Separate Rest and Stress Injections are Required in Tc-MIBI Imaging Because of
A. Negligible Redistribution
B. Decreased Imaging Times are Required
C. Passive Distribution of Tracer
D. Increased Liver Uptake after Injection

A

A. Negligible Redistribution

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55
Q 
Areas in which radiopharmaceuticals requiring a written directive are used must be surveyed:
A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Monthly
D. Quarterly
E. No Survey Required
A

A. Daily

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56
Q 
The Stress Testing Technique of Choice for Evaluation of Coronary Flow Reserve is:
A. Exercise
B. Dipyridamole
C. Adenosine
D. Persantine
A

A. Exercise

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57
Q 
What Effect Does Captopril Have
A. Constricts the Sphincter of Oddi
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Diuretic
D. Vasodilator
E. Increases Blood Pressure
A

B. ACE inhibitor

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58
Q 
What is the Occupational Limit (NRC) for radiation dose to the eyes:
A. 2 mrem
B. 20 mrem
C. 10 Rem
D. 15 Rem
A

D. 15 Rem

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59
Q 
Which of the following do not ionize atoms?
A. Electrons
B. Positrons
C. Gamma rays
D. X-rays
E. All are ionizing
A

E. All are ionizing

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60
Q 
Linearity of a Dose Calibrator should be tested between what levels of Activity
A. Highest Activity Used and 30 uCi
B. Highest Activity Used and 10 uCi
C. 30 uCi - 30 mCi
D. 1 uCi - 100 mCi
E. Highest Activity used and 100 uCi
A

A. Highest Activity Used and 30 uCi

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61
Q 
Captopril Causes a/an:
A. Increase in Blood Pressure
B. Decrease in Blood Pressure
C. Increase in Heart Rate
D. Increase in Urine Production
E. None of the Above
A

B. Decrease in Blood Pressure

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62
Q 
Mo-99/Tc-99m Generators are in \_\_\_\_\_\_Equilibrium
A. Ischemic
B. Secular
C. Transient
D. Stable
E. Transmutational
A

C. Transient

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63
Q 
What is the Largest Solid Organ In the Body:
A. Lungs
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Stomach
E. Gallbladder
A

B. Liver

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64
Q 
What is the Testing Frequency for Gamma Camera Spatial Resolution and Linearity?
A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Monthly
D. Quarterly
E. Semi-Annually
A

B. Weekly

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65
Q 
A Flood Correction For SPECT Uniformity in 64x64 matrix should have \_\_\_\_\_counts
A. 500K
B. 1 Million
C. 10 Million
D. 30 Million
E. 100 Million
A

D. 30 Million

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66
Q 
What is the NRC Limit of Mo-99 in a Tc-99m Eluate (at time of administration):
A. 0.04 uCi Mo-99 per mCi Tc-99m
B. 0.07 uCi Mo-99 per mCi Tc-99m
C. 0.10 uCi Mo-99 per mCi Tc-99m
D. 0.15 uCi Mo-99 per mCi Tc-99m
E. 0.25 uCi Mo-99 per mCi Tc-99m
A

D. 0.15 uCi Mo-99 per mCi Tc-99m

67
Q 
What Does CFOV refer to:
A. Cardiac Function
B. Frequency Cutoff 
C. Coronary Volume
D. Center of NaI crystal
E. Ventricular Ejection Fraction
A

D. Center of NaI crystal

68
Q 
Which of the Following is Suitable for Blood Pool Imaging:
A. Tc-99m Sulfur Colloid
B. Tc-99m MAA
C. Tc-99m Tagged Red Blood Cells
D. Tc-99m DTPA
E. Tc-99m Labeled Leukocytes
A

C. Tc-99m Tagged Red Blood Cells

69
Q 
A pinhole collimator is valuable for Imaging:
A. Large, Flat Organs (e.g. Liver)
B. Large, Compact Organs (e.g. Brain)
C. Small Organs (e.g. Thyroid)
D. The Skeletal System
E. All of the Above
A

C. Small Organs (e.g. Thyroid)

70
Q 
Which of the Following describes the Relationship between RBE and LET:
A. Directly Proportional
B. Inversely Proportional
C. Bell Shaped
D. Sigmoid
A

A. Directly Proportional

71
Q 
The Hands of a Technologist Should be Monitored by a:
A. Pocket Dosimeter
B. A TLD
C. A Film Badge
D. An Ionization Chamber
A

