QUIZLET AIRPORT MARKINGS Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of MOAs?
Option a
To protect military aircraft operations from civil aircraft.
Option b
To separate military training activities from IFR traffic.
Option c
To separate military training activities from both IFR and VFR traffic.
To separate military training activities from IFR traffic.

A

B
Military operations areas (MOAs) consist of airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic. Whenever an MOA is being used, nonparticipating IFR traffic may be cleared through the MOA if IFR separation can be provided by ATC. Otherwise, ATC will reroute or restrict nonparticipating IFR traffic. Pilots operating under VFR should exercise extreme caution while flying within an MOA when military activity is being conducted. Information regarding activities in an MOA may be obtained from any FSS within 100 mi. of the area.

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2
Q

The airport markings, signage, and lighting associated with Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) consist of
Option a
yellow hold-short markings, red and white signage, and in-pavement lights.
Option b
red and white signage, yellow hold-short markings, and at some airports, in-pavement lights.
Option c
red and black signage, in-pavement lights, and yellow hold-short markings.

A

Answer (B) is correct.
Situational awareness is vital to the success of LAHSO. Situational awareness includes a thorough understanding of the airport markings, signage, and lighting associated with LAHSO. These visual aids consist of yellow hold-short markings, red and white signage, and, at some airports, in-pavement lighting.

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3
Q

A LAHSO clearance, once accepted, must be adhered to, just as any other ATC clearance, unless an amended clearance is obtained or an emergency occurs. A LAHSO clearance does not preclude a rejected landing.

In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available
Option a
the published Available Landing Distance (ALD), landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport.
Option b
the published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing.
Option c
the landing performance of the aircraft, published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing, plus the forecast winds.

A

Answer (A) is correct.
To conduct LAHSO, you should become familiar with all available information concerning LAHSO at the destination airport. You should have readily available the published ALD and runway slope information for all LAHSO runway combinations at each airport of intended landing. Additionally, knowledge about landing performance of your airplane permits you to readily determine that the ALD for the assigned runway is sufficient for safe LAHSO.

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4
Q
A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance that the pilot accepts
Option a 
must be adhered to.
Option b 
does not preclude a rejected landing.
Option c 
precludes a rejected landing.
A

Answer (B) is correct.

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5
Q

Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short
Option a
of an intersecting taxiway only.
Option b
of some designated point on the runway.
Option c
only of an intersecting runway or taxiway.

A

Answer (B) is correct.
LAHSO include landing and holding short of an intersecting runway, an intersecting taxiway, or some other designated point on a runway other than an intersecting runway or taxiway.

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6
Q

What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)?
Option a
Current NOTAMs (D) and FDC NOTAMs
Option b
Military NOTAMs only
Option c
Current NOTAMs (D), FDC NOTAMs, and military NOTAMs.

A

Answer (A) is correct.
The NTAP contains NOTAMs (D) that are expected to remain in effect for an extended period and FDC NOTAMs that are current at the time of publication.

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7
Q

What type of information is disseminated by NOTAMs (D)?
Option a
Status of navigation aids, ILSs, radar service available, and other information essential to planning.
Option b
Information specific to military airports that are part of the NAS.
Option c
Temporary flight restrictions, changes in status in navigational aids, and updates on equipment such as VASI..

A

Answer (A) is correct.
NOTAMs (D) disseminate various local and distant information. Distant NOTAMs are disseminated for all navigational facilities that are part of the National Airspace System (NAS) and for all public-use airports, seaplane bases, and heliports listed in the A/FD. They include the status of navigation aids, ILSs, radar service available, and other information essential to planning

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8
Q

NOTAMs (D) are used to disseminate what type of information?
Option a
Temporary flight restrictions, changes to sectional aeronautical charts, and changes to instrument approach procedures.
Option b
Taxi closures, personnel and equipment near or crossing runways, airport lighting aids that do not affect instrument approach criteria, and airport rotating beacon outages.
Option c
Time critical information of a permanent nature that is not yet available in normally published charts.

