quiz questions exam 1 BONUS!

Question 1

what is a a common end point for the following diagnoses (coronary artery disease, cor pulmonale, & severe mitral valve stenosis)

a. pericarditis
b. congestive heart failure
c. frank-starling’s disease (not a disease in itself)
d. acute myocardial infarction

Answer 1

b. congestive heart failure

Question 2

which condition is most common?

a. L-side heart failure
b. R-side heart failure
c. transposition of the great arteries
d. sudden cardiac death

Answer 2

a. L-side heart failure

Question 3

chronic ischemic heart disease are most likely to demonstrate which condition?

a. hypertrophy of the superior vena cava
b. pyrexia (fever)
c. peripheral arterial disease
d. hypertrophy of the left ventricle

Answer 3

d. hypertrophy of the left ventricle

Question 4

sudden cardiac death is most commonly the result of which conditions?

a. commotio cordis
b. hypertrophy of the L ventricle
c. arrhythmia
d. coronary artery atherosclerosis

Answer 4

d. coronary artery atherosclerosis

Question 5

Select all that apply
in megaloblastic anemia, impaired DNA production results in the formation of…
a. megaloblasts
b RBV "cellular gigantism"
c. leny bodies
d. coronary artery atherosclerosis

Answer 5

a. megaloblasts

b RBV “cellular gigantism”

Question 6

What is the most common cause of anemia?

a. cold agglutinin disease
b. seasonal affective disorder
c. marathon running
d. iron deficiency

Answer 6

d. iron deficiency

Question 7

What is the main organ responsible for removing damaged red bld cells from circulation?

a. colon
b. spleen ~ one answer is much more correct than the other
c. liver
d. pancreas

Answer 7

b. spleen ~ one answer is much more correct than the other

Question 8

Thalassemia is common in which of the following area?
a the colon
b. africa
c. australia
d. puerto rico

Answer 8

b. africa

Question 9

what is the treatment for hereditary spherocytosis?

a. glossectomy
b. hemicolectomy
d. splenectomy

Answer 9

d. splenectomy

Question 10

infectious mononucleosis is the result of an infection w/which microorganism?

a. coxackievirus
b. staphylococcus aureus
c. pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. EBV epstein-barr virus (FYI I consider viruses to be microbes)

Answer 10

d. EBV epstein-barr virus (FYI I consider viruses to be microbes)

Question 11

Select ALL
absolute polycythemia may result from\_\_\_?
a.neoplasm of hematopieitic stem cells
b. running a marathon
c. injecting erythropoietin
d. H2O deprivation

Answer 11

a. neoplasm of hematopieitic stem cells

c. injecting erythropoietin

Question 12

which sign is not a clinical feature of aplastic anemia?

a. insidious onset
b. splenomegaly
c. positive response to immunosuppressive therapy
d. bone marrow transplant is a treatment option

Answer 12

b. splenomegaly

Question 13

which condition classically manifests with teardrop shaped schistocytes?

a. aplastic anemiab.
b. myelophthisic anemia **
c. polycythemia
d. dwayne-carter’s disease

Answer 13

b. myelophthisic anemia **

Question 14

which age group is at highest risk for developing vit B12 deficiency anemia?

a. pediatrics (infant-17yrs)
b. young adults (18-40)
c. adults (41-64)
d. geriatrics (65+)

Answer 14

d. geriatrics (65+)

Question 15

select all
3 most common locations for lytic bony lesions associated with multiple myeloma
a. skull
b ribs
c pelvis
d femur
e vertebra

Answer 15

a. skull
b ribs
e vertebra

Question 16

you have patient in office and suspect she has multiple myeloma, so u order serum & urine electrophoresis be preformed. The lab report comes back demonstrates immunoglobulin M-spike. Is your patient likely to have multiple
myeloma?
a.yes
b.no

Answer 16

a.yes

Question 17

This “devastating disease” involves immature myeliod cell (myeloblast) development, which replaces bone marrow and results in marrow failure

a. hodgkin lymphoma
b. acute myelogenous leukemia
c. hyperparathyroidism
d. multiple myeloma

Answer 17

b. acute myelogenous leukemia

Question 18

Select the best combination of answers
The large cell in the figure demonstrates a mirror-image nucleoli, which is called an “owl-eye” appearance. This cells is called a ____ and is associated with the development of _____
a. reed-sternberg cell, Hodgkin lymphoma
b. bence-jones cell, multiple melanoma
c. reed-sternberg cell, multiple melanoma
d. bence-jones cell, Hodgekin lymphoma

Answer 18

a. reed-sternberg cell, Hodgkin lymphoma

Question 19

Hypertension is a defined as a systolic or diastolic bld pressure is at least ___

a. 1:1
b. 130/70
c. 150/100
d. 140/90

Answer 19

d. 140/90

Question 20

The CT disorder predisposes someone with the condition to a deadly aortic dissection.

a. atherosclerosis
b. marfan symdrome
c. commotio cordis
d. temporal arteritis

Answer 20

b. marfan symdrome

Question 21

This condition is the most common form of vasculitis and has an avg. age of onset at 55 yrs.

