Quizlet Transfer Flashcards

1
Q

Holds the principal responsible for actions performed by their agent

A

General Agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The broker is the ______ of the agent.

A

Principal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The relationship between a broker & their sponsored agent is an example of a _____ relationship.

A

General Agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The relationship between a broker & their client is an example of a _____ relationship.

A

Special Agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The relationship between an adult son who is asked to oversee the affairs of his elderly father is an example of a/an _____ relationship.

A

Universal Agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Created by a written/oral agreement between the principal & the agent.

A

Express Agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Outlines the relationship & the duties of each party to the listing agreement

A

Express Agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

• There is nothing in writing
• Agency relationship is recognized bc of the actions, conduct, & words of both parties

A

Implied Agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Occurs when a broker or sales agent has done something on behalf of, but w/o prior authorization of, a principal

A

Agency by Ratification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

• Law passed in 1890 that prohibits trusts , contracts, combinations, or conspiracies in the restraint of trade or commerce
• Essentially made monopolies illegal

A

Texas Fair Enterprise & Antitrust Act of 1983

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Outlaws price fixing

A

Sherman Antitrust Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Serves to keep competition high, keep the quality of services & products at the highest level, & allow capitalism to work the way it is supposed to

A

Sherman Antitrust Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When should agency relationships be disclosed?

A

At an initial meeting - orally or in writing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

To have a legal & ethical responsibility to act in their client’s best interest

A

Fiduciary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the Fiduciary Duties?

A

OLD CAR:
Obedience
Loyalty
Disclosure
Confidentiality
Accounting
Reasonable Care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

According to the Texas Real Estate License Act, when must the written statem’t providing the Information about Brokerage Services be provided?

A

At the first substantive dialogue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When a broker represents both sides (buyer & seller or landlord & tenant) of a real estate transaction

A

Intermediary Broker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Operation expenses for property are collected from the association (usually a monthly fee)

A

Condos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Hallways, elevators, stairwells, pools, recreational facilities, laundry rooms, parking lots

A

Common Elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The title for the apartment building belongs to a legally created entity

A

The Cooperative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

• Every resident buys stock in this & receives a proprietary lease for one of the units

• The ______ pays taxes, loans, & other expenses

A

Cooperative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

“Maintenance payment”
“Common charges”
“Monthly Assessment”
“Mortgage”

A

Monthly fee co-op owners must pay for various expenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Can also pay for upgrades that all co-op owners approve “ex: pools, recreation areas, other amentities”

A

Monthly Assessments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Examples are high rise apartments & single-family homes

A

Cooperative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

• made up of owners/elected group of owners
• approves co-op sales
• handles the finances
• enforces rules
- ensures maintenance is done

A

Co-op Board of Directors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  • Picky about who they’ll approve as an owner as owners’ default affects all of the owners
  • Will interview prospective buyers before approving the sale
A

Co-op Board

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

If there isn’t enough in common fund to cover repairs & expenses, the building can fall into disrepair - loss of value

A

Co-Op Risks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the major difference between a townhouse & condo?

A

Townhouse owners generally own the land below their unit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How can you verify the difference between a unit & a townhome or condo?

A

By reviewing the legal description in the deed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Usually include the unit & the land

A

Townhouses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Usually include the unit only

A

Condos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Survey for this will have a space enclosed showing the 4 corners of the unit on the floor & the 4 corners for the ceiling

A

Survey for a condo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

2nd way to tell if residence is a townhouse

A

Review the survey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Will be clearly drawn on a survey for a townhouse

A

The lot lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A subdivision/development that includes single-family dwellings along with some common elements such as parks, pools, community recreational centers

A

Planned Unit Development (PUD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Common elements are either owned by HOA or collectively by all homeowners

A

Planned Unit Development (PUD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

All residents are required to be members of the association & pay a fee for the amenities

A

Planned Unit Development (PUD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  • Dwellings that are built in a factory & then delivered to the site once complete
  • Mobile homes, double-wides, & trailers
A

Manufactured homes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  • Duplex, triplex, & fourplex
  • Some clients may want these as investment properties
A

Multi-Family Homes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Anything more than 4 units

A

Commercial Real Estate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a benefit to owning multi-family homes?

