Rad II Review Flashcards

1
Q

which is NOT an arch of the foot?

A

Vertical

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2
Q

which tarsal articulates with the 4th and 5th metatarsals and the calcaneus?

A

Cuboid

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3
Q

the bones of the instep are:

A

metatarsals

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4
Q

the MTP joints are located at the _____ of the metatarsals

A

Heads

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5
Q

Sesamoid bones are located on the ____ surface of the foot

A

plantar

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6
Q

the lateral malleolus is located on the:

A

Fibula

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7
Q

the foot is rotated ___ degrees for a medial oblique view

A

30

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8
Q

the foot must be ___for all views of the ankle

A

dorsiflexed

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9
Q

CR location for the AP Axial Foot:

A

Base of 3rd metatarsal

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10
Q

Tube angulation for Plantodorsal view of the heel:

A

40 degrees cephalic

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11
Q

located between the two tibial condyles on the superior surface of the tibia

A

Intercondylar eminence

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12
Q

the most proximal end of the fibula:

A

Apex

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13
Q

the intercondylar fossa is located on the ____ aspect of the femur

A

posterior

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14
Q

the ____ ligaments attache at the sides of the knee

A

collateral

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15
Q

the anterior of the femur:

A

Patellar

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16
Q

Classified as a fibrous, syndesmosis joint?

A

Distal tibiofibular joint

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17
Q

In a true AP projection of the tib/fib, the femoral condyles will appear ___ to the IR

A

Parallel

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18
Q

how should the CR be angled for an AP projection of the knee?

A

5 degrees cephalic

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19
Q

which is NOT a name for the axial view of the patella?

A

Skyfall

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20
Q

the lesser sciatic notch is found on the:

A

Ischium

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21
Q

the proximal tib/fib articulation is seen in the:

A

medial Oblique

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22
Q

The region above the pelvic brim:

A

False/Greater pelvis

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23
Q

the most inferior structure on the pelvis:

A

ischial tuberosity

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24
Q

what bones comprise the obturator foramen?

A
  • Ischium

- Pubis

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25
Q

the intertrochanteric is seen on the ____ aspect of the femur

A

posterior

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26
Q

for the AP Pelvis, the legs should be rotated internally ____ degrees

A

15-20

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27
Q

the most prominent part of the greater trochanter is in the same plane as the:

A

Pubic symphysis

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28
Q

the movement of the pubic symphysis is classified as:

A

Amphiarthrodial

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29
Q

what should be seen in profile on an AP hip radiograph?

A

Greater trochanter

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30
Q

the CR enters at the ____ for a lateral projection of the hip

A

femoral neck

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31
Q

the jugular notch corresponds to:

A

T2-T3

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32
Q

the xiphoid process corresponds to:

A

T10

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33
Q

Most superior aspect of the sternum

A

Manubrium

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34
Q

the body of the sternum is also know as

A

Corpus and Gladiolus

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35
Q

The _____ of the rib attached to the body of the thoracic vertebra

A

Head

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36
Q

joint between the sternum and the costal cartilage of the true ribs:

A

Sternocostal

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37
Q

the exposure for an AP projection of the lower ribs should be taken on:

A

Expiration

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38
Q

how many degrees is the patient ratoted for the RAO sternum?

39
Q

Interchondral joints are found in ribs:

40
Q

what is SID for the RAO sternum?

41
Q

which of the following curves are primary?

A

Thoracic & pelvic

42
Q

Most posterior aspect of a vertebra:

A

Spinous process

43
Q

The _____ is formed by the inferior vertebral notch articulating with the superior vertebral notch of an adjacent vertebra

A

intervertebral foramina

44
Q

Costal facets are found in the ____ vertebrae

45
Q

articulation between the superior and inferior articular processes of two vertebrae:

A

Zygapophyseal

46
Q

the inner part of the intervertebral disk:

A

Nucleus pulposus

47
Q

when performing the 45 RPO view of the C-spine, the intervertebral foramina are seen on the ____ side

48
Q

in order to see the intervertebral foramina in the T-spine, which view should be performed?

49
Q

when performing the AP projection of the C-spine at 40’’ SID, the CR should be angled:

A

15 degree cephalic

50
Q

which kVP should be used for a soft tissue neck exam?

51
Q

for a lateral c-spine, the CR should be perpendicular to:

52
Q

CR angulation for Fuch’s view:

A

30 degree cephalic

53
Q

CR location for the AP T-spine view:

54
Q

the spinal cord terminates at;

55
Q

how many vertbrae fuse to form the coccyx?

56
Q

the body of the Scottie Dog:

57
Q

the part of the lamina between the superior and inferior articular processes on a lumbar vertebrar

A

Pars interarticularis

58
Q

the eye of the Scottie Dog:

59
Q

in a lateral view of the L-spine, the ____ are seen in profile

A

Spinous processes

60
Q

the CR is angled ____ for an AP projection of the coccyx

A

10 degree caudal

61
Q

there is a ____ degree difference between OML and IOML

62
Q

the ____ is a posterior extension of the IOML

63
Q

medial junction of the upper and lower eyelids

A

inner canthus

64
Q

Reid’s baseline is another name for:

65
Q

the ethmoidal notch is on the:

A

Frontal bone

66
Q

the basilar portion of the occipital bone articulates with the body of the ___ bone:

67
Q

Posterior boundary of the sella turcica:

A

Dorsum sellae

68
Q

the zygomatic process is found on the:

A

Temporal bone

69
Q

the thick, conical process projecting from the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone:

A

Crista galli

70
Q

Most vulnerable portion of the skull to fracture:

A

Squamous portion of temporal bone

71
Q

if using the GML to position for a PA Caldwell of the skull, the CR should be angled:

A

23 degree caudal

72
Q

when evaluating an AP Caldwell view of the skull, the ____ should be seen in the lower 1/3 of the orbits

A

petrous pyramids

73
Q

when positioning the patient for a Lateral view of the skull, the ____ should be perpendicular to the dege of the casseette

74
Q

the posterior ethmoid sinuses drain into the

A

Superior nasal

75
Q

for a Towne’s view of the skull, the CR should exit the:

A

foramen magnum

76
Q

Only facial bone to contain a paranasal sinus

77
Q

the sphenoid sinsues lie directly below:

A

Sella turcica

78
Q

the orbits project _____ degrees superiorly from the OML

79
Q

the ____ bone forms most of the orbital roof

A

frontal [bone]

80
Q

which sinuses are best seen in the SMV projection?

A

Sphenoid and ethmoid [bones]

81
Q

the ____ separates the superior orbital fissure and the optic canal

A

sphenoid strut

82
Q

which view best demonstates the frontal sinuses?

A

PA Caldwell

83
Q

Best view to demonstrate a blowout fracture:

A

Waters [method]

84
Q

smallest facial bone:

A

Lacrimal bone

85
Q

the malar bone is another name for:

A

zygomatic bone

86
Q

Forms the inferior part of the nasal septum:

87
Q

The anterior nasal spine is found on the:

A

Maxillary bone

88
Q

The ____ of the palatine bone helps to form the posterior nasal cavity

A

vertical plate

89
Q

anterior end of the mandibular notch:

A

Coronoid process

90
Q

Only bone that does not articulate with any other bone?

91
Q

which view of the nasal bones is performed table-top?

92
Q

The CR exits the ____ for a PA view of the mandible

93
Q

The CR is perpendicular to the ____ for the SMV view of the facial bones

94
Q

The CR enters at the ___ for a lateral view of the nasal bones.

A

inner canthus