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Musculoskeletal (VEM 5111G) > Quizlet from Athena > Flashcards

Quizlet from Athena Flashcards

1
Q

Greater number of muscle fibers per cross-sectional area=

A

more force

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1
Q

In the postmortem state of rigor mortis, actin and myosin are bound and unable to dissociate in the absence of ______

A

ATP

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1
Q

E and NE stimulate ____ receptors on the beta cells of the pancreas to decrease insulin secretion

A

alpha-adrenergic

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1
Q

What is the only cartilage remaining on mature bone

A

articular surfaces

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2
Q

Structure of Tropomyosin

A

composed of two polypeptide chains that sit within the grooves of thin filament, F-actin.

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3
Q

Isotonic contraction

A

lengthening of a contracting muscle or “lengthening contraction”. i.e. coactivation of antagonistic muscles used to brake a muscle movement

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3
Q

Cartilage is an _________ tissue. It receives nutrients from blood capillaries

A

avascular

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4
Q

Thick myofilaments composed of the protein myosin. Considered dark bands

A

A-bands

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5
Q

Hyperplasia of muscle

A

occurs by the formation of more muscle cells. This also increases the force generating capacity of muscle. However, the ability of differentiated muscle to form new cells is limited.

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5
Q

Which GAGs are found in cartilage and bone?

A

Chondroitin sulfates, keratan sulfate

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5
Q

External lamina

A

similar to basal lamina, surrounds all muscles fibers, Schwann cells, endothelial cells and adipocytes. Made of the same components as basal lamina.

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5
Q

Electromyography (EMG)

A

involves the detection and characterization of electrical activity recorded from the patients muscles.

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5
Q

What type of collagen fibers are found in the bone matrix

A

Type I

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6
Q

During bone modeling bone resorption occurs at the

A

endocortical surface

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7
Q

How does disproportional growth of distal bones affect speed?

A

improved stride distance and higher oscillation rate

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9
Q

Hypertrophy of muscles cells

A

Occurs by increasing the diameter of a muscle fiber through the synthesis of new myofibrils. Increasing the diameter will increase the force-generating capacity of the muscle

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10
Q

What causes increased ACh release associated with weakness due to continued depolarization of post-synaptic membrane

A

Hypercalemia

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11
Q

What connects thick myofilaments with the Z-line

A

Titin

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11
Q

___ is the principal structural protein of thin myofilaments

A

actin

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11
Q

Where all the cell bodies of motoneurons located

A

In the CNS within the ventral horns of gray matter of the spinal cord or motor nuclei of the brainstem. p

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12
Q

What is the limiting factor in the ATP-PC system

A

the substrate

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13
Q

Isometry

A

means k=1 and there is a linear relationship between the organ weight and body weight. The organ weight is a constant percentage of body weight throughout development

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13
Q

A globular protein bound to tropomyosin along the thin filament

A

Troponin

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13
Q

Formation of End-Plate potentials

A

two molecules of ACh reversibly bind to the ACh-receptor that results in increased permeability to sodium and potassium ions, creating a change in the local membrane potential, the EPP. They are sufficient to initiate muscle action potentials

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14
Q

Somitomeres turn into

A

striated (skeletal) muscle of head and branchial arches 1-3

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15
Q

Exercise’s effect on bone formation

A

increases it

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15
Q

Direct vs. Indirect bone healing

A

direct does not require a callus formation and occurs during conditions of fracture stability. Indirect requires formation of a callus doe to instability of fracture

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16
Q

What protein supports the sarcolemma on its sarcoplasmic surface?

A

dystrophin

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17
Q

The muscle stretch reflex is a ________ reflex

A

monosynaptic

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17
Q

Reasons why you should extract teeth

A
  • Crowding of teeth
  • Retained deciduous teeth
  • Teeth in the line of a fracture
  • Teeth destroyed by disease
  • Endodontically diseased teeth
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18
Q

3-5 electron dense lines located in the middle of A-bands.Contain the enzyme creatine kinase

A

M-lines

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19
Q

Dense connective tissue

A

has relatively few cells but an abundance of thick fibers. Can be classified as dense irregular and dense regular connective tissue

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19
Q

Myosin makes up ____% of Total structural protein. Filaments are ____ and the general function is _____

A

55%, thick, contraction (activates myosin ATP-ase)

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20
Q

What happens to patients that lack the protein dystrophin

A

they develop muscular dystrophy

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22
Q

Moment arm

A

Perpendicular distance from an axis to the line of application of a force

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23
Q

What type of connective tissue do chondroblasts and chondrocytes make

A

Cartilage

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23
Q

Glycogenolysis is initiated by both the presence of _____ and increased ______ associated with contractile activity

A

epinephrine, increased intracellular Ca++ levels

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24
Q

Troponin-Tropomyosin complex during depolarization

A

Propagation of membrane potentials to the T-tubules. Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm elevating the calcium ion concentrations. The release of calcium ions are taken up by the Tn-C subunits. This results in a change in the Tn-1 subunit that in turn moves the tropomyosin molecules deeper into the actin grooves thus exposing the myosin binding sites on actin.

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25
Q

Type II collagen

A

Found in hyaline and elastic cartilage originates from chondrocytes

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25
Q

Somites differentiate into 3 critical regions

A

sclerotomes, myotomes, and dermatomes

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26
Q

At rest each myosin head has 2 molecules of ____ tightly bound to it. When myosin binding sites on actin are freed by action of the troponin-tropomyosin complex, myosin heads bind to _____

A

ATP, actin

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26
Q

Contraction time (Tc)

A

measure of ‘speed’ of contraction which is the time required for tension developed to reach maximum peak tension

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26
Q

If oxygen is not available pyruvate accepts 2 H+ ions and is converted to

A

lactic acid

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27
Q

What effect does interstitial and appositional cartilage growth have on the hyaline cartilage model

A

causes it to lengthen and broaden

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28
Q

Dense irregular connective tissue

A

irregular arrangements of fibers, makes it strong and able to withstand considerable stretching and distending forces

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29
Q

When EEP reaches critical level a ____ is generated from the end-pate and propagated out over the sarcolemma in all directions.