B. A TLD

72
Q 
According to the Inverse Square Law, Doubling the Distance from a source:
A. Decrease Exposure 2 Times
B. Decreases Exposure 4 Times
C. Decreases Exposure 8 Times
D. Decreases Exposure 16 Times
A

B. Decreases Exposure 4 Times

73
Q 
Boiling a Sulfur Colloid Preparation too Long Results in:
A. Particles which are too small
B. Particles which are too large
C. Chemically Unstable Particles
D. Unsterile Particles
E. Unreduced Tc04-
A

B. Particles which are too large

74
Q 
In General, labeling with Tc-99m requires:
A. Alkaline pH
B. Neutral Solution
C. Oxidation
D. Reduction or an acid pH
E. Electron Capture
A

D. Reduction or an acid pH

75
Q 
Which Radiopharmaceutical Localizes by Active Transport:
A. Tc-99m MAA in Lungs
B. Tc-99m MDP in Bones
C. I-131 Uptake in the Thyroid
D. Tc-99m SC in the RES System
E. None of the Above
A

C. I-131 Uptake in the Thyroid

76
Q 
Tc-99m Mertiatide (MAG3) is cleared by:
A. Glomerular Filtration
B. Tubular Secretion 
C. Both
D. Neither
A

B. Tubular Secretion

77
Q 
Which of the Following is not an Indication for Performing a HMPAO Brain Scan:
A. CVA
B. Alzheimer’s Disease
C. Epileptic Seizures
D. Hydrocephalus
E. Substance Abuse
A

D. Hydrocephalus

78
Q 
Meckel’s Diverticulum Imaging is Performed with:
A. I 131 Rose Bengal
B. Tl 201 Chloride
C. Tc-99m Pertechnetate
D. Tc-99m Pyrophosphate
E. Tc-99m Labeled RBC
A

C. Tc-99m Pertechnetate

79
Q 
In Compton Effect, the Incident Photon:
A. Loses some of its initial energy
B. Is absorbed by an atom
C. Produces two opposite charged particles
D. Reduces the atomic Number of an atom
A

A. Loses some of its initial energy

80
Q 
Isobars have similar numbers of:
A. Electrons
B. Protons
C. Neutrons
D. Nucleons
A

D. Nucleons

81
Q 
How Many Microliters are in one Nanoliter?
A. 1000
B. 103
C. 0.001
D. 10-4
A

C. 0.001

82
Q 
A Nanogram is equal to a:
A. Picogram
B. Millimicrogram
C. Microgram
D. None of the Above
A

B. Millimicrogram

83
Q 
Half Value Layer is Unrelated to:
A. Density
B. Attenuation Coefficients
C. Atomic Number
D. Neutron Number
A

D. Neutron Number

84
Q 
Another term for a Single Channel Analyzer is:
A. Scaler
B. Rate Meter
C. Geiger Counter
D. Energy Discriminator
E. Post-Amplifier
A

D. Energy Discriminator

85
Q 
A Flood Field is used to Determine:
A. Camera Nonlinearity
B. Camera Nonuniformity
C. Camera Dead Time
D. Spatial Resolution
A

B. Camera Nonuniformity

86
Q 
Geiger Muller Counters have no:
A. Energy Window
B. Dead Time 
C. Sensitivity to Photons
D. Sensitivity to Electrons
A

A. Energy Window

87
Q 
Fan-Beam Collimators are most appropriate for:
A. MUGA Scans
B. SPECT cardiac Scans
C. SPECT Brain Scans
D. Thyroid Scans
A

B. SPECT cardiac Scans

88
Q 
The Adrenal Glands are:
A. Superior to the Kidneys
B. Lateral to the Kidneys
C. Medial to the Kidneys
D. Inferior to the Kidneys
A

A. Superior to the Kidneys

89
Q 
A Term Not Associated with sine waves is:
A. Amplitude
B. Contour
C. Phase
D. Frequency
A

B. Contour

90
Q 
A\_\_\_\_\_\_\_study requires the most computer storage
A. Gated SPECT
B. Whole Body Scan
C. MUGA
D. Ventilation/Perfusion Lung Scan
A

A. Gated SPECT

91
Q 
At 48 - 72 Hours, Ga-67 Uptake will be greatest in Which Organ
A. Kidney
B. Spleen
C. Skeleton
D. Lung
E. Liver
A

E. Liver

92
Q 
Which of the Following is an Indication for Performing a Tc-99m MDP Bone Scan:
A. Bone Metastasis
B. Osteomyelitis
C. Trauma
D. Osteonecrosis
E. All Of The Above
A

