RAC 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is coordination?

A

Coordination is the process of negotiation between two or more parties that results in an agreed course of action. To ensure a common understanding and continuity of an ATS service to aircraft concerned, coordination shall be carried out between affected sectors/units for all IFR and CVFR flights, with agreement being reached on:

  • clearances/instructions
  • estimate messages
  • information estimate messages
  • transfers of control
  • revisions to sig. point or level contained in an estimate message
  • approval requests
  • advice or information to be issued to aircraft
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2
Q

How is coordination achieved?

A

Coordination may be achieved by:

  • direct two-way negotiation and agreement for individual flights, either verbally or electronically
  • agreements specified in LOA/LUO
  • use of the Skyline X-NOTE function for specific coordination where:
    • agreement will always be proffered and
    • ATS Policy & Standards has approved X-NOTE for that coordination and
    • the coordination process is documented in LUO/LOA between the two units
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3
Q

What is the phraseology for requesting an early release on an aircraft?

A

“MAY I ASSUME CONTROL OF (callsign)”
or
“REQUEST RELEASE (callsign)”

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4
Q

Are controllers required to readback the cruising level or level climbing or descending to stated by the pilot on first contact? What are the exeptions?

A

Yes, except when:

  • new level instructions are issued in response to the first report, or
  • the aircraft is making a visual or instrument approach with no level restrictions
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5
Q

Whose responsibility is it to ensure that an aircraft establishes communications with an ATS sector?

A

The accepting controller.

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6
Q

When may an ATC clearance be withheld?

A
  • For traffic reasons, when ATC cannot accomodate traffic additional to that already accepted due to traffic congestion, limitations of equipment, procedures, weather or environmental conditions, emergencies and other similar factors, or
  • When instructed by the Group Manager ANS Delivery provided that:
    • a clearance shall not be withheld unless the aircraft is on the ground and the clearance is for entry onto the manouevring area
    • a normal ATC service shall be provided for any aircraft entering the manouevring area without an ATC clearance
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7
Q

When direct comms cannot be established, certain agencies are permitted to be used for relaying ATC clearances. Give 4 examples of a relaying agency.

A
  • An operating position at the same unit
  • Another ATS unit
  • An air-ground station
  • Another aircraft
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8
Q

What is the time criteria for passing an estimate between an oceanic sector and an area sector for arriving and departing flights?

A

20 minutes

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9
Q

Name four ways in which the “IFR route to be followed” can be described.

A
  • standard route clearance + rwy in use at destination
  • standard route clearance + rwy in use at a controlled aerodrome adjacent to the aerodrome of dep or dest
  • standard route clearance + arrival procedure at destination
  • arrival procedure at destination if it commences at or adjacent to departure aerodrome
  • standard route clearance
  • use of “VIA” followed by detailed description of route (using reporting points/ATS route)
  • “via flight planned route” to describe the route as filed in the flight plan
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10
Q

What restrictions normally apply to the term “via flight planned route”?

A

Should be avoided if at all possible. Usually limited to:

  • oceanic flights
  • flights where route is described via lats and longs
  • flights with long/complicated route field

Not to be used if RDR is in RMK field of the flight plan or a known/suspected discrepancy between the plan and what is known to the pilot.

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11
Q

What procedures shall apply where an aircraft wishes to fly IFR on an unevaluated route through airspace in which an ATC clearance is required?

A
  • pilot requests direct routing or agrees to controller proposal
  • pilot responsible for navigation unless being radar vectored
  • separation provided where appropriate
  • coordination undertaken either
    • verbally
    • by agreement in LUO/LOA
  • when under radar control, track and distance of direct route is passed to the pilot when considered necessary
  • when under radar control but own nav, controller to monitor and advise if deviation by more than 5NM
  • direct routing for RNAV(GNSS) approach, the fix shall be no later that the point prior to the FAF or FAP
  • direct routing for RNAV(RNP) approach, fix shall be no later than fix prior to FAF and not on a constant radius arc to a fix
  • direct for an instrument approach the aircraft should intercept VPA or GP at appropriate altitude
  • controller responsible for terrain
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12
Q

What do the level instructions in an ATC clearance to an IFR flight achieve?