A

MAP muscle action potential.

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30
Q

Bone remodeling affect on bone shape

A

Does not change the shape

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31
Q

Myoblasts

A

myotomes becomes myoblasts by losing the ability to undergo further mitoses and acquiring specialized ability to synthesize myofibillar proteins. They then fuse together in a true syncitium losing cell memrbrane compnents that separate, them forming a myotube, or multinucleated muscle fiber.

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31
Q

Ligaments are ver resistant to ______ forces

A

tensile

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32
Q

What is the extracellular matrix of cartilage made up of

A

GAGs

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33
Q

Fasciae, tendons, and ligaments are classified as

A

dense, connective tissues. Fascia is considered irregular dense and tendons and ligaments are considered regular dense.

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34
Q

What happens when the calcium ions are removed from the sarcoplasm by the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

The calcium content of Tn-C is reduced and the effects of troponin and tropomyosin are reversed, moving tropomyosin out of the groove to block the myosin binding sites on actin

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35
Q

The force that muscles can generate is a function of _____

A

total cross-sectional area

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36
Q

Vascular nonunion

A

Callus forms but fracture fails to heal.

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37
Q

Length of thick and thin myofilaments following contraction

A

unchanged

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37
Q

Fast-Twitch, Fatigable (FF, Type IIB)

A

cannot sustain tetanic tensions above 25% for more than 1-2 mins

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38
Q

What is high creatine in the blood indicative of?

A

degeneration of muscles

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38
Q

What is the cutter cone

A

Osteoclasts at the tip of a capillary bud that cross the fracture site. Behind the osteoclasts a cuff of osteoblasts lays down concentric lamellae of bone

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39
Q

Hematoxilin binds to

A

acidic substances. Acidic substances are considered basophilic i.e. nucleic acids

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40
Q

Antagonist muscles

A

muscles that produce oppositely directed movements at a joint

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40
Q

Elastic cartilage

A

ground substance contains elastin which gives it a yellow color. Chondrocytes are more closely packed. No isogenic groups. Less accumulate of glycogen and lipids than in hyaline cartilage. Does not calcify

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41
Q

Marfan’s Syndrome

A

mutation in FNB-1 (the gene that produces fibrillin). Ligaments may not be as effective at limiting joint movement, increased risk of aortic rupture.

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42
Q

Total ATP production from one molecule of glucose through aerobic metabolism

A

38 ATP

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43
Q

A reflex arc that passes through only a small segment of the CNS

A

segmental reflex

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44
Q

How does disproportional proximal distribution of muscle mass improve speed?

A

by changing the frequency of oscillation by changing the center of gravity

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44
Q

E and NE stimulate ____ receptor on alpha cells in the pancreas to increase glucagon secretion when plasma glucose levels are norma

A

beta-adrenergic

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44
Q

How does increased PTH affect osteoclasts

A

Increases activity=more bone resorption

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45
Q

The insertion

A

the most distal attachment of the muscle. The most moveable part and may have multiple insertions.

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46
Q

How does flexibility of the spine affect speed?

A

Flexibility of the vertebral column may increase stride length by providing an additional pivot point through the vertebral column . Rigid spine runners are limited by the limb

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47
Q

The belly of the muscle

A

usually a single one but may be multiples

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48
Q

What type of collagen fibers are found in Fibrocartilage

A

Type I

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49
Q

Gylcosaminoglycans (GAGS)

A

polysaccharide chains composed of repeating disaccharide units in which one of the sugars is always an amino sugar. The other sugar is either a uronic acid or galactose. They are highly negatively charged and attract sodium ions, which in turn draws water into the matrix thereby causing swelling or turgor which helps resist against compressive forces.

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50
Q

2/3 of cortical bone is supplied by the ________ artery

A

nutrient

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51
Q

The speed of contraction or the shortening of sarcomeres is directly proportional to the actin activated ATPase activity of ______

A

myosin

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51
Q

_____must be present for the transfer of energy from NADH and FADH to ATP

A

Oxygen

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52
Q

The matrix of Hyaline cartilage is rich in ______ fibers

A

Type II collagen

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53
Q

Interstitial growth

A

division of chondrocytes within lacunae and synthesis of new cartilage matrix so that cartilage expands from within

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54
Q

Negative allometry

A

means k

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54
Q

Synchondrosis joint

A

Mobility: Synarthrotic

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55
Q

Appendicular skeleton

A

thoracic and pelvic limbs

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55
Q

What are the complications of marginal gingivitis

A

Marginal gingivitis which can lead to: chronic gingivitis, pocket formation, loss of attachment, alveolar bone loss

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56
Q

Synostosis joint

A

Mobility: Synarthrotic

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57
Q

Osteoblasts

A

responsible for bone formation, produce bone matrix, initiate mineralization of the matrix. Ovoid to cylindrical in shape. Single and eccentric nucleus. Produce type I collage, proteoglycans, and bone specific proteins.

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58
Q

What is the principal funcition of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

control calcium ion concentration of the sarcoplasm surrounding myofibrils and myofilaments through its ability to concentrate and release calcium ions

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59
Q

Actin possesses a binding capacity for ____ and activates the _____

A

myosin, myosin ATPase

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59
Q

Exocytotic release of ACh from axon terminal is calcium ion dependent. In _______ there is a reduced ACh release that is associated with muscle weakness

A

Hypocalcemia

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59
Q

What gets excited by muscles spindle stretch and what happens once they do.