E. All Of The Above

93
Q 
If you add 100 uCi to 1000 ml, then pipette out 1 ml of the solution, what is the activity?
A. 0.1 uCi
B. 1.0 uCi
C. 10.0 uCi
D. 20.0 uCi
A

A. 0.1 uCi

94
Q 
A vial of MDP contains 180 mCi in 5 ml. Approx. What volume is required for 25 mCi?
A. 0.5 ml
B. 0.7 ml
C. 0.9 ml
D. 1.2 ml
A

B. 0.7 ml

95
Q 
A vial of Tc-MAA has 45 mCi @ 8 AM. What is the approx. activity @ 12 PM ?
A. 36 mCi
B. 28 mCi
C. 25 mCi
D. 18 mCi
E. 10 mCi
A

c. 25 mCi

96
Q 
If you have 2590 mCi Tc-99m and a Moly/Tc-99m ratio of .003, how many uCi Mo-99 are in 
the solution 
A. 3.99 uCi
B. 5.54 uCi
C. 7.77 uCi
D. 10.35 uCi
E. None of the Above
A

C. 7.77 uCi

97
Q 
On July 24, a solution of I-131 contains 100 uCi. What was the activity on July 1 ?
A. 200 uCi
B. 300 uCi
C. 400 uCi
D. 600 uCi
E. 800 uCi
A

E. 800 uCi

98
Q 
What is allowable radiation exposure to a fetus of a declared pregnant radiation worker?
A. 2 mrem/hr.
B. 100 mrem/yr.
C. 50 mrem over the gestation period
D. 500 mrem over the gestation period
E. 5000 mrem
A

D. 500 mrem over the gestation period

99
Q

Which of the following constitutes a reportable event?
A. 100 mCi Tc04- given to the wrong pt.
B. 11.5 mCi I-131 given, 10 mCi ordered.
C. 20 mCi I-131 given, 10 mCi ordered.
D. 4 mCi Sr 89 given, no written directive.
E. C & D

A

E. C & D

100
Q 
Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals is best shielded by Lucite?
A. Tc-99m
B. Ga-67
C. Sr-89
D. In-111
E. All should be shielded in lead
A

C. Sr-89

101
Q

Given the following elution; 1500 mCi Tc-99m, 30 uCi Mo-99 @ 8 A.M. Is eluate still
usable @ 6 P.M on the same day?

A

?

102
Q 
When performing a Tc-99m generator elution, what is the cause of no bubbles seen in the 
saline vial when elution is started?
A. Generator is expired
B. Generator not eluted within 24 hours
C. Evacuated vial has no vacuum 
D. Generator was eluted within 4 hours
E. None of the above
A

?

103
Q

If upon elution of a Tc-99m generator your Mo-99/Tc-99m ratio is .185 what should you do
A. Re-elute the generator.
B. Cancel all the patients for that day.
C. Check Moly canister for contamination.
D. Assure proper dose calibrator operation.
E. C & D

A

E. C & D

104
Q

“bulls eye artifacts” in tomographic slices are the result of?
A. Improper collimator
B. Gamma camera non-uniformity
C. Patient movement
D. Improper speed of rotation
E. Improper center of rotation calibration

A

B. Gamma camera non-uniformity

105
Q 
Which of the following can be counted in a scintillation well counter?
A. 0.06 uCi H-3
B. 0.6 mCi Tc-99m
C. 0.5 uCi I-131
D. 0.1 uCi C-14
E. All of the above
A

E. All of the above

106
Q 
Which % uniformity is usually the largest?
A. UFOV integral
B. CFOV integral
C. UFOV differential
D. CFOV differential
A

A. UFOV integral

107
Q 
Which of the following dose calibrator tests is performed least frequently?
A. Geometry
B. Linearity
C. Constancy
D. Accuracy
A

A. Geometry

108
Q 
To obtain a flood field using a point source, you must?
A. Remove the collimator
B. Widen the energy window
C. Decrease the CRT intensity
D. All of the above
A

?

