fucking more bonus quiz questions exam 1 son Flashcards

1
Q

The tunica Media is sperated from the Tunica Adventitia by the?

a. Endothelium
c. Internal Elastic Lamina
b. Tunica Intima
d. External Elastic Lamina

A

d. External Elastic Lamina

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2
Q

Athersclerosis is most likely to involve which of the following

a. Small arteries
c. Postcapillary venules
b. Large elastic arteries
d. collecting venules

A

b. Large elastic arteries

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3
Q
Which 2 mechanisms may cause vascular disease? (2 best)
A. Reduced Luminal Diameter       
c. Weakening of Vessel Walls
b.	Thromboembolism		
d. Arteriosclerosis
A

A. Reduced Luminal Diameter

c. Weakening of Vessel Walls

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4
Q
The diameter of a capillary lumen is around 8 um and is partially surrounded by smooth muscle like cells called
d.	A. Myonic Periphocyte		
c. Gliomas
B. Pericytes			
d. Endothelial Cells
A

d. Endothelial Cells

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5
Q
WOTF: 3 are considered to be major clinical consequences of atherosclerosis?
A, MI			
c. Peripheral Vascular Disease
B. Neovascularization
d. Aortic Aneurysm
A

A, MI

c. Peripheral Vascular Disease
d. Aortic Aneurysm

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6
Q
Extravastion of blood into the wall of an artery is associated with a?
A. Intracranial Berry Aneurysm	
c. False Aneurysm
B. True Aneurysm		
d. Fusiform aneurysm
A

c. False Aneurysm

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7
Q

Everyone older that ( ) years will demonstrate the presence of fatty streaks on the luminal surface of arteries?

a. 10 c. 35
b. 25 d. 45

A

a. 10

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8
Q

WOTF: 2 are key features of atherosclerotic plaques?

a. Thickening of Tunica Media
c. Lipid Accumulation
b. Thickening of Tunica Intima
d. Endothelial Aggregation

A

c. Lipid Accumulation

b. Thickening of Tunica Intima

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9
Q

Metabolic Syndrome is assoc. with which 2?

a. Insulin Resistance
c. Leptin Receptor Gene Mutation
b. Hypercoagulability
d. Retinitis

A

a. Insulin Resistance

c. Leptin Receptor Gene Mutation

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10
Q
Most type (  )  aortic dissections may be managed conservatively, while type (    )  require immediate surgery.
A. A, B				
c. C, A
B. B, A				
d. B, A
A

B. B, A

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11
Q

What are the 2 most common pathogenic mechanisms of vasculitis?

a. Physical Trauma
c. Immune-Mediated Inflammation
b. Exposure to Toxins
d. Direct Vascular Infection

A

c. Immune-Mediated. Direct Vascular Infection

d Inflammation

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12
Q

An abdominal aortic aneurysm measuring 5.7 cm in diameter is at a ( ) risk of rupture each year

a. 1% c. 22%
b. 11% d. 25%
- +6cm=25%; 4-5cm=1%; 5-6 cm=11%

A

b. 11%

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13
Q

A patient w/ Emphysema is at an increased risk of developing an abdominal aortic aneurysm
a. True b. False

A

a. True

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14
Q

The abrupt onset of ocular symptoms is involved w/ ( ) of patients w/ Giant Cell Arteritis.

a. 2%
c. 50%
b. 33%
d. 98%

A

c. 50%

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15
Q

The development of hepatic angiosarcomas is commonly assoc. w/ exposure to which of the following?

a. CO
c. Lead
b. Halogens
d. PVS

A

d. PVS

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16
Q

Karposi Sarcoma is a Vascular Neoplasm assoc. w/ which?

a. Escherichia coli
c. HHV 8
b. Cytomegalovirus
d. EBV

A

c. HHV 8

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17
Q
Lymphangiomas are benign lymphatic tumors that may grow as large as 15 cm and are most similar to WOTF?
a. Angiosarcomas			
c Telangiectasis
b. Hemangiomas			
d. Achalasia
A

b. Hemangiomas

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18
Q

Which condition is a common endpoint for various forms of cardiomyopathy

a. CHF
c. Ventral Septal Defect
b. MI
d. Activation of neurohumoral systems

A

a. CHF

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19
Q

WOTF: Cardiac defects commonly results in P&V ovenoads?

a. Obstruction of flow
c. Shunted flow
b. Regurgitant flow
d. Ruptured Vessels

A

a. Obstruction of flow

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20
Q

What is the most common cause of L sided Cardiac Failure

a. Aortic Valve Stenosis
c. Weight Lifting
b. Physiologic Hypertrophy
d. Ischemic Heart Disease

A

d. Ischemic Heart Disease

21
Q

R side heart failure resulting from pulmonary HTN is?

a. Angina
c. Cor Pulmonale
b. CHF
d. Tachycardia

A

c. Cor Pulmonale

22
Q

The Ductus arteriosus arises from the L pulmonary artery and joins the aorta during intrauterine life and is functionally closed by ( ) postrat.

a. 2
c. 30
b. 10
d. 90

A

a. 2

23
Q

Shunting of blood from the ( ) is most likely to manifest as early onset cyanosis

a. L to R Ventricle
b. R to L Ventricle

A

b. R to L Ventricle

24
Q

A prolonged ( ) shunt may cause shunt reversal due to adaptive changes in Pulmonary Vascular Resistance

a. L to R Ventricle
b. R to L Ventricle

A

?