A

alpha motoneurons associated with those spindles. Results in a rapid contraction and the muscle shortens reducing the amount of stretch on the receptor.

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60
Q

Creating collagen precursors

A

synthesized in the rough ER of the fibroblasts where proline and lysine are hydroxylated. Pro-alpha chains are then assembled into procollagen and subsequently packaged in the Golgi apparatus for secretion by exocytosis into the extracellular space. In the extracellular space, the terminal peptides are enzymatically cleaved by peptidase to form collagen.

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61
Q

What happens to cartilage during calcification

A

chondrocytes hypertrophy/die. Blood vessels form around perichondrium. Osteoblasts differentiate.

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62
Q

Fast-twitch (F, Type II) Motor Units

A

Contraction times are relatively fast and tetanic fusion frequency is relatively high

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64
Q

articular cartilage

A

refers to hyaline cartilage on the articular surfaces of bones

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65
Q

Places where hyaline cartilage is found

A

growth plate, trachea, articular cartilage, larynx

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65
Q

What decreases the activity os osteoclasts

A

Calcitonin and E2

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66
Q

Normal pattern of healing of the extraction socket

A

clot formation after removal phase–> repair phase and initiation of bone formation–> woven bone–> lamellar bone

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67
Q

How does elongation of limbs affect speed?

A

If the frequency of oscillation remains constant, speed may be enhanced by merely increasing stride length through increasing the length of the pendulum (limb)

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69
Q

Amphiarthrotic

A

some mobility.

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70
Q

Nerve action potentials during neuromuscular transmission

A

originating at the motoneuron cell body. Are conducted along the axon to the axon terminals

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70
Q

Bone modeling

A

sculpting process that follows the elongation of growth. Process by which the overall shape is changed in response to physiolgic and or mechanical influences. Bone formation and resorption occur at separate bone surfaces

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71
Q

Phosphocreatine is available in _____ amounts in muscle. Therefore PC release of energy can only really be used for short term intense exercise

A

small

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72
Q

How do you treat Myasthenia Gravis (MG)

A

Through the use of cholinesterase inhibitor and/or suppression of immune response with steroids

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72
Q

What is the net production of glycolysis

A

2 or 3 ATPs and 2 NADHs

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72
Q

Where is synovial fluid produced

A

synovial fold

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72
Q

The osteoid seam, an unmineralized bone matrix is found between _______ and ______

A

active osteoblasts and bone surface

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73
Q

If a normal animal is laid on its side the crossed extension reflex is _____

A

absent.

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73
Q

Glycolysis is controlled by the activity of the rate limiting enzyme _____

A

Phosphofructokinase (PFK)

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74
Q

What are transverse T tubules

A

transverse invaginations of the sarcolemma that propagate changes in the membrane potential of these large cells

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75
Q

Maloclussion

A

failure of the upper and lower teeth to interdigitate properly. Leads to difficult mastication caused by Prognathia(protrusion of lower jaw) or Brachygnathia (shorter lower jaw)

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76
Q

_____ is the principal protein comprising thick filaments

A

Myosin

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78
Q

The origin

A

the most proximal attachment of the muscle and usually has no tendon or a small aponeurotic tendon. Usually the least moveable part of the muscle

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80
Q

This glycosaminoglycan is extremely long and unbranched and is widely distributed in most connective tissues, cartilage, synovial fluids, and vitreous humor.

A

Hyaluronic acid

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80
Q

Oxidative formation of ATP is considered _____ metabolism

A

aerobic

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82
Q

A sheet of dense connective tissue that completely surrounds and invests the muscle belly

A

Epimysium

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83
Q

Hypsodontic Teeth

A

Grow throughout life. Require floating. Horses teeth and the cheek teeth of ruminants

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84
Q

Muscle development require

A

neural innervation

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85
Q

Pennate muscles generate large amounts of _____ but allow for little _____. In contrast parallel muscle can _____ further and more rapidly but generate less _______

A

force, shortening, shorten, force

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86
Q

Sclerotomes give rise to

A

connective tissue and bone

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88
Q

Synovial tendon sheaths

A

Located in regions where friction is enhanced by greater movement tendons will form this sheath. Sheaths are filled with synovial fluid to reduce friction during movement.

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89
Q

Diathrotic

A

freely movable

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89
Q

Osteocytes

A

differentiated osteoblasts buried in bone matrix.

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90
Q

Long bones

A

appendicular skeleton

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91
Q

Brachydont teeth

A

Do not grow continously. Root not covered by enamel

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92
Q

What type of receptors are found on the crests of junctional folds and what is their purpose.

A

acetylcholine receptors. Upon activation open and increase membrane permeability to sodium and potassium

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93
Q

Two types of bone growth

A

endochondral ossification and appositional/intramembranous bone formation

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94
Q

Type I collagen

A

loose and dense proper connective tissue; found in collagen fibers, fibrocartilage bone and dentin. Originates from fibroblasts, osteoblasts, odontoblasts

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94
Q

What causes the amorphous substance to have a gel like nature

A

the presence of glycosaminoglycans and proteoglycans

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95
Q

What are chondrocytes

A

Mature cartilage cells embedded in matrix.reside in lacuna

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97
Q

Agonist muscles

A

muscles that produce similarly directed movements at a joint

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99
Q

A delicate connective tissue that surrounds each muscle fiber primarily composed of reticular fibers that harness the muscle fibers through connections with the external lamina.