A

An economy of sale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Why are the sales of multi-family homes referred to as an economy of sale?

A

Because of the reduced cost of maintaining 1 location that serves more than 1 family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

One residence that has multiple owners who take turns using the property

A

Timeshares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Share the right of possession of the property for a specific period of time

A

Timeshares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  • Typically used as vacation homes in desirable recreational locations near beach/mountains
  • Found along the coast more than anywhere else
A

Timeshares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Old buildings mostly located in urban areas where demand for residential units is high & space for new development is limited

A

Converted Use Properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Describe the IRA withdrawal tax benefit for 1st time homebuyers

A

1st time homeowners may be able to w/draw up to $10,000 penalty free from their tax deferred individual retirement account to go towards down payment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The profit received from selling a capital asset

A

Capital Gains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is a benefit enjoyed by homeowners who sell their primary residence

A

Tax exemptions on capital gains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The loss incurred from selling a capital asset is referred to as…

A

Capital Loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Include all of taxpayer’s tangible property - real estate, investment properties, & equipment

A

Assets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The IRS imposes taxes on all forms of _______.

A

Capital Gains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How do you calculate capital gain in real estate?

A

Sales Price - (purchase price + cost of improvements) + Total Depreciation - Expenses = Gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Why is depreciation omitted when calculating capital gains on the sale of a primary residence?

A

B/c homeowners get a tax break on the sale of a primary residence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The length of time a property is held is referred to as…

A

the holding period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The amount of time between the day a property is bought & the day it is sold

A

The holding period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Holding period is shorter than 1 year

A

Short-term holding period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Determines whether a capital gain is taxed as a short-term or long-term gain

A

The holding period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Holding period is > or equal to 1 year

A

Long-term holding period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Taxed as normal income according to the federal income tax rates - meaning they are taxed at a much higher rate than LTGs

A

Short-Term Gains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Current tax %s for Long Term Gains

A

0%, 10%, 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Determines the tax bracket at which the long-term gains will be taxed

A

The income level of the individual taxpayer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

____ _________ ________ ____ ___ _______ created certain exclusions from capital gains taxes for homeowners.

A

The Taxpayer Relief Act of 1997

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Universal exclusions provided by the Taxpayer Relief Act of 1997

A

Married homeowners may exclude up to the 1st $500,000 of profit on the sale of a primary residence & single homeowners may exclude up to the 1st $250,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

This exclusion is reusable every 2yrs after the sale

A

The universal exclusion under the Taxpayer Relief Act of 1997

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How can a taxpayer become eligible for the capital gains exclusion?

1 of 2 Ways

A
  • Taxpayer must have owned & occupied the home as a principal residence for at least 2 of the 5 years preceding the sale
  • Years may be aggregate - not necessarily continuous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How can taxpayer become eligible for capital gains exclusion?

2 of 2 Ways

A

Homes sold for profit of < $250,00 or $500,000 for joint files don’t require the owners to file an info return reporting the sale of their principal residence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the 2 items contained in a written assurance?

A

1.) Statement that entire gain made from the sale can be excluded

2.) Statement that property is the owner’s principle residence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Government requires sellers of principal residences to provide them with…

A

Written Assurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Let’s an investor sell a property, reinvest the proceedings in a brand new property, & defer all capital gains taxes

A

1031 Exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Under this, the investor is never allowed to touch $ from the sale

Sales must go through a qualified intermediary

A

1031 Exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

___ ________ ________ ________ ____ __________ allows homeowners to deduct the interest they pay on their loans.

A

The federal mortgage interest tax deduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

________ _______ are automatic & protects homeowners from claims by creditors being made against their homes

A

Homestead Rights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the exemptions to the homestead rights?

