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EMT 225 > Quiz Packet > Flashcards

Quiz Packet Flashcards

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1
Q

The ductus venosus, ductus arteriosus, and foramen ovale are:

A) Open until the child reaches puberty
B) Structures unique to fetal circulation
C) Structures that are formed after the first months of life
D) Necessary for normal circulation during the first 3 months of life

A

B) Structures unique to fetal circulation

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2
Q

A normal reaction to a finger gently stroking the sole of a newborn’s foot is:

A) Toes spread outward and upward
B) Toes curl in
C) Foot is withdrawn
D) Ankle twists laterally

A

A) Toes spread outward and upward

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3
Q

At birth, where are the only hard bones in an infant’s body?

A) Femur
B) Spinal column
C) Ribs
D) Fingers

A

D) Fingers

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4
Q

When does an infant usually begin to track objects and recognize familiar faces?

A) 2 months
B) 4 months
C) 6 months
D) 8 months

A

A) 2 months

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5
Q

Capillary beds become better developed during the toddler/preschool years, resulting in which of the following?

A) Lower blood pressure
B) Faster respirations
C) Better thermoregulation
D) More variability in the heart rate

A

C) Better thermoregulation

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6
Q

Which statement about passive immunity is false?

A) It last until approximately 6 months after birth
B) It arises from the mother’s antibodies
C) It is passed to the infant through breastmilk
D) It replaces the need for immunization in the first months of life

A

D) It replaces the need for immunization in the first months of life

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7
Q

What assessment tool is commonly used to evaluate a newborn?

A) RTS
B) GCS
C) APGAR
D) AVPU

A

C) APGAR

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8
Q

Preschool children who watch violent TV programs are prone to:

A) Avoid violence
B) Model the behavior
C) Be submissive to other children
D) Expect violent behaviors in those around them

A

B) Model the behavior

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9
Q

When do children begin to develop self-concept and self-esteem?

A) Infancy
B) Toddler years
C) School-age years
D) Adolescence

A

C) School-age years

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10
Q

During the school-age years, what does a child’s behavior become centered around?

A) The parents’ beliefs
B) The behavior of friends
C) The influence of teachers
D) Internal control and justification of choices

A

D) Internal control and justification of choices

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11
Q

When is a person’s physical peak achieved?

A) School years
B) Adolescence
C) Early adulthood
D) Middle adulthood

A

C) Early adulthood

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12
Q

“Terminal drop” refers to the hypothesis that in later years:

A) Declines in sensory function result in loss of close friendships
B) Older people slowly lose muscle mass and brain tissue, resulting in decreased physical function
C) A person’s emotional well-being begins to decline as close family and friends die
D) A decline in intelligence which may be caused by a perception of impending death

A

D) A decline in intelligence which may be caused by a perception of impending death

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13
Q

What is a newly fertilized ovum called?

A) Blastocyst
B) Morula
C) Embryo
D) Zygote

A

D) Zygote

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14
Q

How is oxygenated blood delivered to the fetus?

A) two umbilical veins
B) one umbilical vein
C) two umbilical arteries
D) one umbilical artery

A

B) one umbilical vein

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15
Q

During the first 8 weeks of pregnancy, what is the developing ovum known as?

A) Oocyte
B) Embryo
C) Fetus
D) Zygote

A

B) Embryo

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16
Q

What is the term for a woman’s first pregnancy?

A) Primigravida
B) Nullipara
C) Gravidapara
D) Unogravida

A

A) Primigravida

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17
Q

A pregnant patient can’t remember how many weeks she is into her pregnancy. On exam, you feel the fundus of the uterus at the level of the umbilicus, leading you to conclude that she has been pregnant for:

A) 12 weeks
B) 18 weeks
C) 20 weeks
D) 30 weeks

A

C) 20 weeks

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18
Q

The best position in which to transport a pregnant patient with no traumatic injuries is:

A) Right medial recumbent
B) Supine
C) Sitting up, leaning slightly forward
D) Left lateral recumbent

A

D) Left lateral recumbent

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19
Q

The leading cause of maternal injury is:

A) Interpersonal violence
B) Falls
C) Penetrating objects
D) Motor vehicle crashes

A

D) Motor vehicle crashes

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20
Q

If a pregnant woman loses 30% of her blood volume, you would expect the mother:

A) And fetus to tolerate this loss well
B) May show minimal changes, but the fetus will be distressed
C) To show signs of extreme hypoperfusion but the fetus to tolerate the loss well
D) And fetus to be gravely hypoxic

A

B) May show minimal changes, but the fetus will be distressed

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21
Q

The best position in which to transport a pregnant trauma patient with possible spinal injury is with cervical spine immobilization and a long backboard:

A) Tilted to the left
B) Flat on the stretcher
C) With the head elevated 30 degrees
D) Raised several inches at the feet

A

A) Tilted to the left

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22
Q

You are responding to a call for a 17-year-old pregnant patient at 36 weeks’ gestation. She complains of a headache and dizziness and states that her doctor is upset with her for gaining too much weight. Her hands are puffy and her rings are cutting into her flesh. Her vital signs are BP 174/104, P 84, R 20.