A

Endomysium

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100
Q

Calcium uptake during neuromuscular transmission

A

with the arrival of an action potential the axon terminal, calcium ions enter the axon terminal via voltage gated calcium ion channels

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101
Q

Muscles that have an insertion point closer to the joint can generate a _______________ for the joint

A

greater range of motion

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101
Q

What is a skeletal muscle motor unit

A

alpha-motoneuron and the muscle fibers innervated by that neuron.

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102
Q

Responses to a single applied stimulus composed of a phase of developing tension followed by a phase of relaxation and diminishing tension.

A

Twitch contraction

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104
Q

Each sarcomere is encircled by longitudinal intermediate filaments of ______ that extend between Z lines of the same sarcomere. Z lines of adjacent myofibrils are held in register by intermediate filaments of _______

A

vimentin, desmin

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104
Q

Focal innervation

A

one synapse per muscle fiber. It is the most common form of innervation in mammalian species

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105
Q

Zone of calcified cartilage

A

matrix is more darkly stained due to calcium deposition. After growth is finished the tidemark will be a visible border between the zone of articular cartilage and the zone of calcification

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106
Q

The activity of the Ca++-ATPase pump is regulated by what?

A

Intracellular calcium concentrations

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106
Q

What is howship’s lacuna

A

The resorption concavity found on osteoclasts

107
Q

Somite myotomes turn into

A

skeletal muscle

108
Q

Myotomes give rise to

A

skeletal muscle

109
Q

Zone of resting chondrocytes

A

chondrocytes are scattered, they do not divide, and may serve to weld the growth plate to the epiphysis

110
Q

What is he active state of a muscle

A

Time course and magnitude of the contractile/chemical events associated with the interaction of myofilaments. Starts to develop quickly after the release of Ca++ from the SR. Mechanical events begin a little later due to titin and other structural proteins having to be stretched a finite amount before force production is transferred to the tendons of the muscle.

110
Q

Methods to stimulate Bone fracture healing

A
  • Implantation of cancellous bone autograft (most common)
  • Precutaneous injection of bone marrow cells
  • Implantation of bone graft substitute
  • Bone morphogenetic protein
  • Electrical or ultrasound stimulation
  • Shock wave treatment
111
Q

Troponin-Tropomyosin complex during relaxation

A

sarcoplasmic calcium ion concentration is low. The tropomyosin levels are elevated out of grooves and through the action of the Tn-1 subunit, block the myosin binding sites on actin

112
Q

Multiaxial joints

A

three degrees or more of freedom such as ball and socket joints

112
Q

Motor nerve conduction velocity

A

provides info on the integrity of nerve fibers in peripheral nerves. DOne under anesthesia. Demyelinating disorders cause slowed conduction

113
Q

Uniaxial joints

A

one degree of freedom hinge joints such as elbow and knee

114
Q

release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft occurs through __________

A

calcium ion dependent exocystosis

115
Q

Within axon terminals are numerous _____ containing the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.

A

synaptic vesicles

116
Q

Principal glycosaminoglycans of CT

A

hyaluronic acid, chondroitin-4-sulfate, chondoitin-6-sulfate, dematen sulfate, karetan sulfate and heparin sulfate.

117
Q

What makes up glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)

A

Chondroitin

118
Q

Flat bones

A

skull, scapula, pelvis

119
Q

Length of a sarcomere following contraction

A

decreased

121
Q

Fibrous layer of synovial joint

A

dense white fibrous connective tissue that contains elastic fibers attaches to the perichondral ring. Area of transition between articular cartilage and the periosteum of the metaphysis.

123
Q

Zone of hypertrophied chondrocytes

A

Narrow zone at metaphyseal end of the column, in which chondrocytes with lacunae are large and intercellular matrix is minimal; since the matrix is minimal, this is the weakest site in the growth plate and therefore a major site for fractures

124
Q

What is the purpose of cartilage

A

provides support and serves as a model or template for the formation of bones

125
Q

Biaxial joints

A

two degrees of freedom can move in two planes such as wrists

125
Q

Vertebral development comes from the

A

notochord

126
Q

Flexion

A

refers to the bending of a limb at a joint, thereby decreasing the angle around the joint

126
Q

Structure of fibrocartilage

A

Irregular dense fibrous tissue, thinly dispersed , encapsulated chondrocytes. LArge bundles of type I collagen fibers. No perichondrium

128
Q

Dense regular connective tissue

A

comprises the majority of the ordinary connective tissues of the musculoskeletal system (tendons, ligaments, and aponeuroses). Tolerates tensile or stretching forces

129
Q

Somite sclerotomes turn into

A

axial skeleton

131
Q

Isometric contraction

A

force generated at constant length

132
Q

During bone modeling bone formation occurs at the

A

periosteal surface

134
Q

Type IV collagen (Laminar Collagen)

A

Basal lamina of epithelia cells, external lamina of muscle fibers. Originates from epithelial cells and muscle fibers

136
Q

joint capsule

A

a thin, fluid filled, fibrous sac which encloses a synovial joint

136
Q

What do you find in canaliculi

A

Osteocytes cell processes

138
Q

How are proteoglycan aggregates formed

A

through the attachment of numerous proteoglycan molecules to hyaluronic acid via linking proteins

138
Q

What allows the sarcoplasm to pump calcium ions from the sacroplasm to the lumen of the SR

A

CA++ ATPase pump

139
Q

What are 3 ways muscles can produce ATP

A
  1. Breakdown of phosphocreatine
  2. Degredation of glucose or glycogen or glycolysis
  3. Oxidative formation of ATP
140
Q

Activity of PFK is stimulated by ___ and ___ and inhibited by ____, _____, and _____

A
  • ADP
  • Pi
  • ATP
  • Decrease in pH
  • High levels of phosphocreatine
141
Q

What is the golgi tendon organ

A

a slender encapsulated sensory organ located in the tendon which lies in series with 15-20 muscle fibers.