A
  • mortgage lenders b/c the homestead itself is used as collateral
  • tax liens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Homestead limit in urban areas

A

Maximum amount of land can’t exceed 10 acres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Homestead limit in rural areas

A
  • 200 acres for family &
  • 100 acres for single person
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q
  • Creditors aren’t permitted to force someone in debt to sell their home to pay off the debt
  • doesn’t apply to mortgage debt
A

The homestead protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Calculated according to the assessed value of real estate & collected from each property owner to create revenue to run the local government agencies & provide benefits to residents of the community

A

Ad Valorem Taxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

“according to value” taxes

A

Ad Valorem Taxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Removes a % or an absolute $ amount from the assessed taxable value of the property

A

Exemption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The value placed on a property by a governmental unit for the use in levying annual real estate taxes

A

Assessed Value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q
  • reduces the amount of ad valorem taxes paid on the homestead
  • an owner can only claim 1 homestead
A

Homestead Tax Exemption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Tax exemption required by Texas law of school districts to offer

A

$25,000 tax exemption on residence homestead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

A license holder who represents a principal through cooperation with the principal’s broker

A

Subagent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

a license holder who:

a.) represents a principal through cooperation with & the consent of a broker representing the principal and

b.) is not sponsored or associated with the principal’s broker

A

Subagency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

On a listing sheet what would a field stating “BC:3” mean?

A

It means the buyer’s broker will get a 3% commission once the sale closes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Occur when the same real estate office/broker is representing both the seller & the buyer as clients in the same transaction

A

Intermediary relationships

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Counties are required to offer a _______ _________ if the county collects _____ __ ______ ______ or _______ _________ ______.

A

$3,000 exemption if the county collects farm - to - market taxes or flood control taxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The appraised value of the property established by the county is _______ for homeowners ____ or _______.

A

frozen for homeowners 65 or older

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

In order for a brokerage to be able to represent both the buyer & seller in a RE transaction, the brokerage needs to have the permission of ______ _________

A

both parties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Type of intermediary relationship where 1 agent represents the interests of the seller & a different agent does the same for the buyer allowing both agents to give a full degree of representation to both clients

A

Intermediary With Appointments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q
  • Any fact that is significant/essential to the transaction
  • Any piece of information that could reasonably be expected to influence a prudent individual’s decisions regarding the transaction
A

Material fact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the 2 requirements to disclosing agency?

A

1.) Tell everyone whom you represent at first contact

2.) Give the written statutory statement (IABS) communication about a specific property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

When should agency relationships be disclosed?

A

At first contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the name given to the duties owed by agents to their clients?

A

Fiduciary Duties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Which fiduciary duty does the “O” stand for in OLD CAR?

A

Obedience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What fiduciary duty the “L” stand for in OLD CAR?

A

Loyalty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What fiduciary duty does the “D” stand for in OLD CAR?

A

Disclosure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What fiduciary duty does the “C” stand for in OLD CAR?

A

Confidentiality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What fiduciary duty does the “A” stand for in OLD CAR?

A

Accounting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What fiduciary duty does the “R” stand for in OLD CAR?

A

Reasonable Care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q
  • Includes the prohibition of commingling
  • Agents must account for all client funds entrusted to them
A

Accounting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q
  • Including sharing of material facts about a property
  • If it will help the client, the agent should share it
A

Disclosure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Purpose is to protect consumers against false misleading , & deceptive business practices, unconscionable actions, & breaches of warranty

A

Texas Deceptive Trade Practices-Consumer Protection Act (DTPA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

An action that takes advantage of the lack of knowledge, ability, experience or capacity of a person to a grossly unfair degree

A

Unconscionable action as defined by the DTPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

The unintentional spread of false information

A

Misrepresentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

3 x as much

A

Treble damages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Actual awareness of the act, practice, condition, defect, or failure constituting the breach of warranty

A

What “knowingly” means in the event of a breach of an express/implied warranty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

A type of security interest granted over a property to secure the payment of a debt or performance of some other obligation

A

Lien

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the BEST way to avoid giving misinformation & consequently violating the Texas Deceptive Trade Practices-Consumer Protection Act?

