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EMT 225 > JBL Quizzes > Flashcards

JBL Quizzes Flashcards

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1
Q

At birth, an average pulse rate of ____ beats/min and a respiratory rate of ____ breaths/min are considered normal.

A) 140; 40
B) 180; 65
C) 120; 25
D) 110; 20

A

A) 140; 40

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2
Q

At what age would you expect an infant to begin to respond to anger from his or her parent?

A) 24 months
B) 12 months
C) 9 months
D) 6 months

A

C) 9 months

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3
Q

By definition, infancy begins at:

A) 1 month of age.
B) 12 months of age.
C) birth.
D) 18 months of age.

A

A) 1 month of age.

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4
Q

During which stage of Kohlberg’s moral development will the child obey rules out of true self-interest?

A) Stage 4—Law and order mentality
B) Stage 1—Punishment and obedience
C) Stage 2—Naïve instrumental behaviorism
D) Stage 6—An informed conscience defines what is right

A

C) Stage 2—Naïve instrumental behaviorism

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5
Q

For the first year of life, an infant has naturally acquired passive immunities because:

A) vaccinations are given within the first year of life.
B) he or she maintains some of the mother’s immunities.
C) he or she is producing antibodies exponentially.
D) he or she receives antibodies through breastfeeding.

A

B) he or she maintains some of the mother’s immunities.

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6
Q

In contrast to infants, toddlers:

A) have a slower respiratory rate.
B) have a lower systolic blood pressure.
C) have a slightly higher pulse rate.
D) gain weight at a faster rate.

A

A) have a slower respiratory rate.

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7
Q

In conventional reasoning, school-age children:

A) seek approval from their peers and society.
B) make decisions guided by their consciences.
C) act out so that they can get what they want.
D) act almost purely to avoid punishment.

A

A) seek approval from their peers and society.

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8
Q

Patients between 41 and 60 years of age are least susceptible to:

A) acute immunosuppression.
B) various types of cancer.
C) vision and hearing loss.
D) cardiovascular disease.

A

A) acute immunosuppression.

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9
Q

Relative to younger adults, older adults generally have difficulty breathing because the:

A) rib cage becomes flexible due to hypocalcemia.
B) natural elasticity of the lungs decreases.
C) diaphragm ascends much higher into the thorax.
D) phrenic nerves send fewer signals to the diaphragm.

A

B) natural elasticity of the lungs decreases.

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10
Q

The decline in cardiac function associated with aging is largely related to:

A) bradycardia.
B) rheumatic heart disease.
C) hypotension.
D) decreased blood volume.

A

D) decreased blood volume.

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11
Q

Upper respiratory tract infections are more common in toddlers than in infants because:

A) of a loss of passive immunity.
B) they do not produce antibodies.
C) they are exposed to other children.
D) they put things in their mouths.

A

A) of a loss of passive immunity.

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12
Q

What causes the decrease in the weight of a newborn in the first few days of life?

A) Frequent urination
B) Excretion of extracellular fluid
C) Lack of fluid intake
D) Inactivity

A

B) Excretion of extracellular fluid

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13
Q

Where would you expect an examiner checking the Babinski reflexes to place his or her hands?

A) On the sole of the foot
B) In the palm
C) In the crease of the arm at the elbow
D) Behind the kneecap

A

A) On the sole of the foot

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14
Q

Which of the following are leading causes of death for individuals in the advanced old age group? Select all that apply.

a) Cancer
b) Suicide
c) Respiratory disease
d) COVID-19

A

Both A and C

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15
Q

Which of the following physical changes occurs in school-age children?

A) Their vital signs become the same as those of adults.
B) Their weight, on average, increases 11 pounds (5 kg) per year.
C) Their height, on average, increases 4 inches (10 cm) per year.
D) They develop permanent teeth.

A

D) They develop permanent teeth.

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16
Q

Which of the following statements regarding middle-aged adults is correct?