142
Q

A reflex can be defined as

A

an involuntary, qualitatively unvarying response generated by the CNS to a stimulus

144
Q

______ are analogous to tendons but consist of flat sheets of dense connective tissue that typically attach flat muscles to bone.

A

Aponeuroses

145
Q

What is the most abundant cells in mature bone

A

Osteocytes

146
Q

Cancellous bone

A

inner spongy part

147
Q

Miniature End-Plate Potentials

A

In the absence of nerve action potentials at the NMJ, there is a spontaneous process of single vesicle (quantum) release of ACh that forms a small local membrane potential change of about 0.5 to 1.0 mV, which is the MEPP. They are NOT sufficient to initiate muscle action potentials

148
Q

Macromolecules with numerous sulfated glycosaminoglycans covalently bound as side chains to a core protein.

A

Proteoglycans

150
Q

Troponin makes up __% of structural protein. Filaments are ___ and the general function is ____

A

2%, thin, regulation

151
Q

Characteristics of mature bone

A

cortical and cancellous bone developed. Epiphyseal growth plate has fused at completion of bone growth. All perichondrium is now periostium

152
Q

Medullary cavity development

A

Bone collar thickens and lengthens. Mature bone is produced from woven bone by remodeling which medullary cavity develops by osteoclasts resorption.

154
Q

How is myostatin being used for therapy for muscular dystrophy

A

Myostatin is a muscle growth inhibitory factor. Blocking os myostatin with follistatin has been shown to facilitate muscle force production and promote muscle health in animals with muscular dystrophy

154
Q

Eosin binds to

A

basic substance that are considered acidophilic i.e. proteins

156
Q

A regular dense connective tissue that attaches bone to bone. Functions to stabilize and strengthen joints and limit the movement of bones in certain directions.

A

ligaments

157
Q

synovial fold

A

infolding of synovial membrane into synovial space; not present in all synovial joints

158
Q

Blood flow to cortical bone has a ______pattern

A

centripetal

160
Q

Molecules of ACh diffuse across the synaptic cleft to the postsynaptic sarcolemmal membrane to bind with _______

A

ACh-receptors

161
Q

Conversion of Bone lining cells to osteoblasts occurs via the function of the hormone

A

PTH

162
Q

What makes up amorphous ground substance in bone

A

PG aggregates made up of chroitin sulfate, keratan sulfate, and hyaluronic acid as well as bone specific matrix proteins such as osteocalcin and osteopontin

164
Q

Allometry

A

tool for assessing relative growth and involves the use of on structure as a means by which to gauge the growth of another

165
Q

Dermatomes give rise to

A

dermis

167
Q

Pale staining regions located in the middle of A-band

A

H-bands

168
Q

What sensory receptors are important for the CNS to determine whether an initiated movement is appropriate

A

muscle spindles and Golgi tendon

169
Q

synovial membrane

A

an epitheliod layer of fibroblasts that encases the synovial fluid

170
Q

Troponin structure

A

globular protein bound to tropomyosin at40 nm intervals along the thin filament

170
Q

What minerals are found in the bone matrix

A

primarily calcium and phosphorus arranged in hydroxyapatite crystals

171
Q

Distributed innervation

A

involves 2-5 or more synapses per muscle fiber. This pattern is found in intrafusal fibers, some extraocular muscles and tonic fibers in avian species.

172
Q

What is the sarcolemma

A

cell membrane of muscle fibers

173
Q

Net production of aerobic metabolism of 1 pyruvate molecule

A

4 NADH, 1 GTP, 1 FADH

175
Q

Each T-tubule is flanked by two terminal cisternae to form a ____

A

triad

175
Q

What will an EMG show in a patient with muscular dystrophy

A

repetitive high frequency discharges

176
Q

Glucose uptake in skeletal muscle during exercise is mediated by _________

A

insulin dependent glucose transporters (GLUT-4)

178
Q

Fibrous protein composed of two polypeptide chains that sits within the grooves of thin filament, F-actin strands

A

Tropomyosin

179
Q

Alpha actin makes up ___% of structural protein. Filaments are ___. The general function is to provide _____

A

10%, Z-line, structural

181
Q

Muscles adapted for faster contractions have greater proportions of _____, ___ ___compared to muscles adapted for slower contraction

A

fast-twitch, type 2 fibers

181
Q

The nuclei of muscle cells in mammals are located

A

peripherally

182
Q

Somite dermatomes turn into

A

connective tissue

184
Q

The reuptake of calcium ions largely occurs in the ______

A

sarcotubules

185
Q

Clinical signs of patients with upper motoneuron disease

A

inappropriate movement, no atrophy, retrained segmental reflex

187
Q

X-linked Muscular Dystrophy

A

Genetically linked deficiency of dystrophin well characterized in Goldens. Symptoms usually begin at 8-10 weeks

188
Q

____ it the immediate source of energy for muscle contraction

A

ATP

189
Q

The inner osteogenic (cambium) layer is composed of ______ cells and _____

A

osteoprogenitor, osteoblast

190
Q

Syndesmosis joint

A

Mobility: Synarthrotic

190
Q

Action potentials from the Golgi produce _______ in alpha motoneurons

A

inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (opposite of muscle spindles)

191
Q

Hard callus

A

Later stage in the repair early immature bone is bridging the fracture gap. Woven bone is gradually converted to lamellar bone

193
Q

What type of connective tissue do osteoblast and osteocytes make

A

Bone

194
Q

Force of eccentric contractions

A

greater than concentric or isometric

195
Q

Where is fibrocartilage found?