A

Cite a source for any information you give a client about a property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

A kind of guarantee that an agent gives to a 3rd party that establishes that the agent has the authority to bind a principal - that the agent has the authority to make contracts, agreements, & enter into similar arrangements on the principal’s behalf

A

Warranty of Authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

An opportunity for the seller to be upfront & comprehensive about all facts & defects concerning the property

A

Seller’s Disclosure Notice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Why should RE agents refrain from giving legal advice to clients?

A

Agents aren’t licensed to give legal advice, & if they do, they could be held liable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Describing a property in a flattering/favorable way

A

Puffing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Broker - Client Relationship

A

Special Agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Sales Agent - Broker Relationship

A

General Agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Establishes a fiduciary relationship between a broker & a client

A

Law of Agency

114
Q

Child - Parent & Executor of a Will

A

Universal Agency

115
Q

Empowered to act on behalf of another in a broad range of actions such as in a business

A

General Agent

116
Q

Has authority within the limitations of what is specifically determined in a representation or listing agreement

A

Special Agent

117
Q

Broker + Seller Client =

A

Special Agency Relationship

118
Q

Created when an individual authorizes another party to represent them & act in their best interest

A

Agency Relationship

119
Q

The agency relationship in RE is a _______ relationship

A

Fiduciary

120
Q

What is license holders’ first duty in agency relationships?

A

The duty of disclosure

121
Q

The person who does the representing is the…

A

Agent

122
Q

The person who is being represented is the…

A

Client

123
Q

An individual who authorizes an agent to represent their interests as a client in a real estate transaction

A

Principal

124
Q

Sales Agent - Broker

A

General Agency

125
Q

Broker - Client

A

Special Agency

126
Q

Rarely used in real estate

A

Universal Agency

127
Q

The client grants their agent the authority to act on their behalf for specific actions.

A

Special Agency

128
Q

The most common example of a special agency in real estate is the relationship between a _____ ______ ________ & ______ _______ - not _________ _______ & _______ ________.

A

real estate broker & their client - not sales agents & their clients

129
Q

Agency is created on the ______ ______ not the ______ ______ level.

A

broker level not the sales agent level

130
Q

When a client signs a listing agreem’t with a sponsored sales agent, they are actually signing an agency relationship with the ______ _____ ______, not the _______ _______ ________.

A

sales agent’s broker, not the sales agent themselves.

131
Q

Gives agents more power & holds the principle responsible for actions performed by their agent

A

General Agency

132
Q

What is a classic example of a general agency relationship?

A

The relationship between a broker (principle) & a sponsored licensee (agent)

133
Q

The general agency a broker extends to the licensee allows the licensee to operate as a _______ _______ on behalf of the broker to clients

A

special agent

134
Q

Under a general agency, the broker is the __________ of the agent.

A

principle

135
Q

Under a general agency, the sales agent is the ______ of the broker

A

agent

136
Q

Gives agents the power to act on behalf of their principle & make decisions on behalf of the principle

A

Universal Agency

137
Q

Major party to a real estate transaction (e.g., buyer seller, landlord, tenant OR

An individual who authorizes an agent to represent their interests as a client

A

Principal

138
Q

According to the Texas Real Estate License Act, when must the written statem’t providing the Information about Brokerage Services be provided?