109
Q

The biologically reactive species formed during radiolysis of water are thought to be?
A. Oxygen and Hydrogen
B. The hydrogen and hydroxyl free radical
C. The heavy water molecule
D. All of the above

A

A. Oxygen and Hydrogen

110
Q

What labeling is required for a radioactive package reading 3.5 mr/hr at 1 meter and 95
mr/hr at the surface?
A. White I
B. Yellow II
C. Yellow III and Transportation Index 3.5
D. Yellow IV and Transportation Index 95

A

C. Yellow III and Transportation Index 3.5

111
Q 
An area should be treated as contaminated if the survey meter indicates:
A. 0.01 mrem/hr at 2 cm.
B. 0.1 mrem/hr at 2 cm.
C. 0.1 mrem/hr at 1 meter
D. None of these is correct
A

C. 0.1 mrem/hr at 1 meter

112
Q 
The Roentgen applies to all except:
A. 2.2 MeV x-rays in air
B. 140 KeV gamma rays
C. 1.5 MeV betas in air
D. 1.0 MeV Photons
A

C. 1.5 MeV betas in air

113
Q 
What is the maximum amount of Mo-99 which could be injected in a 25 mCi MDP dose?
A. 0.15 uCi
B. 1.5 uCi
C. 3.75 uCi
D. 5.05 uCi
A

C. 3.75 uCi

114
Q 
Radiopharmaceuticals requiring refrigeration should be stored at what temp. range?
A. -10 to -20 C
B. -10 to 2 C
C. 2 to 8 C
D. 8 to 15 C
A

C. 2 to 8 C

115
Q 
Which of the following radiopharmaeuticals is not biodistributed via compartmental 
localization?
A. Sulfur Colloid for L/S imaging
B. Tagged RBC’s for MUGA studies
C. In-111 DTPA for Cisternography
D. All of the Above
A

A. Sulfur Colloid for L/S imaging

116
Q 
Approximately what % of the injected dose of Tc-99m MDP is concentrated in the bones?
A. 10 %
B. 20%
C. 50%
D. 80%
A

C. 50%

117
Q 
During a Myocardial Perfusion study, the radiopharmaceutical is administered as:
A. An Infusion Injection
B. A Bolus Injection
C. An Oral Medication
D. An Intrathecal Injection
A

B. A Bolus Injection

118
Q 
Recurrent urinary tract infections and vesicoureteral reflux are indications for:
A. Cisternography
B. Cystograms
C. Captopril Renal Imaging
D. Lasix Renal Imaging
A

B. Cystograms

119
Q 
To visualize myocardial infarction using Tc-99m PYP, how long after administration should 
imaging be performed?
A. Immediately
B. 24 - 48 Hours
C. 3 - 4 Hours
D. 3 - 4 Days
A

C. 3 - 4 Hours

120
Q

Selection of acquisition parameters requires consideration of:
A. Activity Administered
B. Time after Radiopharmaceutical Administration
C. Energy of the Isotope
D. Patient’s ability to remain still
E. All of the Above

A

E. All of the Above

121
Q 
The radiation emanating from an x-ray tube is mainly:
A. Characteristic x- rays
B. Electrons
C. Bremsstrahlung Radiation
D. Unstable Gamma Rays
A

C. Bremsstrahlung Radiation

122
Q

The energy released as a result of an annihilation reaction is in the form of?
A. A single Photon
B. Two photons @ 180 degrees opposite.
C. Two particles having opposite charges.
D. Two particles having identical charges.

A

B. Two photons @ 180 degrees opposite.

123
Q 
Which of the following represents the fraction of photons interacting in a specific thickness 
of material:
A. LET
B. Mrem
C. Range
D. Attenuation Coefficient
A

D. Attenuation Coefficient

124
Q 
How long is a Licensee required to keep Mo-99 records?
A. One Year
B. Three Years
C. Five Years
D. Ten Years
E. Until License is no longer in force.
A

B. Three Years

125
Q 
During a room survey, a target level is exceeded. Immediate action required is
A. Clean up the contaminated site.
B. Contact the Radiation Safety Officer
C. Contact the NRC.
D. Evacuate the Area.
A

D. Evacuate the Area.

126
Q 
Which of the following stress studies is affected by caffeine consumption?
A. Treadmill Exercise
B. Persantine Pharmacological Stress
C. Adenosine Pharmacological Stress
D. Dobutamine Pharmacological Stress
E. B,C and D only
A

E. B,C and D only

127
Q 
At what % of allowable limits do employees require film badges?
A. 5 %
B. 10 %
C. 25 %
D. 50 %
A

B. 10 %

128
Q 
In Hepatobiliary Imaging, if the bowel is visualized but not the Gallbladder, what drug can 
be administered?
A. CCK
B. Lasix
C. Morphine
D. Captopril
A