A

annulus fibrosis, menisci of stifle joint, symphysis pubis, and insertions of tendons and ligaments

196
Q

Tidemark

A

the junction between the radial zone and calcified cartilage. Appears as “joint surface” in radiographs

198
Q

In triads the 15 nm gap between the T-tuble membrane and the terminal cisternae is bridged by _____

A

junctional feet

200
Q

Length of H band following contraction

A

decreased

201
Q

Formation of secondary ossification centers

A

established in the epiphyses

202
Q

Torque may change due to

A

the position of the limb due to the change in length of the arm

202
Q

What genes are important for proper musculoskeletal development

A

Sonic Hedgehog (SHH)-sclerotome development and Wnt-promotes myotome

203
Q

Longitudinal bundles of thick and thin myofilaments arranged in repeated sarcomeres along their length.

A

Myofibrils

204
Q

Axial skeleton

A

Head, vertebrae, ribs, and sternum

206
Q

Zones of cartilaginous growth and mineralization

A
  • Zone of resting chondrocytes
  • Zone of proliferative chondrocytes
  • Zone of hypertrophied chondrocytes
  • Zone of calcified cartilage
207
Q

Three connective tissue components are associated with skeletal muscle

A
  1. epimysium
  2. perimysium
  3. endomysium
209
Q

Which GAG is found in blood vessels and some cell surfaces

A

heparin sulfate

210
Q

Sharpey’s Fibers

A

attach tendons, ligaments, and joint capsules to the bone. Made out of collagen

210
Q

Appositional growth

A

deposition of new cartilage matrix by chondroblasts at the perichondrial surface

211
Q

A reflex arc has 5 fundamental components. What are they?

A
  1. Receptor
  2. Sensory or afferent nerve
  3. Synapse within the CNS
  4. Motor or efferent nerve
  5. Target or Effector organ
213
Q

What makes up extracellular matrix

A

Intercellular fibers and amorphous substances. The fibers provide tensile strength and elasticity while the ground substance provides compressive strength

214
Q

What is responsible for contractility of muscle cells

A

interaction of myosin and actin in the presence of ATP

215
Q

What are chondroblasts

A

Immature cartilage cells. Secrete extracellular matrix but are not yet imprisoned in a lacuna

216
Q

Epimysium

A

fascia, the outer capsule of the muscle

218
Q

Myasthenia Gravis

A

caused by Deficiency of ACh receptors on postsnyptic membrane. Signs of muscular weakness, EMG will show progressive decline in evoked potentials

219
Q

Rate limiting enzyme of Krebs cycle

A

isocitrate dehydrogenase

220
Q

Tropomysin makes up ___% of structural proteins. Filaments are ___ and the general function is ______

A

7%, thin, Regulation (limits availability of myosin)

221
Q

What enzyme catalyzes the donation of a phosphate group to ADP for the formation of ATP in Phosphocreatine system

A

creatine kinase

222
Q

Actin possesses a binding capacity for _____ and activates

A

myosin

222
Q

Myoblasts are formed by ____ and undergo mitosis driven by fibroblast growth factors

A

myotome cell

224
Q

_____ detect changes in muscle length

A

Muscle spindles

225
Q

Zone of proliferative chondrocytes

A

isogenic columns of actively dividing chondrocytes; site of elongation of the long bone. The more mature chondrocytes are located at the metaphyseal end of the column

226
Q

Light meromysin fraction

A

after proteolytic digestion the part that consists of mostly the tail portion of myosin

227
Q

What is the most common form of cartilage

A

Hyaline

229
Q

The sarcoplasmic reticulum acts as a _____ for calcium ions.

A

resorvoir

231
Q

Evoked potential recordings

A

repetitive nerve stimulation provides info on the integrity of neuromuscular transmission

232
Q

____ and ____ are regulatory proteins that regulate the interaction of actin and myosin in response to calcium ion concentrations in the sarcoplasm

A

Troponin, tropomyosin

233
Q

Elastic Fibers

A

Allow organs to undergo expansion and recoil. Composed of elastin and fibrillin.

235
Q

What is the net yield of each glyceraldehyde-3- phosphate molecule in Glycolysis

A

2 ATP molecules and one pyruvate molecule

236
Q

What creates overlap and gap regions during the development on collagen.

A

staggering

237
Q

The enzyme ______ is very important for the breakdown of glycogen into glucose for anaerobic metabolism. This enzyme is indirectly stimulated by increases in sarcoplasmic Ca++ associated with contraction

A

phosphorylase

238
Q

Myoseptal innervation

A

involves pair of synapses situated near the origin and insertion of muscle fibers in some reptiles and lower vertebrates.

239
Q

Fast-twitch, Fatigue resistant (FFR, Type IIA )

A

extremely resistant to fatigue and are able to sustain their tetanic tensions at 75% of maximum for 5 or more minutes

241
Q

The basal lamina

A

a specialized component of the extracellular matrix. It is interfaced between connective tissue and the overlying epithelial cells it supports composed of type IV, type VII collagen, heparin sulfate proteoglycans and adhesive glycoproteins (fibronectin, laminin)

242
Q

Phosphocreatine breakdown and glycolysis are considered _______metabolism

A

anaerobic

243
Q

What do mechanical strains cause osteocytes to do.