A

Answer (B) is correct.
NOTAMs (D) disseminate various local and distant information. At the local level, NOTAMs (D) disseminate information such as taxiway closures, personnel and equipment near or crossing runways, airport lighting aids that do not affect instrument approach criteria, and airport rotating beacon outages.

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9
Q

How often are NOTAMs broadcast to pilots on a scheduled basis?
Option a
15 minutes before and 15 minutes after the hour.
Option b
Between weather broadcasts on the hour.
Option c
Hourly, appended to the weather broadcast.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
NOTAMs (D) are broadcast to pilots automatically, appended to the hourly weather broadcast. NOTAM (L) information is not attached to the hourly weather reports but is distributed locally and maintained at each FSS for facilities in its area only. FDC NOTAMs are transmitted only once and are kept on file at the FSS until published or canceled.

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10
Q

What are FDC NOTAMs?
Option a
Conditions of facilities en route that may cause delays.
Option b
Time critical aeronautical information of a temporary nature from distant centers.
Option c
Regulatory amendments to published IAPs and charts not yet available in normally published charts.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
FDC (Flight Data Center) NOTAMs are regulatory in nature and issued to establish restrictions to flight or amend charts or published instrument approach procedures. FDC NOTAMs are published as needed and indexed in the Notice to Airmen Publication.

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11
Q

What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)?
Option a
High - white, on glide path - red and white; low - red.
Option b
High - white, on glide path - green; low - red.
Option c
High - white and green, on glide path - green; low - red.

A

Answer (A) is correct.
PAPI can indicate five possible glide path indications. All white light indicates “high” or more than 3.5° glide path. One red and three white indicate a slightly high (3.2°) glide path. Two red and two white indicate on the glide path (3°). Three red and one white indicate a slightly low (2.8°) glide path. Four red lights indicate below (less than 2.5°) the glide path.

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12
Q

What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of?
Option a
Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green.
Option b
Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white.
Option c
One light projector with two colors; red and white.

A

Answer (B) is correct.
The PAPI uses lights similar to the two- and three-bar VASI but installed in a single row of either two or four light units perpendicular to the runway. The row of lights is normally installed on the left side of the runway. Each light unit appears as either red or white. When two are red and two are white, you are on the glide path.

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13
Q

What are the indications of the pulsating VASI?
Option a
High - pulsing white, on glide path - green, low - pulsing red.
Option b
High - pulsing white, on glide path - steady white, slightly below glide slope - steady red, low - pulsing red.
Option c
High - pulsing white, on course and on glide path - steady white, off course but on glide path - pulsing white and red, low - pulsing red.

A

Answer (B) is correct.
The pulsating VASI provides a two-color visual glide path indication in the final approach area. It provides only a glide path indication while lateral course guidance is provided by the runway or runway lights. Above glide path is pulsating white. On glide path is steady white. Slightly below glide path is steady red. Below glide path is pulsating red. Also, the answer should refer to “pulsating,” not “pulsing.”

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14
Q

What does the pulsating VASI consist of?
Option a
Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady.
Option b
Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady.
Option c
One-light projector, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
Pulsating VASIs normally consist of a single light unit projecting a two-color visual glide path indication in the final approach area of the runway. The below glide path indication is normally pulsating red, and the above glide path is pulsating white. The on glide path indication is a steady white light. The slightly below glide path is a steady red. The answer should refer to “pulsating,” not “pulsing.”

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15
Q
What is the normal range of the tri-color VASI at night?
Option a 
5 miles.
Option b 
10 miles.
Option c 
15 miles.
A

Answer (A) is correct.
Tri-color VASI has a useful range of approximately 1/2 to 1 mi. during the day and up to 5 mi. at night, depending on the visibility conditions.

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16
Q
Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "low" indication?
Option a 
Red.
Option b 
Amber (not dark amber).
Option c 
Green.
A

Answer (A) is correct.
The tri-color VASI projects a three-color visual approach path into the final approach area of the runway. A “low” indication is seen as the color red.

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17
Q
Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "on course" indication?
Option a 
Red.
Option b 
Amber.
Option c 
Green.
A

Answer (C) is correct.
The tri-color VASI projects a three-color visual approach path into the final approach area of the runway. An “on course,” or on glide path, indication is seen as the color green.