A) Middle-aged adults view crisis as a challenge to be overcome rather than a threat to be avoided.
B) Menopause in middle-aged women causes an overall increase in bone density.
C) Middle-aged men are at greater risk for cardiovascular disease than are middle-aged women.
D) Middle-aged adults focus less on achieving their life goals because of “empty nest” syndrome.

A

A) Middle-aged adults view crisis as a challenge to be overcome rather than a threat to be avoided.

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17
Q

Which of the following statements regarding renal function in older adults is correct?

A) A 20-year-old patient has already experienced a 10% loss of nephrons.
B) In older adults, renal changes are more structural than functional.
C) About 50% of the nephrons are lost.
D) Renal filtration begins to deteriorate at the age of 70 years.

A

C) About 50% of the nephrons are lost.

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18
Q

Which of the following systems would be vital in fighting infection in the school-age group?

A) Respiratory
B) Lymphatic
C) Nervous
D) Endocrine

A

B) Lymphatic

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19
Q

Which of the following would be considered the cause of trust versus mistrust issues according to Erikson?

A) Adaptation
B) Love
C) Consistency
D) Caring

A

C) Consistency

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20
Q

Which reflex happens when an infant is startled and opens his or her arms wide?

A) Rooting
B) Palmar
C) Moro
D) Vagal

A

C) Moro

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21
Q

A jaundiced newborn with an enlarged liver should be suspected of having:

A) hepatitis.
B) hypotension.
C) Rh disease.
D) HIV.

A

C) Rh disease.

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22
Q

A newborn will experience distress if its initial breaths:

A) are too rapid.
B) occur before crowning.
C) are shallow.
D) are too weak to open alveoli.

A

D) are too weak to open alveoli.

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23
Q

A patient who is 8 weeks pregnant is experiencing morning sickness. Her symptoms will most likely improve after approximately how many weeks?

A) 6
B) 4
C) 2
D) 8

A

A) 6

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24
Q

A woman is experiencing postpartum bleeding, despite the fact that her newborn is suckling. You should:

A) administer 20 mL/kg fluid intravenously.
B) begin an oxytocin infusion.
C) elevate the mother’s legs 12 inches (30 cm).
D) position the mother on her left side.

A

B) begin an oxytocin infusion.

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25
Q

Cervical dilation of how many centimeters or less indicates early labor?

A) 9
B) 3
C) 6
D) 4

A

B) 3

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26
Q

Delivery is considered to be imminent if the mother experiences:

A) severe itching of the lower abdomen.
B) the urge to have a bowel movement.
C) vomiting that persists for 30 minutes.
D) contractions that are 5 minutes apart.

A

B) the urge to have a bowel movement.

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27
Q

During which lunar month is placental development complete?

A) Fifth
B) First
C) Second
D) Third

A

D) Third

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28
Q

If a mother has a blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL, her baby’s blood glucose will be around:

A) 75 mg/dL.
B) 125 mg/dL.
C) 100 mg/dL.
D) 50 mg/dL.

A

A) 75 mg/dL.

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29
Q

Postpartum depression typically lasts for at least how many weeks?

A) 2
B) 4
C) 5
D) 3

A

A) 2

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30
Q

Preterm premature rupture of membranes could occur at how many weeks gestation?

A) 38
B) 39
C) 36
D) 40

A

C) 36

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31
Q

The most exterior part of the female genitalia is the:

A) labia majora.
B) vagina.
C) labia minora.
D) clitoris.

A

A) labia majora.

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32
Q

The normal menstrual cycle lasts approximately one:

A) day.
B) month.
C) year.
D) week.

A

B) month.

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33
Q

Upon determining that a breech presentation exists, you should:

A) position the mother prone.
B) lift the woman’s legs.
C) transport without delay.
D) establish intravenous access.

A

C) transport without delay.

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34
Q

What kind of selectivity does the placenta provide?

A) Complete
B) Almost complete
C) Partial
D) None

A

C) Partial

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35
Q

Which Apgar score indicates a severely depressed infant?