C. Morphine

129
Q 
There is 30 mm between two points that are 6 pixels apart. What is the pixel size?
A. 1 mm.
B. 5 mm
C. 10 mm
D. 30 mm.
A

B. 5 mm

130
Q 
We have 50 mCi in 10 ml, and we want a solution Of 50 uCi/ml. How much water needs to 
be added to this solution?
A. 1090 ml.
B. 90 ml.
C. 990 ml.
D. 490 ml.
A

C. 990 ml

131
Q 
The purpose of a tourniquet when performing venipuncture is to increase:
A. Blood Flow
B. Venous Pressure
C. Arterial Pressure
D. Arterial and Venous Pressure
A

B. Venous Pressure

132
Q 
Cerebral Spinal Fluid normally flows within the:
A. Venous Sinuses
B. Subarachnoid Space
C. Subdural Space
D. Blood Brain Barrier
A

B. Subarachnoid Space

133
Q

Angiotensin causes a decrease in Blood Pressure?
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

134
Q 
At what level does Lasix affect Urine Production?
A. Glomerular Bed
B. Renal Tubules
C. Loop of Henle
D. Renal Pelvis
A

B. Renal Tubules

135
Q

If a scan is ordered incorrectly by a nuc. med. physician, what should a technologist do?
A. Perform the scan the tech. Feels is correct.
B. Notify the physician of the error.
E. Do the scan that was ordered by the nuc. med. physician.
F. Notify the NRC.

A

B. Notify the physician of the error.

136
Q

What level of Radiation requires the posting of a “Caution Radiation Area” sign?
A. Any area where radioactive materials are used or stored.
B. Any accessible area where exposure of 0.005 rem. in 1 hour @ 30 cm is possible.
C. Any accessible area where exposure to 0.1 rem in 1 hour @ 30 cm is possible.

A

B. Any accessible area where exposure of 0.005 rem. in 1 hour @ 30 cm is possible.

137
Q 
What is the record keeping requirements for personnel radiation exposure records?
A. One Year
B. Three Years
C. Five Years
D. Ten Years
E. Until license is no longer in force.
A

E. Until license is no longer in force.

138
Q

What is the definition of the “critical organ”?
A. The organ of interest on a specific imaging study.
B. The organ which receives the greatest radiation exposure.
C. The organ which can be critically affected by the wrong radiopharmaceutical.

A

B. The organ which receives the greatest radiation exposure.

139
Q

Focal areas of increased uptake in a linear pattern on 4 adjacent ribs on a bone scan would
represent?
A. Metastatic disease from prostate cancer?
B. Trauma to the chest wall?
C. Localized Osteoporosis?
D. Normal breast uptake?
E. Paget

A

B. Trauma to the chest wall

140
Q 
Which of the following patterns suggests myocardial ischemia ?
A. + Rest MIBI, + Stress MIBI
B. + Rest MIBI, - Stress Tl-201
C. - Rest MIBI, - Stress MIBI
D. + Rest Tl-201, + Stress MIBI
E. - Rest Tl-201, + Stress Tl-201
A

B. + Rest MIBI, - Stress Tl-201

141
Q 
According to NRC regulations, the annual occupational dose limit to the skin and 
extremities is?
A. 0.1 rem
B. 5 rem
C. 15 rem
D. 50 rem
E. 500 rem
A

D. 50 rem

142
Q 
What is the testing frequency for Mo-99 (NRC Regulations)
A. Once per week
B. Once per day
C. Upon the first elution of generator
D. Upon each elution of the generator
A

D. Upon each elution of the generator

143
Q

Tracer uptake is seen in the skeleton, stomach, thyroid, and salivary glands. This means?
A. Pt. imaged too soon after injection
B. Radiopharmaceutical has excess free Tc04-
C. Patient has compromised renal function
D. Incorrect radiopharmaceutical was administered

A

B. Radiopharmaceutical has excess free Tc04-

144
Q 
The action of ACD soln. in labeling RBC’s is as?
A. a cell preservative
B. a pH stabilizer
C. a reducing agent
D. an oxidizing agent
E. an anticoagulant
A

E. an anticoagulant

145
Q 
Reports of medical events sent to the NRC must contain all of the following except?
A. Whether pt or guardian was informed
B. A description of the event
C. The referring physician’s name
D. The patient’s name
A