A

At the first substantive dialogue

139
Q

If many of the units are in default it could cause the whole building to go into foreclosure

A

Co-Op Risks

140
Q

Sales agent-broker

A

General Agency

141
Q

Broker-client relationship

A

Special Agency

142
Q

Child-parent & executor of a will

A

Universal Agency

143
Q

Empowered to act on behalf of another in a broad range of actions such as in a business

A

General Agent

144
Q

Has authority within the limitations of what is specifically determined in a representation or listing agreement

A

Special Agent

145
Q

Broker + seller client =

A

Special Agency

146
Q

Created when an individual authorizes another party to represent them & act in their best interest

A

Agency Relationship

147
Q

The agency relationship in RE is a _______ relationship

A

fiduciary

148
Q

A broker who negotiates a contract between 2 parties who are both being represented by that broker

A

intermediary broker

149
Q

What is license holders’ first duty in agency relationships?

A

The duty of disclosure

150
Q

When must the IABS notice be given?

A

At the 1st substantive discussion about a specific property - the 1st meeting

151
Q

When must escrow funds be deposited by a license holder?

A

By close of the 2nd business day after signing the contract

152
Q

A law that governs the licensing, education, and activities of real estate license holders practicing brokerage in Texas

A

Texas Real Estate License Act (TRELA)

153
Q

A group of 9 appointed people who regulate real estate activity & licensees in Texas to ensure laws are followed and consumers are protected

Enforces the rules & regulations laid out in TRELA

A

Texas Real Estate Commission (TREC)

154
Q

The Texas Real Estate License Act is Chapter 1101 of the _____________.

A

Texas Occupations Code

155
Q

A person who is associated with a licensed broker for the purpose of performing any of the practices of real estate as described by TRELA

A

Sales Agent

156
Q

A person/business entity who is licensed to represent one of the partied in a real estate transaction in exchange for a commission or other valuable consideration

A

broker

157
Q

Anyone who helps another party complete a real estate activity for a fee must have_________.

A

A real estate license

158
Q

What categories of people are barred from serving on the commission?

A

Trade association employees & lobbyists

159
Q

The members of TREC serve staggered ______ year terms.

A

6

160
Q

Appoints members of the TREC.

A

Governor

161
Q

Members of the TREC must be confirmed by 2/3 of the _______.

A

Texas Senate

162
Q

Granted all citizens a set of basic rights regardless of race, color, or previous condition of servitude

A

Civil Rights Act of 1866

163
Q

Which was the 1st housing discrimination protection act?

A

Civil Rights Act of 1866

164
Q

This act protected people from discrimination based on race

A

Civil Rights Act of 1866

165
Q

Prohibits discrimination in real estate practices

A

Fair Housing Act

166
Q

Says it’s unlawful to refuse to sell, rent to, or negotiate with any person because of that person’s inclusion in a protected class

A

Fair Housing Act

167
Q

Prohibits discrimination against people with disabilities in employment, transportation, public accommodation, communications, and governmental activities

A

Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)

168
Q

Establishes accessibility guidelines for pubic & commercial spaces

A

The Fair Housing Act

169
Q

HUDs may not discriminate on the basis of sexual orientation, gender, identity, or marital status in their housing programs

A

HUD’S Equal Access Rule

170
Q

What is the landlord’s responsibility regarding reasonable accommodations?

A

Landlords must allow tenants to make reasonable modifications so people with disabilities can enjoy that property

171
Q

What is the tenant’s responsibility regarding reasonable accommodation?

A

Tenants may be required to pay for modifications & to return the property to the original condition at the end of the lease

172
Q

The illegal act of channeling buyers/tenants to certain areas based on demographics

A

Steering

173
Q

Fair Housing exemptions do not apply if…

A

a real estate license holder is involved in the process.

174
Q

A change in rules, policies or practices that may be necessary to afford a person with a disability an equal opportunity to use/enjoy a dwelling

A

Reasonable Accommodation

175
Q

Required HUD to set reasonable limitations on the number of occupants allowed in a dwelling - 2 occupants/bd

A

Quality Housing & Work Responsibility Act of 1998

176
Q

Provided guidelines for the Quality Housing & Work Responsibility Act of 1998

A

The Keating Memo

177
Q

The refusal to sell a home because of the prospective buyer’s race was found to be against the law

A

U.S. Supreme Court Case: Jones v. Mayer Co.