A) 6
B) 2
C) 8
D) 4

A

B) 2

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36
Q

Which of the following blood pressures would indicate gestational hypertension?

A) 120/80 mm Hg
B) 135/89 mm Hg
C) 110/75 mm Hg
D) 145/93 mm Hg

A

D) 145/93 mm Hg

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37
Q

Which of the following is a TORCH infection?

A) Influenza
B) Rhinovirus
C) Chickenpox
D) Pollen allergy

A

C) Chickenpox

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38
Q

Which of the following is an antepartum disorder?

A) Gestational diabetes
B) Delivery complications
C) Amniotic fluid embolism
D) Labor complications

A

A) Gestational diabetes

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39
Q

Which of the following would be an unusual length of time for active labor?

A) 90 minutes
B) 60 minutes
C) 120 minutes
D) 180 minutes

A

D) 180 minutes

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40
Q

Which presentation is normal during delivery?

A) Vertex
B) Shoulder
C) Cord
D) Breech

A

A) Vertex

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41
Q

A healthy newborn might have an oxyhemoglobin saturation of which value immediately following birth?

A) 53%
B) 74%
C) 96%
D) 68%

A

B) 74%

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42
Q

A laryngeal mask airway can be used for newborns who are:

A) 25 to 30 weeks’ gestation.
B) <32 weeks’ gestation.
C) <28 weeks’ gestation.
D) >34 weeks’ gestation.

A

D) >34 weeks’ gestation.

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43
Q

A newborn appears irritable, and its eyes are rolling. You should suspect:

A) hypothermia.
B) hypoglycemia.
C) primary apnea.
D) secondary apnea.

A

B) hypoglycemia.

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44
Q

A newborn with a rectal temperature of which value or higher has a fever?

A) 99.2°F (37.3°C)
B) 100.4°F (38°C)
C) 99.6°F (37.6°C)
D) 98.6°F (37°C)

A

B) 100.4°F (38°C)

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45
Q

A newborn with bilateral choanal atresia will have serious problems with:

A) circulation.
B) immunity.
C) vision.
D) breathing.

A

D) breathing.

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46
Q

By covering the head of a newborn, you cover approximately what percentage of the baby’s body?

A) 15%
B) 20%
C) 5%
D) 10%

A

B) 20%

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47
Q

How much of a volume expander should be given at a time to an 8.8-pound (4-kg) newborn?

A) 40 mL
B) 80 mL
C) 120 mL
D) 160 mL

A

A) 40 mL

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48
Q

If a newborn’s 8-year-old sister asks if her brother will live, you should:

A) say that the child’s father will know.
B) tell the child that you are doing your best.
C) always say “yes,” even if you are unsure.
D) give a detailed estimate of the probability.

A

B) tell the child that you are doing your best.

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49
Q

If you suspect that a newborn patient has a mitral valve defect, you should:

A) administer epinephrine.
B) ventilate with a bag-mask device.
C) transport without delay.
D) administer 10 mL/kg of intravenous fluid.

A

C) transport without delay.

50
Q

It is unusual for a newborn to require:

A) pharyngeal suctioning.
B) tactile stimulation.
C) tracheal intubation.
D) supplemental oxygen.

A

C) tracheal intubation.

51
Q

Jaundice that persists beyond how many weeks should raise suspicion of biliary obstruction or liver disease in a newborn?

A) 2 to 3 weeks
B) 3 to 4 weeks
C) 4 to 5 weeks
D) 1 to 2 weeks

A

A) 2 to 3 weeks

52
Q

Upon noting that a newborn is apneic, the paramedic should:

A) ventilate with a bag-mask device.
B) intubate the newborn’s trachea.
C) begin treatment with CPAP.
D) administer epinephrine.

A

A) ventilate with a bag-mask device.

53
Q

What percentage of newborns require positive-pressure ventilation at birth?