25
Q
Congenital Heart Diseases account for (   ) of all birth defects
a. 4%				
C. 75%
b. 30%				
D. 90%
A

? 30% ?

26
Q

Which disease is most likely to interfere with the embryogenesis of Cardiac Tissue

a. Pertusis c. Mumps
b. Rubeola d. Rubella

A

d. Rubella

27
Q

WOTF: is used as a lab marker to evaluate pts. w/ possible MI

a. Inflammasome
c. Pericarditis
b. Myositisoifacans
d. Troponins (and CK)

A

?

28
Q

The symptoms associated w/ MI are commonly relieved by Nitroglycerine and rest

a. True
b. False

A

b. false

29
Q

PTs. Experiencing an acute MI will commonly demonstrate a rapidly and scarcely palpable (Thready) Pulse

a. True
b. False

A

true

30
Q

Anginal Symptoms typically begin when chronic atherosclerotic lesions occlude ( ) of the lumen.

a. 20%
c. 70%
b. 50%
d. 90%

A

C. 70%

31
Q

Systematic hypertensive heart disease causes _______ thickening of the left ventricularwall with reduced lumen size
A. CONCENTRIC
B. ECCENTRIC

A

A. CONCENTRIC

32
Q
Failure of a cardiac valve to open completely is \_\_\_\_\_\_
A. COR PULMONATE
B. INSUFFICIENCY
C. STENOSIS
D. FRILLS
A

C. STENOSIS

33
Q
Bicuspid aortic valve is a congenital malformation that occurs in approx. \_\_\_\_\_ of births
A. 2%
B. 18%
C. 82%
D. 98%
A

A. 2%

34
Q

It is common for calcific aortic stenosis to result in eccentric cardiac hypertrophy
A. T
B. F

A

B. False

35
Q

Cause of acute endocarditis involves a ______ heart valve
A. Previously normal
B. Previously abnormal

A

A. Previously normal

36
Q
When acute rheumatic fever develops within adults, \_\_\_\_\_ is the predominant feature
clinically
A arthritis 
B. carditis
C. weakness
D. dyspnea
A

A arthritis - adults

37
Q
WOTF is a clinical concern associated with the development of a friable vegetation on a
patients mitral valve.
A. DVT
B. increased stroke vol.
C. embolus
D. RV hypertrophy
A

C. embolus

38
Q
Rheumatic heart disease commonly develops \_\_\_\_\_\_ following exposure to Group A Bhemolytic
strep pharyngitis
A. 3 weeks
B. 7 weeks
C. 10 week
D. 1-2 years
A

A. 3 weeks

39
Q
Dilated cardiomyopathy commonly involves an increase in \_\_\_\_\_ of 2-3x
A. Filling pressure
B. Mitral thickness
C.Weight
D. Diameter of LV lumen
A

C.Weight

40
Q
What is the fundamental cardiac defect in patients with dilated cardiomyopathy?
A. Amyloidosis
B. diastolic dysfunction
C. ineffective contraction
D. arrhythmia
A

C. ineffective contraction

41
Q
WOTF is an example of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
A. Amyloidosis
B. myocarditis
C. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
D. asymmetric septal hypertrophy
A

A. Amyloidosis

42
Q
Extravascular hemolysis is most likely to take place within the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A. Lymph channels
B. post cap venule
C. liver 
D. spleen
A

D. spleen - primary [liver is secondary]

43
Q
Major receiving repeated blood transfusions are at risk for developing which condition?
A. Hematopoiesis
B. hemolytic anemia
C. hemosiderinuna
D. hemochromatosis
A

D. hemochromatosis

44
Q
The leading cause of death among patients with sickle cell anemia are \_\_\_\_\_\_ and\_\_\_\_\_
A. hemochromatosis
B. acute chest syndrome
C. stroke
D. hemosidennuria
A

B. acute chest syndrome

C. stroke

45
Q
Thalassemia is most likely to develop in these living in mediterr, Africa, and \_\_\_\_\_
A. India
B. caribbean
C. asia
D. central america
A

C. asia

46
Q
Sickle cell disease may lead to hypoxia induce fatty changes in the heart liver and \_\_\_\_
A. renal tubes
B. distal extremities
C. periungual regions
D. neurons
A

A. renal tubes

47
Q

Splenomegaly is more prominent in patients suffering from ______
A. Hereditary spherocytosis
B. Hemolytic anemia

A

A. Hereditary spherocytosis

48
Q

Iron excretion is regulated in the proximal convoluted tubule
A. True
B. False

A

B. False