178
Q

Allows lenders to conduct self-tests to evaluate their lending practices

A

1997 Omnibus Appropriations Act

179
Q

The practice of encouraging the panic selling of homes below market value by raising fears that an influx of people from a particular minority group will decrease the property values in a neighborhood & negatively affect the area

A

Blackbusting or Panic Selling

180
Q

An attempt to resolve the issues raised by a complaint/investigation through informal negotiations between the aggrieved person, the respondent, & the HUD secretary

A

Conciliation

181
Q

Makes it illegal for a lender to discriminate against borrowers based on their membership in a protected class

A

Equal Credit Opportunity Act (ECOA)

182
Q

How long does a person who believes that they have been injured by the discrimination practices of a license holder have to file a complaint with HUD?

A

1 Year

183
Q

Requires lenders to assist their local communities by participating in community development projects & submit an annual statement including public comments about their attempts to help low-income communities

A

Community Reinvestment Act

184
Q
  • Seeks to enable all parts of a community to have access to credit
  • Passed to help eliminate red lining
A

Community Reinvestment Act

185
Q

Requires lenders to disclose specific lending info which HUD then uses to map lending patterns

A

Home Mortgage Disclosure Act

186
Q

Federal law that serves to protect the civil rights individuals with disabilities

A

Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)

187
Q

What is the name of the professional organization that created the code of ethics?

A

the National Association of REALTORS

188
Q

What’s 1 important difference between REALTORS & other practitioners?

A

REALTORS are held to a higher standard than the law by the NAR Code of Ethics

189
Q

If the Code of Ethics & law conflict, the ______ takes precedence.

A

law

190
Q

The introduction to the National Association of REALTORS Code of Ethics is called the…

A

Preamble

191
Q

The National Association of REALTORS Code of Ethics consists of…

A

a Preamble & 17 Articles

192
Q

In what year was the National Association of REALTORS Code of Ethics first adopted?

A

1913

193
Q

What is the difference between the NAR Code of Ethics & the Canons of Professional Ethics Conduct?

A

TREC enforces the Canons of Professional Ethics & Conduct.

NAR enforces the NAR Code of Ethics.

194
Q

What does the integrity portion of the Canons of Professional Ethics charge license holders with avoiding?

A

Misrepresentation

195
Q

A law that governs the licensing, education, & activities of real estate license holders practicing brokerage in Texas

A

Texas Real Estate Act (TRELA)

196
Q

A group of 9 appointed people who regulate real estate activity & licensees in Texas to ensure laws are followed and consumers are protected

A

Texas Real Estate Commission (TREC)

197
Q

These 9 people enforce the rules & regulations laid out in TRELA

A

Texas Real Estate Commission (TREC)

198
Q

Who needs a license?

A

Anyone who helps another party complete a real estate transaction for a fee must have a real estate license.

199
Q

A person who is associated with a licensed broker for the purpose of performing any of the practices of Real Estate as described in TRELA.

A

Sales Agent

200
Q

A person/business entity who is licensed to represent 1 of the parties in a real estate transaction in exchange for a commission or other valuable consideration

A

Broker

201
Q

What categories of people are barred from serving on the commission?

A

Trade association employees & lobbyists

202
Q

How many members of TREC are there?

A

9 - appointed by the governor & confirmed by a minimum of 2/3 of Texas Senate

203
Q

What is the membership term length for members of the TREC?

A

6 years - staggered

204
Q

What is the purpose of the TREC committee?

A

Adopt & enforce rules for governing Texas real estate practitioners

205
Q

Who designates a broker member of the commission to serve as a presiding officer?

A

The governor

206
Q

What law (chapter) imposes a code of ethics & standard of conduct on members of the commission?

A

Chapter 572

207
Q

Who is responsible for informing employees of their conduct expectations & responsibilities?