A) 20%
B) 5%
C) 10%
D) 15%

A

B) 5%

54
Q

When a newborn is diagnosed with a congenital heart defect, you should inquire about:

A) maternal use of opioids.
B) domestic abuse.
C) use of antibiotics during pregnancy.
D) family history of heart defects.

A

D) family history of heart defects.

55
Q

When palpating a newborn’s thoracic cavity, you feel what appear to be loops of intestine. You should suspect:

A) coarctation of the aorta.
B) malformation of the lungs.
C) congenital diaphragmatic hernia.
D) an atrial septal defect.

A

C) congenital diaphragmatic hernia.

56
Q

Which of the following is an acceptable body temperature for a newborn?

A) 100.2°F (37.9°C)
B) 96.2°F (35.7°C)
C) 97.9°F (36.6°C)
D) 95.8°F (35.4°C)

A

C) 97.9°F (36.6°C)

57
Q

Which of the following items would be the most important to have immediately available at the time of birth?

A) Prefilled epinephrine
B) Timer device
C) Bag-mask device
D) Intravenous or intraosseous catheter

A

C) Bag-mask device

58
Q

Which of the following maternal factors increases the risk of preterm birth?

A) Use of prenatal vitamins
B) Exercise during pregnancy
C) Low socioeconomic status
D) Long menstrual periods

A

C) Low socioeconomic status

59
Q

Which of the following would be the least common postresuscitation complication in a newborn?

A) Pneumothorax
B) Endotracheal tube migration
C) Tube blockage by mucus
D) Anaphylaxis

A

D) Anaphylaxis

60
Q

Which of the following would be the most likely cause of Tetralogy of Fallot?

A) Mother had German measles during pregnancy
B) Use of sedative drugs early in pregnancy
C) A hypoxic event during early labor
D) Maternal weight greater than 200 pounds (91 kg)

A

A) Mother had German measles during pregnancy

61
Q

A 2-week-old patient has a fever and has experienced weight loss. Which of the following would you most likely encounter?

A) Hypertension
B) Vomiting
C) Bradycardia
D) Grunting

A

B) Vomiting

62
Q

A baby who coos and smiles would get which verbal score on the Pediatric Glasgow Coma Scale?

A) 5
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

A

A) 5

63
Q

Approximately what percentage of US children have asthma?

A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 20%
D) 15%

A

A) 5%

64
Q

At 2 weeks of age, a child’s head will account for what proportion of its body weight?

A) One-fifth
B) One-third
C) One-half
D) One-quarter

A

D) One-quarter

65
Q

Compared to an adult patient, how long will a child with hypovolemic shock maintain their blood pressure?

A) A shorter time
B) A longer time
C) A much shorter time
D) About the same amount of time

A

B) A longer time

66
Q

If a 66-pound (30-kg) child has a history of vomiting, what amount of weight loss would indicate moderate dehydration?

A) 6.6 pounds (3 kg)
B) 1.4 pounds (0.6 kg)
C) 9.9 pounds (4.5 kg)
D) 3.3 pounds (1.5 kg)

A

A) 6.6 pounds (3 kg)

67
Q

In contrast to adults, children:

A) lose most body heat through the chest.
B) have proportionately larger heads.
C) land on their feet when they fall.
D) experience head injury less frequently.

A

B) have proportionately larger heads.

68
Q

In which of the following activities can paramedics most play a key role in health care and injury prevention in children?

A) Participating in parent education
B) Spending time watching playgrounds
C) Obtaining extra training in pediatric EMS work
D) Working for a pediatric transport company

A

A) Participating in parent education

69
Q

Over the span of a decade, if you care for 100 patients younger than 8 years who have blunt force trauma, approximately how many will have a spinal cord injury?

A) 15 to 20
B) 40 to 50
C) 5 to 10
D) 1 to 2

A

D) 1 to 2

70
Q

Poisoning is most common in which age group?

A) 12 to 14 years
B) 4 to 5 years
C) 1 to 2 years
D) 6 to 8 years

A

C) 1 to 2 years

71
Q

The width of a blood pressure cuff bladder should be what percentage of the arm circumference midway between acromion and olecranon?