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18
Q
Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication?
Option a 
Red.
Option b 
Amber.
Option c 
Green.
A

Answer (B) is correct.
The tri-color VASI projects a three-color visual approach path into the final approach area of the runway. A “high” indication is seen as the color amber.

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19
Q

What does the tri-color VASI consist of?
Option a
Three light bars; red, green, and amber.
Option b
One light projector with three colors; red, green, and amber.
Option c
Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber.

A

Answer (B) is correct.
Tri-color VASIs normally consist of a single light unit projecting a three-color visual approach path. The three colors are red, green, and amber. Below the glide path is red, above the glide path is amber, and on the glide path is green.

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20
Q
A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in
Option a 
a hard landing.
Option b 
increased landing rollout.
Option c 
landing short of the runway threshold.
A

Answer (B) is correct.
Although VASI normally provides glide path angles of 3°, some locations may be as high as 4.5° to give proper clearance. Pilots of high-performance aircraft are cautioned that use of VASI angles in excess of 3.5° may cause an increase in runway length required for landing and rollout.

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21
Q
The higher glide slope of the three-bar VASI is intended for use by
Option a 
high performance aircraft.
Option b 
helicopters.
Option c 
high cockpit aircraft.
A

Answer (C) is correct.
The three-bar VASI provides two visual glide paths. The higher glide path is intended for use only by high-cockpit aircraft to provide a sufficient threshold crossing height.

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22
Q

What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI?
Option a
Pilots have a choice of glide angles.
Option b
A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft.
Option c
The three-bar VASI is much more visible and can be used at a greater height.

A

Answer (B) is correct.
The three-bar VASI provides two visual glide paths. The lower glide path is provided by the near and middle bars and is normally set at 3°, while the upper glide path, provided by the middle and far bars, is normally 1/4° higher. This higher glide path is intended for use only by high cockpit aircraft to provide a sufficient threshold crossing height.

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23
Q
The illumination of the "THL" indicates
Option a 
lack of ATC takeoff clearance.
Option b 
another vehicle on the runway.
Option c 
terminal holding procedures are in effect.
A
Answer (B) is correct.
The THL (Takeoff Hold Lights) system is designed to warn aircrews and vehicle operators that the runway is unsafe for takeoff. Another vehicle on the runway could trigger the illumination of the THL.
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24
Q
REL is the acronym for
Option a 
Runway exit lights.
Option b 
Runway entrance lights.
Option c 
Ramp entry lights.
A

Answer (B) is correct.
The Runway Status Light System (RWSL) is a fully automated system that provides runway status information to pilots and surface vehicle operators to clearly indicate when it is unsafe to enter, cross, take off from, or land on a runway. The RWSL system processes information from surveillance systems and activates runway entrance lights (REL), takeoff hold lights (THL), runway intersection lights (RIL), and the final approach runway occupancy signal (FAROS) in accordance with the position and velocity of the detected traffic.

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25
Q
THL is the acronym for
Option a 
Takeoff hold lights.
Option b 
Taxi holding lights.
Option c 
Terminal holding lights.
A

Answer (A) is correct.
The Runway Status Light System (RWSL) is a fully automated system that provides runway status information to pilots and surface vehicle operators to clearly indicate when it is unsafe to enter, cross, take off from, or land on a runway. The RWSL system processes information from surveillance systems and activates runway entrance lights (REL), takeoff hold lights (THL), runway intersection lights (RIL), and the final approach runway occupancy signal (FAROS) in accordance with the position and velocity of the detected traffic.

26
Q

Taxi lead-off lights associated with the centerline lighting system
Option a
alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to the centerline of the taxiway.
Option b
alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to a point of the taxiway.
Option c
alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to the edge of the taxiway.

A

Answer (B) is correct.
The taxiway lead-off lights begin on the runway centerline and extend to one centerline light beyond the runway holding position, or the ILS/MLS critical area holding position.

27
Q

How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night?
Option a
Green, yellow, and white beacon light.
Option b
White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white.
Option c
Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white.

A

Answer (A) is correct.

Lighted heliports can be identified at night by an airport beacon. The beacon flashes green, yellow, and white light.