A

Commissioners

208
Q

Contracts prepared & authorized by the Texas Real Estate Commission that must be used by real estate license holders

A

Promulgated contracts

209
Q

What is the instance in which the commission allows license holders to use alternatives to the required, or promulgated forms?

A
  • If alternate form is prepared by property owner themselves
  • If attorney has prepared the form & a property owner requests that form
210
Q

All listing contracts in Texas must include what 2 pieces of info?

A
  • info informing sellers about special rules for anyone who lives on a coast
  • all commissions are negotiable
211
Q

Passed in 1939

A

TRELA

212
Q

Created in 1949

A

TREC

213
Q

Law passed by the Texas Legislature to govern Texas real estate

A

TRELA

214
Q

A government agency created by the Texas Legislature to enforce TRELA

A

TREC

215
Q

What is the statute of limitations for filing a complaint against a licensee?

A

4 Years

216
Q

A committee that creates & corrects contract forms to be used by Texas Real Estate license holders

A

Broker-Lawyer Committee

217
Q

Created all promulgated forms

A

The Broker-Lawyer Committee

218
Q

As a license holder, what could help protect you against mistakes you might make in real estate transactions?

A

Errors & Omissions Insurance

219
Q

A right owned by 1 party to use the land of another

A

Easement

220
Q

Type of easement used for passing through another’s land

A

Right of Way

221
Q

An abbreviated history of a property, including info on any transfers, grants, bills, conveyances, liens, & encumbrances-

A

Abstract of Title

222
Q

Who pays for mortgage title insurance?

A

The buyer

223
Q

A meeting/written communication that involves a serious discussion relating to a specific property

A

Substantive Dialogue

224
Q

When does the info about intermediary brokerage contained in the IABS need to be given to a consumer?

A

At the 1st face-to-face meeting where substantive dialogue about a specific property occurs

225
Q

Which party must remain neutral during a transaction?

A

Broker acting as intermediary

226
Q

Represent the seller OR the buyer, but not both of them at the same time

A

Exclusive Single Agency

227
Q

What is the recovery fund used for?

A

To pay damages to a person from the public who wins a court case against a license holder

228
Q

The maximum amount that can be paid out because of the actions of 1 license holder regardless of how many complainants there are

A

$100,000

229
Q
  • Also called compensatory damages
  • Based on the proven facts
  • almost always going to be measurable
A

Actual Damages

230
Q

Can be awarded when the defendants’ actions are especially reckless/malicious

A

Punitive Damages

231
Q

What’s the difference between actual & punitive damages?

A

Actual damages are designed to compensate the claimant; punitive damages are designed to punish the defendant

232
Q

A sales agent can’t accept compensation for a real estate transaction from anyone but…

A

Sponsoring Broker

233
Q

What must you have if you wish to sell, buy, lease, or transfer an easement or right of way?

A

Certificate

234
Q

A person was accused of something & was a defendant in a trial but will accept the decision of the court without pleading guilty to the charge

“no contest” in Latin

A

Nolo contenders

235
Q

The illegal act of mixing personal funds with a client’s funds

A

Commingling

236
Q

If a license holder doesn’t disclose a deficit in a property to a customer/client because the broker/sales agent didn’t know about the defect the license holder is….

A

Not Liable

237
Q

The most common method used for land description in Texas

A

Metes & Bounds Method

238
Q
  • Describes the perimeter boundaries of the parcel using measures, direction, & distances
  • Always returns to the Point of the Beginning (POB)
A

Metes & Bounds Method

239
Q

Uses a more refined version of the longitude & latitude system of mapping with a surveyed grid of meridians, baselines, townships, & ranges to describe a piece of land

A

Rectangular Survey System

240
Q

Drawing of a development used in the lot & block method

A

Plat

241
Q

Individual lots combined to make a block

A

Parcel

242
Q

Individual parcel of land measured & defined by the metes & bounds system

A

Lot

243
Q

A collection of lots (parcels)