A

Strains signal osteocytes through a biochemical pathway to orchestrate bone gain or bone loss as needed (functional syncytium involvement)

245
Q

Clinical signs of lower motoneuron disease can be explained by the loss of alpha motoneuron or associated motor nerve. The signs are

A

Paralysis, atrophy, loss of segmental and intersegmental reflexes

246
Q

Lateral plate somatic mesoderm turns into

A

appendicular skelton

247
Q

Osteoclasts

A

Large multinucleated cells responsible for bone resorption

248
Q

What type of growth does the osteogenic layer undergo?

A

Appositional

249
Q

Length of A-band following contraction

A

unchaged

251
Q

Isotonic contraction

A

recorded based on the amount of shortening that occurs when lifting weight. Displays force velocity relationship

252
Q

Formation of compact bone

A

cartilage is entirely replace by bone except for the epiphyseal growth plate and articular cartilage

254
Q

A second order of collagenous connective tissue composed of epimyseal septae that invade the depths of the muscle belly to ensheath varying numbers of muscle fibers to form muscle fascicles or bundles.

A

perimysium

255
Q

The torque a muscle group can generate is

A

a function of both the force generated by the muscles and the moment arm of the muscle insertion. This means there can be two or more different torques on one joint

256
Q

Crossed extension reflex results in

A

activation of extensor muscle and inhibition of flexor motor neurons

257
Q

Flattened cells covering resting bone surfaces. Communicate with osteocytes via cell processes within canaliculi. Involved in regulation of the flow of calcium ions from bone to the extracellular fluid. Certain hormonal and mechanical stimuli induce them to convert into osteoblasts

A

Bone lining cells

258
Q

Repeating Z-line to Z-line intervals of myofibrils. Represent basic contractile units of of striated muscle

A

Sarcomeres

260
Q

The primary and secondary clefts are filled with external lamina that contains ________ an enzyme that hydrolyzes acetylcholine to acetate and choline

A

acetylcholinesterase

261
Q

Threshold for an MAP is reached when membrane potential is reduced from ____ to ____.

A

-80 to -90 mv to about -50 to -55mV

261
Q

Bone remodeling

A

Old bone is resorbed by osteoclasts and replaced by new bone by osteoblasts at the same bone surface

263
Q

What gives the matrix compression and tensile strength

A

Aggregates of PGs= compression capacity and collagen fibers=tensile strength and durability

264
Q

Epinephrine binds to ______ receptors on the liver and adipose tissue triggering the release of glucose from the liver and free fatty acids from adipose tissue

A

beta-adrenergic

265
Q

Steps of bone remodeling

A
  • Resorption: Osteoclasts break down mineralized matrix creating and erosion cavity
  • Reversal: mononuclear cells prepare bone surface for new osteoblasts that will form bone
  • Formation: Osteoblasts synthesize osteoid which is then mineralized
  • Resting: prolonged resting period follows until a new remodeling cycle begins
267
Q

Myofilament Ratios

A

6 thin myofilaments to 1 thick myofilament

268
Q

A reflex that involves more than one segment of the CNS i.e. withdrawal reflex

A

intersegmental reflex

269
Q

Periosteum

A

Outer fibrous layer composed of dense fibrous connective tissue

271
Q

Length of M-line following contraction

A

unchanged

273
Q

As tendons and ligaments approach attachment sites to bone or cartilage they form ________

A

sharpey’s fibers

274
Q

Steps of bone resorption

A
  • Decalcification of bone matrix-solubilization of calcium salts by acidification
  • Digestion of the organic components of bone matrix
  • Requires the release of lysosomal acid hydrolases (cathepsins)
275
Q

Primary nutrients for energy are

A

carbs and fat

277
Q

The axon terminal rests in the _________

A

primary-synaptic cleft

279
Q

joint space

A

located between the articular heads; normally filled with synovial fluid, a modified blood filtrate which acts to lubricate, protect, and nourish the joint surfaces

280
Q

Cylindrical regular dense connective tissue composed of arrays of type I collagen fibers in which muscle fibers end and by which muscles are attached to bones. Primary function is to transmit forces developed by muscles to the skeleton.

A

Tendons

282
Q

____ are specialized sensory organs that lie in parallel with fibers of the muscle or extrafusal fibers

A

Muscle spindle

283
Q

Soft callus

A

Organization of hematoma early primary new bone formation in subperiosteal regions of cartilage formation in other areas

284
Q

Range of shortening for pennate muscles, greatest to least.

A

unipennate > bipennate> multipennate

285
Q

Loose connective tissue

A

has a large number of cells and a loose, wispy arrangement of collagen fibers mixed in a relatively large volume of ground substance. usually found covering internal body surfaces

286
Q

Cortical bone

A

hard outer part

287
Q

Length-Tension relationships of sarcomeres

A

function of the sarcomere lengths of its myofibrils. Isometric contractions of single muscle fibers reveal that the tension generated is directly proportional to the number of cross-bridges exposed overlapped by thin filaments. No tension is developed when no overlap of thick and thin filaments

288
Q

Reticular fibers

A

Composed of type III collagen and have a polysaccharide rich coating. Abundant in connective tissues

289
Q

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum composed of tubular membranes that surround the myofibirls. Composed of sacrotubules and terminal cisternae.

A

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

290
Q

Myotendinous junctions

A

at the muscle’s origin and insertion where the mysial connective tissues merge and become confluent to form tendons or aponeruose.

291
Q

Gamma motoneurons

A

believed to synapse with alpha motoneurons. Thought to help maintain sensitivity of muscle spindles when muscle undergoes shortening.

292
Q

The arrangements of muscle fibers include:

A

Parallel, fan shaped, fusiform or pennate(parallel muscle fibers attached to a tendon at an angel.