What is your differential diagnosis for this patient?

A) Essential hypertension
B) Gestational hypertension
C) Eclampsia
D) Preeclampsia

A

D) Preeclampsia

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23
Q

The classic presentations of preeclampsia are hypertension, cerebral disturbances, and which of the following?

A) Proteinuria
B) Seizures
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Increased intracranial pressure

A

A) Proteinuria

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24
Q

The patients most likely to experience preeclampsia are:

A) First-time mothers
B) Women with family histories of hypertension
C) Patients taking steroids
D) Women in their early 30’s

A

A) First-time mothers

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25
Q

If a preeclamptic patient developed seizures or coma, the condition would be called:

A) Essential hypertension
B) Gestational hypertension
C) Eclampsia
D) Preeclampsia

A

C) Eclampsia

26
Q

If an eclamptic patient begins to seize, medical direction may order administration of:

A) Magnesium sulfate
B) Calcium gluconate
C) Naloxone
D) Morphine

A

A) Magnesium sulfate

27
Q

Termination of a pregnancy by any cause prior to 20 weeks’ gestation is termed:

A) Abortion
B) Miscarriage
C) Preterm delivery
D) Incomplete gestation

A

A) Abortion

28
Q

What is the most common cause of vaginal bleeding during pregnancy?

A) Abortion
B) Placenta previa
C) Abruptio placentae
D) Uterine rupture

A

A) Abortion

29
Q

What is the term for the condition characterized as painless vaginal bleeding during pregnancy?

A) Abruptio placentae
B) Placenta previa
C) Uterine rupture
D) Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

A

B) Placenta previa

30
Q

Stage II labor ends when the:

A) Cervix is fully dilated
B) The baby enters the birth canal
C) Baby is delivered
D) Placenta is delivered

A

C) Baby is delivered

31
Q

When is an infant no longer a newborn?

A) 2 hours old
B) 28 days old
C) 3 weeks old
D) 2 months old

A

D) 2 months old

32
Q

Which of the following is an antepartum risk factor that may affect the need for neonatal resuscitation?

A) Premature labor
B) Mother younger than 16 or older than 35
C) Meconium staining
D) Prolapsed cord

A

B) Mother younger than 16 or older than 35

33
Q

When using a bulb syringe to suction an infant just delivered, which of the following should you suction first?

A) Trachea
B) Pharynx
C) Nose
D) Mouth

A

D) Mouth

34
Q

A fissure in the roof of the mouth that runs along its midline is:

A) Cleft lip
B) Cleft palate
C) Choanal atresia
D) Pierre Robin syndrome

A

B) Cleft palate

35
Q

Which type of seizure is not usually seen in the neonatal age group?

A) Subtle
B) Febrile
C) Tonic
D) Myoclonic

A

B) Febrile

36
Q

Hypothermia has the following effect on a newborn:

A) Alkalosis
B) Increased respirations
C) Bradycardia
D) Hyperglycemia

A

C) Bradycardia

37
Q

Correct positioning of a newborn includes:

A) Flexing the neck
B) Hyperextending the neck
C) Placing padding under the patient’s head
D) Placing the head in the neutral position

A

D) Placing the head in the neutral position

38
Q

Options for tactile stimulation of an infant include:

A) Slapping the buttocks
B) Administering a sternal rub
C) Pinching the tendon above the clavicle
D) Rubbing the back, trunk and extremities

A

D) Rubbing the back, trunk and extremities

39
Q

After assisting with delivery, you dry, suction, and stimulate the newborn. He is still not breathing. You should:

A) Administer epinephrine and atropine
B) Administer chest compressions
C) Begin positive-pressure ventilation
D) Give blow-by oxygen

A

C) Begin positive-pressure ventilation

40
Q

A neonate’s heart rate is 50 after 1 minute of positive-pressure ventilation and chest compressions. You should initiate:

A) An IV bolus of sodium bicarbonate
B) Glucagon
C) Epinephrine
D) Naloxone

A

C) Epinephrine

41
Q

The preferred technique for neonatal CPR is:

A) The use of two thumbs, with the hands encircling the chest
B) Two-finger chest compression
C) Alternate positive-negative pressure compression
D) Compression supplied by an automatic pumping device

A

A) The use of two thumbs, with the hands encircling the chest

42
Q

At the 1-minute evaluation, a neonate’s APGAR score is 5, indicating:

A) A normal finding at 1 minute
B) The infant requires no additional resuscitation
C) The administration of oxygen and stimulation are needed
D) Chest compressions and medication administration should be initiated

A

C) The administration of oxygen and stimulation are needed

43
Q

If BVM ventilations are ineffective in a newborn and tracheal intubation has failed, you should consider:

A) Surgical cricothyrotomy
B) Combitube insertion
C) LMA insertion
D) Digital intubation

A

C) LMA insertion

44
Q

Which of the following is the initial step in neonatal care?