A

Block

244
Q

1 township =

A

36 Sections

245
Q

1 section =

A

640 acres (a square mile)`

246
Q

1 acre =

A

43,560 square feet

247
Q

1 mile =

A

5,280 linear feet

248
Q

Permanent marker of known location and elevation above sea level

A

benchmark

249
Q

Depends on longitude & latitude mapping with a surveyed grid of meridians, baselines, townships, & ranges to describe a piece of land

A

Rectangular Survey System

250
Q

A true meridian running through an initial point, which with the baseline, forms, the highest level framework for all rectangular surveys in a given area

A

Meridian

251
Q

A parallel of latitude, referenced to and established from a designated initial point, upon which all rectangular surveys in a defined area are based

A

Baselines

252
Q

A north - south column created by drawing a parallel line every 6 miles to the east & west of a principal meridian

A

Range

253
Q

A measure of the distance north and south from a referenced principal baseline, in units of 6 miles

A

Tiers

254
Q

A square made up of mile-long boundaries (1 square mile) that equates to 640 acres

A

Section

255
Q

All the lines in a rectangular survey system that run east and west, parallel to the base line 6 miles apart

A

Township lines

256
Q

Longitude lines are also called…

A

meridians.

257
Q

Latitude lines are also called…

A

parallels.

258
Q

The science of determining points & the distances & angles between them with the points often being used to establish land maps & boundaries for ownership transfers of real estate

A

Surveying

259
Q

Ultimately certifies the legal description of the land being sold

A

Survey

260
Q

How long are surveys good for?

A

7 years

261
Q

A national nonprofit organization that develops, administers, & scores the exams used for engineering & surveying licensure in the U.S

A

National Council of Examiners for Engineering & Surveying (NCEES)

262
Q

Protects residents of Texas by regulating, licensing, & renewing the licenses of competent surveyors.

A

Texas Board of Professional Land Surveying ( TBPLS)

263
Q

A type of survey that looks specifically at current or future improvements on the land to make sure they’re w/in the property boundaries

The drawing shows where the building, fences, & other human-made objects are located

A

Improvement Survey

264
Q

What direction do longitude lines/meridians run?

A

north to south, perpendicular to the equator

265
Q

What direction do latitude lines/parallels run?

A

east to west, parallel to the equator

266
Q
  • The columns that range lines create
  • Are numbered consecutively east & west from their respective principal meridians
A

ranges

267
Q

Run parallel to the meridian, running north & south

A

range lines

268
Q
  • Run east to west, parallel to the baseline
  • 6 miles apart
A

township lines

269
Q
  • The areas of land that township lines create
  • 6 miles wide
A

tiers

270
Q

Run parallel to meridians & create 6 mile ranges

A

range columns

271
Q

Run parallel to baselines & create 6 mile tiers

A

township lines

272
Q

What happens when a 6-mile range intersects w/a 6-mile tier?

A

You get a 36 square mile area = township

273
Q

In terms of the surface area surveyed, which surveying system is used to describe the most land in the U.S.?

A

Rectangular Survey

274
Q

The most common type of legal description used in urban suburban real estate

A

lot & block

275
Q

Map of a subdivision indicating its location & property lines

A

plat

276
Q

The individual lots that are combined to make a block

A

parcels

277
Q

Combined to make a subdivision

A

blocks

278
Q

What’s in a Plat

A

parcels & blocks

279
Q

A base point from which elevation is measured

A

datum

280
Q

Established by the mean sea level

A

datum

281
Q

The airspace above a particular sea level

A

air lot

282
Q

A map in which curved lines connect contiguous parts of equal elevation to define the contours of the land

A

contour maps/topographic map

283
Q

Shows hills, valleys, plateaus, & other patterns that may affect water drainage, runoff, or other development issues

A

contour maps/topographic map

284
Q
  • Most commonly used when air rights & subsurface rights need specific explanation
  • method for expressing condominium ownership boundaries
A

vertical land description

285
Q

Previously recorded descriptions can be referenced for the new conveyance for up to __ years.

A

7

286
Q
A