293
Q

Actin makes up ____% of structural protein. Filaments are ___ and the general function is for ____

A

20%, thin, contration (activates myosin ATP-ase)

294
Q

Fast twitch muscles reach peak tension _____than slow twitch muscles

A

faster

295
Q

Length of I band following contaction

A

decreased

296
Q

____ is the principal structural protein of thin myofilaments

A

actin

298
Q

A toxin that irreversible binds to presynaptic membrane and blocks release of ACh. Results in a functional denervation of all muscle fibers

A

Botulism

299
Q

Consists of a biochemically complex hydrated gel in which the cells and intercellular fibers are embedded. Water, nutrients, and wastes can rapidly pass between the blood and parenchymal cells in the aqueous phase.

A

Amorphous ground substance

301
Q

Electron lucent bands composed of parallel thin myofilaments. Principally composed of actin

A

I-bands

302
Q

What are the principle types of intercellular fibers

A

Collagen Fibers, reticular fibers, and elastic fibers

303
Q

Synarthrotic joints

A

No mobility, does not move

304
Q

Symphysis joint

A

Mobility: Amphiarthrotic

305
Q

Torque

A

Force x moment arm

306
Q

Head mesenchyme (largely neural crest) turns into

A

skull and branchial arch bone + cartilage

307
Q

Extension

A

refers to the straightening of a limb which increases the angle around the joint

308
Q

Avascular/atrophic nonunion

A

Lacks callus

310
Q

Synovial joint

A

Mobility: diathrotic

311
Q

Endomysium

A

loose connective tissue that surrounds individual multinucleated muscle fibers. Brings in capillaries and the smallest division of nerves

312
Q

S-1 and S-2 fraction form cross bridges allowing myosin of thick filaments to attach to ______ of thin filaments

A

actin

314
Q

Thin dark lines that bisect I-bands. Composed of amorphous electron dense material containing alpha-actin and Z-line filaments.

A

Z-lines

315
Q

What do you find in lacunae

A

Osteocyte nuclei

316
Q

What type of connective tissue do fibroblasts and fibrocytes make

A

proper(ordinary) connective tissue

317
Q

Intrafusal muscle fibers are specialized muscle fibers in muscle spindles that are connected to the muscle tendons at either end. What are two types?

A

Nuclear bag fibers and nuclear chain fibers

318
Q

What type of connective tissue makes up fasciae, tendons, and ligaments, and the supportive specialized connective tissue of cartilage and bone?

A

Proper and ordinary (loose or dense) CT

319
Q

Type III collagen

A

loose connective tissues; reticular fibers, blood vessels. Originates from fibroblast

320
Q

The principle property of muscle cells is _______ but the property of _____ is also well developed

A

contractility, conductivity

321
Q

What kind of strength is ground substance importance for

A

compressive strength

322
Q

Tropomyosin-Troponin complex

A

regulatory proteins that regulate the interaction of actin and myosin in response to calcium ion concentrations in the sarcoplasm. Binds troponin to tropomyosin.

323
Q

Positive allometry

A

means k >1. Organ weight increases at a faster rate than body weight. In other words organ weight is an ever increasing percentage of body weight. This is a form of elastic scaling.

324
Q

Perimysium

A

inward extensions of epimysium that package groups of muscle cells into fascicles and bring nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatics into the muscle

325
Q

Both the flexion withdrawal reflex and crossed extension reflex are mediated through ________ pathways

A

polysnaptic

326
Q

Mechanisms of growth

A
  • cell proliferation
  • protoplasmic synthesis (new organic matter is created from nutrient supply via biosynthesis)
  • water uptake
  • intercellular matrix deposition (CT, cartilage, and bone)
327
Q

structure of myosin

A

asymmetrical protein with a head and tail region. Composed of two polypeptides arranged in an alpha helix that form the tail and two globular heads composed of 4 small polypeptides that form the head region

328
Q

What are small diameter muscle afferents responsible for

A

exercise pressor reflex- a component of the cardiovascular response to exercise. Important for muscle fatigue

329
Q

Upon reaching the muscle fiber to be innervated the axon looses its myelin sheath to form an _______

A

axon terminal

330
Q

How do primary ossification centers form

A

blood vessels invade calcified cartilage. Osteoblasts produce bone trabeculae in diaphysis

331
Q

The connective tissue surrounding the different sub-compartments of muscle. In continuity with each other

A

Fascia

332
Q

Articular cartilage

A

A type of hyaline cartilage located within joint spaces. Not covered in perichondrium, growth is interstitial and nutrients are received by diffusion from synovial fluid

333
Q

Structure of the intervertebral disc

A

Center of the disc is the nucleous pulposus surrounded by the annulus fibrosis on the periphery of the disc

334
Q

Can cartilage regenerate?

A

Very limited capacity for regeneration

335
Q

Heavy meromysin fraction

A

after proteolytic digestion the fraction that holds the two globular heads and a short potion of the alpha helical chain. Can then be further divided to form an S-1 fraction (two globular heads), and an S-2 fraction (alpha-helix)

336
Q

Flexion withdrawal affect acts to

A

move the body part away from painful stimulus as quickly as possible.

337
Q

Limb development begins in week _____ and ____limb forms first.

A

3-4, forelimb

338
Q

Slow twitch (S type I) Motor Units

A

Contraction time and tetanic frequency is relatively low. There motor units are resistant to fatigue and are able to maintain their tetanic frequency for long periods of time

339
Q

What type of forces is fibrocartilage resistant to?

A

Resists compression and shear forces. Has durability and high tensile strength

340
Q

Isometric contraction

A

Muscles are exerting force but no shortening occurs. Displays length tension relationship

341
Q

A normal EMG of muscles at rest is ____

A

silent

Musculoskeletal (VEM 5111G) (4 decks)

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