A) Prevent heat loss
B) Position the infant
C) Provide tactile stimulation and initiate breathing if necessary
D) Suction the airway

A

A) Prevent heat loss

45
Q

The presence of meconium in amniotic fluid indicates:

A) Fetal distress
B) Full-term gestation
C) Neonatal death
D) Premature delivery

A

A) Fetal distress

46
Q

You assist in the delivery of a neonate who has meconium-stained amniotic fluid and inadequate breathing efforts. What should be your treatment priority?

A) Initiate positive-pressure ventilation
B) Suction with a bulb syringe
C) Intubate and suction the trachea
D) Begin chest compressions

A

A) Initiate positive-pressure ventilation

47
Q

You are treating an apneic neonate with a heart rate of 110. Her mother is an opium addict. If apnea persists, what would be the most appropriate medication to administer?

A) Epinephrine
B) Naloxone
C) D5 drip
D) Flumazenil

A

C) D5 drip

48
Q

The ventilation-to-compression ratio for a newborn is:

A) 1:1
B) 1:3
C) 1:5
D) 1:7

A

B) 1:3

49
Q

While suctioning a neonate, you should watch for:

A) Ventricular arrhythmias
B) Bradycardia
C) Hypothermia
D) Reflex tachycardia

A

B) Bradycardia

50
Q

Which of the following is considered normal after the delivery of a newborn?

A) Central cyanosis
B) Acrocyanosis
C) Methocyanosis
D) Periumbilical cyanosis

A

B) Acrocyanosis

51
Q

You have just delivered a newborn at 38 weeks of gestational age. As you assess this patient, you discover a scaphoid abdomen and unusual sounds in the left lower chest. The neonate is exhibiting mild respiratory distress.

Based on this presentation, you suspect:

A) Tension pneumothorax
B) Choanal atresia
C) Diaphragmatic hernia
D) Gastrothorax syndrome

A

C) Diaphragmatic hernia

52
Q

The initial intervention in a neonate with bradycardia is to:

A) Administer high-flow oxygen
B) Begin positive-pressure ventilation
C) Intubate
D) Position the head and neck

A

D) Position the head and neck

53
Q

The single most common cause of respiratory distress and cyanosis in a newborn is:

A) Hypothermia
B) Small size for gestational age
C) Narcotic depression
D) Prematurity

A

D) Prematurity

54
Q

The correct dose of fluids for treating hypovolemia in a neonate is:

A) 10 mL every 5 minutes
B) 10 mL/kg over 5 minutes, then reassess
C) Repeated boluses of 1 mL/kg until perfusion improves
D) 100 mL, then reassess

A

B) 10 mL/kg over 5 minutes, then reassess

55
Q

What is the most common cause of sepsis in newborns?

A) Diabetes
B) Birth trauma
C) Viral infections
D) Jaundice

A

C) Viral infections

56
Q

Fever of 101° F in a newborn:

A) Is likely due to rebound hyperthermia
B) Requires evaluation by a physician
C) Generally results from aspiration pneumonia
D) Is no cause for concern if resolved within 24 hours

A

B) Requires evaluation by a physician

57
Q

Status epilepticus in a newborn is generally treated with:

A) Benzodiazepines
B) Barbiturates
C) Neuroleptics
D) Paralytics

A

A) Benzodiazepines

58
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a contributing factor to Tetralogy of Fallot?

A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Alcohol use during pregnancy
C) Advanced maternal age
D) Preeclampsia

A

D) Preeclampsia

59
Q

A blood glucose level in an infant of 35 mg/dL indicates:

A) Normal blood glucose
B) Low blood glucose
C) Elevated blood glucose
D) Dangerously high blood glucose

A

B) Low blood glucose

60
Q

Symptoms that are associated with hypoglycemia in the newborn include:

A) Lethargy and hyperpnea
B) Eye-rolling and hyperactivity
C) Twitching and a high-pitched cry
D) Eye-rolling and Biot’s respirations

A

C) Twitching and a high-pitched cry

EMT 225 (3 decks)

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