28
Q

How can a pilot identify a military airport at night?
Option a
Green, yellow, and white beacon light.
Option b
White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white.
Option c
Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
Military airports can be identified at night by an airport beacon. The beacon flashes green and white light with a dual flash of the white between the green flashes.

29
Q

Identify REIL.
Option a
Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway.
Option b
Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway.
Option c
Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
Runway end identifier lights (REIL) are installed to provide rapid and positive identification of the approach end of a particular runway. The system consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights located laterally on each side of the runway threshold.

30
Q

What is the purpose of REIL?
Option a
Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting.
Option b
Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short.
Option c
Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach.

A

Answer (A) is correct.
Runway end identifier lights (REIL) are installed to provide rapid and positive identification of the approach end of a particular runway. REIL is effective for the identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting.

31
Q

What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway?
Option a
Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights.
Option b
Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone.
Option c
Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for a caution zone.

A

Answer (B) is correct.
HIRL (high-intensity runway lights) and MIRL (medium-intensity runway lights) are runway edge light systems that have variable intensity controls. The runway edge lights are white, except that on instrument runways, amber replaces white on the last 2,000 ft. or half the runway length, whichever is less, to form a caution zone for landings.

32
Q

Taxiway centerline lead-off lights are color-coded to warn pilots that
Option a
they are within the taxiway end environment or ILS/MLS critical area.
Option b
they are within the runway environment or run-up danger critical area.
Option c
they are within the runway environment or ILS/MLS critical area.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
Taxiway centerline lead-off lights provide visual guidance to persons exiting the runway. They are color-coded to warn pilots and vehicle drivers that they are within the runway environment or instrument landing system/microwave landing system (ILS/MLS) critical area, whichever is more restrictive.

33
Q

Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems.
Option a
Amber lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end.
Option b
Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end.
Option c
Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to the end of the runway.

A

Answer (B) is correct.
Runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems alternates red and white lights as seen from 3,000 ft. to 1,000 ft. and has all red lights from 1,000 ft. to the runway end. From the opposite direction, these lights are seen as white lights.

34
Q

Identify taxi leadoff lights associated with the centerline lighting system.
Option a
Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to the centerline of the taxiway.
Option b
Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to the edge of the taxiway.
Option c
Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to a point on the exit.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
Taxiway leadoff lights extend from the runway centerline to a point on an exit taxiway to expedite movement of aircraft from the runway. These lights alternate green and yellow from the runway centerline to the runway holding position or the ILS/MLS critical area, as appropriate.

35
Q

Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL).
Option a
Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline.
Option b
Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone.
Option c
Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone.

A

Answer (A) is correct.
Touchdown zone lighting (TDZL) consists of two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline in the runway touchdown zone. The system starts 100 ft. from the landing threshold and extends to 3,000 ft. from the threshold or the midpoint of the runway, whichever is less.

36
Q

Identify the runway distance remaining markers.
Option a
Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance remaining.
Option b
Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3,000 feet from the end.
Option c
Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end.

A

Answer (A) is correct.
Runway distance remaining signs are located along the sides of the runway to indicate the remaining runway distance in increments of 1,000 ft. The signs have white numbers on a black background and are lighted for nighttime and low-visibility operations.

37
Q

Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have
Option a
yellow inscriptions on a black background.
Option b
white inscriptions on a black background.
Option c
black inscriptions on a yellow background.

A

Answer (C) is correct.

Destination signs have black inscriptions on yellow backgrounds indicating destinations on the airport.

38
Q
Holding position signs have
Option a 
white inscriptions on a red background.
Option b 
red inscriptions on a white background.
Option c 
yellow inscriptions on a red background.
Answer (A) is correct.
A

A holding position sign has a red background with a white inscription and is used to denote an entrance to a runway or critical area.

39
Q

You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of the runway when
Option a
the aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign.
Option b
the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line.
Option c
all parts of the aircraft have crossed the hold line.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
An aircraft exiting a runway is not considered clear of the runway until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the applicable holding position marking.

40
Q

What service is provided for aircraft operating within the outer area of Class C airspace?
Option a
The same as within Class C airspace when communications and radar contact is established.
Option b
Radar vectors to and from secondary airports within the outer area.
Option c
Basic radar service only when communications and radar contact is established.