A

Enable the flight to be conducted at or above:

  • on an evaluated route, the MFA for the applicable route sector except:
    • if GNSS approved, compliance with MFA/MRA/MEA not required, must be at or above SUA upper limit
    • if under radar control, or will be under radar control on departure, the flight may be at or above radar terrain
    • if expected to be established under radar control en-route, at or above 13,000ft or approved area MSA
  • on an unevaluated route:
    • at or above the levels indicated on the radar terrain map provided the aircraft is under radar control or will be under radar control on departure
    • at or above 13,000ft or approved area MSA
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13
Q

What are the rules associated with non-standard levels?

A
  • verbal approval obtained before entering subsequent sectors
  • aircraft at standard levels given priority over aircraft at non-standard levels
  • prefixed “NON-STANDARD” except departing oceanic flights that are cleared at a standard oceanic level
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14
Q

What is the phraseology to clear an aircraft to maintain a block level?

A

“MAINTAIN BLOCK (altitude/flight level) TO (altitude/flight level)”

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15
Q

When shall an information estimate message be passed?

A

When an aircraft will pass within a specified distance of an airspace boundary but no transfer of control/RTF will be made

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16
Q

List the elements of an estimate message.

A
  • “ESTIMATE”
  • callsign
  • departure/set heading time (minutes only) for domestic to oceanic flights
  • significant point/NAVAID/aerodrome etc
  • ETA next reporting point/aerodrome/destination
  • level (or climbing/descending to)
  • type of approach (and route if required) (area/approach to aerodrome
  • other information as necessary eg. routing requests, special handling/priority requests
17
Q

What level should be inserted in the CFL field of a VFR flight plan?

A

Where VFR subject to level restrictions - the cleared level.

Where VFR not subject to level restrictions - 000.

18
Q

What is the phraseology to request an aircraft’s distance from a DME station?

A

“REPORT DME DISTANCE FROM…”

19
Q

Give an example of the phraseology to use when issuing a clearance for an aircraft to enter and leave controlled airspace.

A

“ENTER CONTROLLED AIRSPACE (VIA, AT…)”

“LEAVE CONTROLLED AIRSPACE…

  • AT (level)”
  • VIA”
  • ON HEADING (RESUME OWN NAV CLEAR OF CONTROLLED AIRSPACE)”
  • BY DESCENT”
20
Q

What are the elements that made up the clearance for an aircraft to hold?

A
  • instructions to join the holding pattern
  • identification of the holding pattern
  • level instructions
  • expected onward clearance time or expected approach time
21
Q

What should the minimum level be when instructing an aircraft to enter a non-published holding pattern?

A
  • at or above 13,000ft

- under radar control, at or above radar terrain (allowing for nav tolerance within holding pattern)

22
Q

What is the criteria for revising the level information contained in an estimate message?

A

The next sector shall be advised of the change of any level except where specified in LOA/LUO. The aircraft may be cleared to the requested level before the revision is passed provided:

  • the revision and acceptance is entirely within a radar environment
  • the coordination is completed prior to the aircraft being 5NM from the transfer of control point
23
Q

What separation standard shall be applied between a PDA/PDZ and a radar controlled flight?

A

Kept clear unless visual separation can be applied (minimum 3NM radius around drop aircraft).

24
Q

What is a controller’s responsibility after being advised that the pilot of an aircraft is responding to an RA?

A
  • pass essential traffic info to all aircraft that may be affected by the manouevre
  • no control instructions issued
  • controller not responsible for separation between RA aircraft & any other aircraft, terrain or obstructions
  • controller to restore separation once aircraft reports clear of conflict
  • controllers responsibility for separation resumes after separation has been restored
25
Q

What shall an accepting controller do in response to an estimate message that is passed within the time criteria for such a message?

A
  • if no objection is raised, be understood to have accepted the transfer of control in accordance with LOA/LUO or terms offered, or
  • indicate any required ammendments including change in cruising level/route if level offered is below MSA or min level above SUA within the accepting controller’s area of responsibility, and
  • if necessary, specify any other information or clearance applicable at transfer of control point
26
Q

What should instructions contained in a clearance to an IFR flight achieve?

A
  • provide separation:
    • from other controlled flights, where prescribed
    • from SUA and GAA as required by RAC 5
  • enable the flight to comply with the promulgated procedures for IFR flights published in the AIPNZ
  • conform with the terms of acceptance of control by the next controlling authority
  • conform, where possible, with the details requested in the flight plan and the Air Traffic Management route requirements as specified in the AIPNZ
  • where the aircraft has flight planned for flight within controlled airspace, contain the flight within he lateral boundaries of controlled airspace, unless applying the criteria for direct routing on unevaluated routes