a. aneurysm
b. marfan syndrome
c. polyarteritis nodosa
d. temporal arteritis

Answer 21

d.temporal arteritis

Question 22

this condition presents clinically with pruritus, increased RBC count and low erythropoietin (EPO) levels

a. philadelphia chromosome
b. pre-leukemia
c. polycythemia vera
d. acute myelogenous leukemia

Answer 22

c. polycythemia vera

Question 23

which condition is the result of translocation of a gene from chrom 9 to chorm 22, which is referred to as philadelphia chrom?

a. chromic myelogenous leukemia
b. stapler
c. acute myelogenous leukemia
d. lamp

Answer 23

a. chromic myelogenous leukemia

Question 24

select all: what are 3 primary sites of extramedullary hematopoiesis

a. spleen
b. liver
c. gallbladder
d. lymph nodes

Answer 24

a. spleen
b. liver
d. lymph nodes

Question 25

cardiac ischemia generally leads to myocyte necrosis w/in \_\_\_\_ min
a 1-5
b. 5-6
c. 20-40
d. 120-240

Answer 25

c. 20-40

Question 26

Select all apply
Ischemic heart disease is most commonly caused by which of the 2 following?
a. throbosis
b. vasospasm
c. matathon running
d. deep vein thrombosis

Answer 26

a. throbosis

b. vasospasm

Question 27

males and females demonstrate very similar symptoms when suffereing a myocardial infarction
a true
b false

Answer 27

b false

Question 28

this condition commonly affects young children yonder than 2 yers old, results in mutifocal skin eruptions, and expansile medullary destruction.

a. acute disseminated Langerhans cell histiocytosis
b. polycythemia vera
c. chronic myelogenous leukemia
d. myeloid neoplasmic reticulum

Answer 28

a acute disseminated Langerhans cell histiocytosis

Question 29

This B-cell lymphoma arises from a single, node, spreads to a nearby nodes, and commonly affects males who are 15-40 yrs old as well as males who are older than 55 yrs of age

a. hodgkin lymphoma
b. non-hodgkin lymphoma
c. burkitt lymphoma
d. diffuse large b-cell lymphoma

Answer 29

a. hodgkin lymphoma

Question 30

lymphoid neoplasms located in the bone marrow are called ____ and those located in the lymphatic tissues are called ___

a. leukemia
b. intracellular granulotosis
c. lymphoma
d. kava-kava

Answer 30

a. leukemia

Question 31

birbeck granules (tennis-racket organelles) are characteristic of \_\_\_\_\_\_ 
neoplasms
a. lymphoid
b. myeloid
c. histiocytic 
d. erythrocytic

Answer 31

c. histiocytic

Question 32

what condition is associated with hyperplasia of the thymus gland?
a. christmas disease
b myastenia gravis
c. splenomegaly
d. panycytopenia

Answer 32

b myastenia gravis

Question 33

Hemophilia is associated with a mutation w/ \_\_\_\_\_\_ and hemophilia B is associated with a mutation of \_\_\_\_\_\_
a coagulation factor Beta
b CF VIII 
c. CF IX
d. CF XXX

Answer 33

b CF VIII

c. CF IX (B)

Question 34

in a healthy adult, the spleen not able to be palpated.

a. true
b. false

Answer 34

a. true

Question 35

The condition represents 20% of all leukemia diagnoses, exhibits extreme splenomegaly, and may produce an abnormal abdominal sensation.
a chronic myelogenous leukemia
b. acute myelogenous leukemia

Answer 35

a chronic myelogenous leukemia

Question 36

Burkitt lymphoma is endemic to which area?

a. the quad cities
b. africa
c. new zealand
d. southeast asia

Answer 36

b. africa

Question 37

Burkitts lymphoma- one of the fastest most aggressive growing tumor splenomegaly is characteristically absent in which condition?

a. condylomata lata
b. aplastic anemia
c. chlamydia
d. malaria

Answer 37

b. aplastic anemia

Question 38

select 2 best
in patient with hypertensive heart disease, an overload of bld P and bld vol will result in which 2 changes of cardiac ventricles?
a. dilation
b. hypertrophy
c. vasopressin
d. hyperplasia

Answer 38

a. dilation

b. hypertrophy

Question 39

the most common degenerative valvular disease is ____.

a. syphilis
b. coronary artery disease
c. calcific aortic valve stenosis
d. ischemic heart disease

Answer 39

c. calcific aortic valve stenosis

Question 40

Pericarditis produces an atypical chest pain that is worse when the patient assumes which position?
a. inversion
b lying prone
c. lying supine
d. side-lying on their right (atelectasis- side lying)

Answer 40

c. lying supine

Question 41

this cardiac neoplasm commonly originates from the atrial septum, is relatively mobile and “ball-like,” and may interfere with valvular leaflets

a. ductal carcinoma in situ (abnormal neoplasia, not necessarily cancer)
b. vit B12 deficiency anemia
c. mucosal Kaposi sarcoma
d. myxoma

Answer 41

d. myxoma