A

Answer (A) is correct.
Within the outer area of Class C airspace, the same services are provided for aircraft as within Class C airspace. Providing these services, of course, requires establishment of two-way communications and radar contact.

41
Q
Which altitude (box 1) is applicable to the vertical extent of the inner and outer circles (now called surface and shelf areas)?
Option a 
3,000 feet AGL.
Option b 
3,000 feet above airport.
Option c 
4,000 feet above airport.
A

Answer (C) is correct.

The vertical extent of Class C airspace is 4,000 ft. above the airport elevation.

42
Q
What is the usual radius from the airport of the inner circle (now called surface area), C?
Option a 
5 miles.
Option b 
7 miles.
Option c 
10 miles.
A

Answer (A) is correct.

The usual radius of the surface area of Class C airspace is 5 NM from the airport.

43
Q
What is the normal radius from the airport of the outer area, B?
Option a 
10 miles.
Option b 
20 miles.
Option c 
25 miles.
A

Answer (B) is correct.

The normal radius of the outer area is 20 NM from the airport.

44
Q
What is the radius from the airport of the outer circle (now called shelf area), A?
Option a 
5 miles.
Option b 
10 miles.
Option c 
15 miles.
A

Answer (B) is correct.

The radius of the shelf area of Class C airspace is 10 NM from the airport.

45
Q

What services are provided for aircraft operating within Class C airspace?
Option a
Sequencing of arriving aircraft, separation of aircraft (except between VFR aircraft), and traffic advisories.
Option b
Sequencing of arriving aircraft (except VFR aircraft), separation between all aircraft, and traffic advisories.
Option c
Sequencing of all arriving aircraft, separation between all aircraft, and traffic advisories.

A

Answer (A) is correct.
ATC provides these services for aircraft operating within Class C airspace: sequencing of all arriving aircraft to the primary airport; maintaining standard IFR separation between IFR aircraft; providing traffic advisories and conflict resolution between IFR and VFR aircraft; and providing traffic advisories and safety alerts, as needed, between VFR aircraft.

46
Q
What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
Option a 
Two-way communications.
Option b 
Two-way communications and transponder.
Option c 
Transponder and DME.
A

Answer (B) is correct.

In Class C airspace, the equipment requirement is an operating two-way communications radio and a Mode C transponder.

47
Q

What pilot certification and aircraft equipment are required for operating in Class C airspace?
Option a
No specific certification but a two-way radio.
Option b
At least a Private Pilot Certificate and two-way radio.
Option c
At least a Private Pilot Certificate, two-way radio, and a TSO-C74b transponder.

A

Answer (A) is correct.
No specific certification is required to operate in Class C airspace; i.e., a student pilot may operate in Class C airspace (however, a recreational pilot may not unless with a special CFI endorsement). The aircraft must be equipped with a two-way radio and a transponder with Mode C capability, unless otherwise authorized by ATC.

48
Q
The maximum indicated airspeed that an aircraft may be flown in Class B airspace, after departing the primary airport, while at 1,700 feet AGL and 3.5 nautical miles from the airport is
Option a 
200 knots.
Option b 
230 knots.
Option c 
250 knots.
A

Answer (C) is correct.
Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft in Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 kt.

49
Q

What restriction applies to a large, turbine-powered airplane operating to or from a primary airport in Class B airspace?
Option a
Must not exceed 200 knots within Class B airspace.
Option b
Must operate above the floor when within lateral limits of Class B airspace.
Option c
Must operate in accordance with IFR procedures regardless of weather conditions.

A

Answer (B) is correct.
A large, turbine-powered airplane operating to or from a primary airport in Class B airspace must operate at or above the designated Class B airspace floors while within the lateral limits of Class B airspace, unless otherwise authorized by ATC.