D. The patient’s name

146
Q 
Patient dose records must be maintained for how long?
A. 3 years
B. 5 years
C. 10 years
D. Indefinitely
A

A. 3 years

147
Q 
Technologists who elute Mo-99/Tc-99m generators should be monitored with?
A. A film badge
B. A pocket dosimeter
C. A TLD (Ring Badge)
D. A & B
E. A & C
A

E. A & C

148
Q 
Which of the following Tc-99m agents is preferred for GI bleed scans
A. Human Serum Albumin
B. Mebrofenin
C. MAG3
D. Red Blood Cells
E. Sulfur Colloid
A

D. Red Blood Cells

149
Q 
A Parathyroid Adenoma will concentrate which of the following?
A. I-123 Sodium Iodide
B. Tc-99m Tc04-
C. Tc-99m Sestamibi
D. Tc-99m Tc04- or Sestamibi
A

C. Tc-99m Sestamibi

150
Q 
Areas of prolonged retention of Xe-133 in the lungs are associated with?
A. Reduced trapping in the lung
B. Obstructive lung disease
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bacterial pneumonia
E. Septal penetration
A

B. Obstructive lung disease

151
Q

Ring or “Bulls-Eye” artifacts are caused by?
A. Uncorrected flood field non-uniformities
B. Inadequate statistics
C. Insufficient angular sampling
D. Inappropriate filtering
E. Insufficient linear sampling

A

A. Uncorrected flood field non-uniformities

152
Q 
In a thyroid uptake; If the neck is counted @ 5 cm, and the std. Is counted at 20 cm.
A. The results will be normal
B. The results will be unaffected
C. The results will be erroneously low
D. The results will be erroneously high
A

D. The results will be erroneously high

153
Q 
Epididymitis and testicular torsion are differentiated using which radiopharmaceutical?
A. Tc-99m pertechnetate
B. Tc-99m RBC’s
C. Tc-99m disofenin
D. I-131 Iodohippurate
A

A. Tc-99m pertechnetate

154
Q 
Which Federal Regulation specifies occupational radiation dose limits
A. 10 USC 19
B. 10 CFR Part 20
C. 10 CFR Part 35
D. 10 CFR Part 71
E. AEC act of 1954
A

B. 10 CFR Part 20

155
Q

The purpose of using acetazolamide in brain imaging is to?
A. Tranquilize the patient
B. Differentiate infarct from ischemic areas
C. Localize seizure locations
D. Localize brain tumors

A

B. Differentiate infarct from ischemic areas

156
Q 
An unrestricted area is one in which a person would receive a radiation dose less than:
A. 2 mrem per hour
B. 5 mrem per hour
C. 10 mrem per hour
D. 20 mrem per hour
E. 50 mrem per hour
A

A. 2 mrem per hour

157
Q 
A well counter is set to collect 10K cts or stop after 5 minutes. If counter stops @ 2 min 
what is the count rate (in cpm)
A. 2,000
B. 5,000
C. 10,000
D. 20,000
E. 200,000
A

B. 5,000

158
Q 
A patient who slumps over in the chair during an injection most likely has experienced:
A. Shock
B. Syncope
C. Anaphylaxis
D. Parasthesia
E. A Seizure
A

C. Anaphylaxis

159
Q 
All of the following procedures may be performed with Tc-99m sulfur colloid except:
A. Gastric emptying study
B. GI reflux study
C. GI Bleed study
D. Meckels diverticulum study
A

D. Meckels diverticulum study

160
Q 
Sr-89 or Sm-153 can be used to treat which of the following conditions:
A. Metastatic Bone Pain
B. Polycythemia Vera
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Malignant Effusions
A

A. Metastatic Bone Pain

161
Q

A vial of PYP has 15.4 mg SnPYP in 3 ml of saline. Standard dose is 0.2 mg/kg. What
volume should be used for a 65 kg. Adult:
A. 2.2
B. 2.3
C. 2.5
D. 2.7

A

C. 2.5

162
Q 
If 175 mR/hr were measured @ 1 ft. What would be the exposure rate @ 5 ft?
A. 4 mR/hr
B. 7 mR/hr
C. 17 mR/hr
D. 20 mR/hr
A

B. 7 mR/hr

163
Q 
The administration of Tc-99m ECD includes which of the following:
A. A intrathecal injection
B. Infusion at peak exercise
C. The use of dual tourniquets
D. Minimizing environmental stimuli
A

D. Minimizing environmental stimuli

z Nuc Med z (14 decks)

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