50
Q

Why are certain areas that start 3 nautical miles from the coastline of the U.S. and extend outward, classified as Warning Areas?
Option a
To inform pilots of participating aircraft to maintain extreme vigilance while conducting flight within the area.
Option b
To warn all aircraft pilots that flying within the area may be extremely hazardous to aircraft and occupants.
Option c
To warn pilots of nonparticipating aircraft of a potential danger within the area.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
A warning area is airspace of defined dimensions, extending from 3 NM outward from the coast of the U.S., that contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The purpose of such warning areas is to warn nonparticipating pilots of the potential danger. A warning area may be located over domestic or international waters or both.

51
Q

What is the maximum acceptable tolerance for penetrating a domestic ADIZ overland?
Option a
Plus or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 10 minutes.
Option b
Plus or minus 20 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes.
Option c
Plus or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
A domestic Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ) is within the United States along an international boundary and is implied to be over land. The maximum acceptable tolerance for penetrating a domestic ADIZ is within 10 NM from the centerline of an intended track over an estimated penetration point and within 5 min. of the estimated time.

52
Q
Which altitude is normally appropriate for circle 5 (top of Class D airspace)?
Option a 
1,000 feet AGL.
Option b 
2,500 feet AGL.
Option c 
3,000 feet AGL.
A

Answer (B) is correct.
Circle 5 on Fig. 127 indicates the ceiling of Class D airspace. Class D airspace normally extends upward from the surface to 2,500 ft. AGL.

53
Q
Which altitude is appropriate for circle 6 (top of Class G airspace)?
Option a 
700 or 2,500 feet AGL.
Option b 
500 or 2,000 feet AGL.
Option c 
700 or 1,200 feet AGL.
A

Answer (C) is correct.
Circle 6 indicates the floor of Class E airspace, which is controlled airspace used to transition to and from the terminal and en route environment. The floor of Class E airspace can be established at either 700 ft. AGL, or 1,200 ft. AGL, as circle 6 indicates on Fig. 127.

54
Q
Which altitude is appropriate for circle 4 (top of Class G airspace)?
Option a 
700 feet AGL.
Option b 
1,200 feet AGL.
Option c 
1,500 feet AGL.
A

Answer (B) is correct.

Circle 4 on Fig. 127 indicates the top of Class G airspace at 1,200 ft. AGL.

55
Q
Which altitude is appropriate for circle 3 (top of Class A airspace)?
Option a 
FL 600.
Option b 
FL 450.
Option c 
FL 500.
A

Answer (A) is correct.

Circle 3 on Fig. 127 indicates the ceiling of Class A airspace, which is at FL 600.

56
Q
Which altitude is appropriate for circle 2 (top of Class C airspace)?
Option a 
3,000 feet AGL.
Option b 
4,000 feet AGL.
Option c 
3,500 feet MSL.
A

Answer (B) is correct.

Circle 2 on Fig. 127 indicates the ceiling of Class C airspace, which is normally 4,000 ft. above the airport elevation.

57
Q
Which altitude is appropriate for circle 1 (top of Class E airspace)?
Option a 
14,000 feet MSL.
Option b 
14,500 feet MSL.
Option c 
18,000 feet MSL.
A

Answer (C) is correct.

Circle 1 on Fig. 127 indicates the base of Class A or top of Class E airspace, which is 18,000 ft. MSL.

58
Q
What is the base of the Class A airspace?
Option a 
12,000 feet AGL.
Option b 
14,500 feet MSL.
Option c 
FL 180.
A

Answer (C) is correct.

The base of Class A airspace is 18,000 ft. MSL (FL 180).

59
Q
Who is responsible for collision avoidance in an MOA?
Option a 
Military controllers.
Option b 
ATC controllers.
Option c 
Each pilot.
A

Answer (C) is correct.
When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether a flight is conducted under VFR or IFR, each pilot is responsible to see and avoid other traffic. This includes operations in an MOA.

60
Q
Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet?
Option a 
IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart.
Option b 
IFR High Altitude En Route Chart.
Option c 
IFR Planning Chart.
A

Answer (A) is correct.
IFR Low-Altitude En Route Charts depict all military training routes (IR/VR) that accommodate operations above 1,500 ft. AGL. These routes are identified by three-digit numbers, e.g., IR 008, VR 009, etc. IR means IFR; VR means VFR. Note that segments of these routes may be below 1,500 ft.