A) 60%
B) 50%
C) 25%
D) 40%

A

D) 40%

72
Q

What is the maximum initial dose of adenosine for a 7-year-old child?

A) 6 mg
B) 1 mg
C) 3 mg
D) 9 mg

A

A) 6 mg

73
Q

What percentage of airway obstruction emergencies in pediatric patients involve those younger than 3 years of age?

A) 70%
B) 60%
C) 80%
D) 50%

A

C) 80%

74
Q

When assessing a 7-year-old patient, you should be alert for impending respiratory failure if respirations are fewer than how many breaths per minute?

A) 20
B) 12
C) 32
D) 24

A

B) 12

75
Q

When caring for a child with cancer who is being treated with chemotherapy, you would most likely encounter a(n):

A) central line.
B) gastrostomy tube.
C) arteriovenous shunt.
D) ventilator.

A

A) central line.

76
Q

Which of the following factors would present the greatest challenge to the paramedic when attempting to assess an infant?

A) Dehydration
B) Crying
C) Tachycardia
D) Vomiting

A

B) Crying

77
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in infants and small children?

A) Severe dehydration
B) Respiratory failure
C) Congenital heart defect
D) Massive infection

A

B) Respiratory failure

78
Q

Which of the following presentations of meningitis involves the knees and neck?

A) Grey-Turner sign
B) Cullen sign
C) Kernig sign
D) Brudzinski sign

A

D) Brudzinski sign

79
Q

Which of the following would be the most likely cause of gastrointestinal bleeding in a newborn?

A) Polyps
B) Colitis
C) Enteritis
D) Anal fissure

A

D) Anal fissure

80
Q

You arrive on scene and find a 3-year-old child who is cyanotic. The parent tells you that the child has had trouble breathing. Upon assessment, you suspect croup and note stridor at rest. Based on this finding, how would you classify the croup?

A) Moderate
B) Severe
C) Mild
D) Nonexistent

A

B) Severe

81
Q

A pressure ulcer can develop in as little as ________ after the original injury.

A) 12 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 6 hours
D) 1 hour

A

D) 1 hour

82
Q

Approximately how many older adults are affected by elder abuse each year?

A) 500,000
B) 50,000
C) 55,000,000
D) 5,000,000

A

D) 5,000,000

83
Q

By 2050, it is estimated that how many Americans will be enrolled in Medicare?

A) 98 million
B) 43.5 million
C) 77 million
D) 92.8 million

A

D) 92.8 million

84
Q

For some aspects of health, predictable functional changes begin after age:

A) 25 years.
B) 30 years.
C) 40 years.
D) 35 years.

A

B) 30 years.

85
Q

If an older patient is taking a beta blocker or calcium channel blocker, which of the following clinical signs could be masked if the patient is experiencing shock?

A) Tachycardia
B) Hypertension
C) Fluid loss
D) Pallor

A

A) Tachycardia

86
Q

Renal blood flow decreases an average of what percentage per decade beginning at age 20 years?

A) 20%
B) 5%
C) 10%
D) 15%

A

C) 10%

87
Q

The condition in which nerve cells in the cerebral cortex die and the brain substance shrinks is called:

A) delirium.
B) multiple sclerosis.
C) Parkinson disease.
D) Alzheimer disease.

A

D) Alzheimer disease.

88
Q

The risk of heart failure doubles in older adults whose blood pressure is what value or greater?

A) 160/90 mm Hg
B) 170/90 mm Hg
C) 160/100 mm Hg
D) 170/85 mm Hg

A

A) 160/90 mm Hg

89
Q

The state of heightened vulnerability to functional dependence or death in response to a stressor is known as:

A) anxiety disorder.
B) frailty.
C) adrenal insufficiency.
D) autoimmune disease.

A

B) frailty.

90
Q

The type of dementia that involves abnormal deposits in the brain of a protein called alpha-synuclein is called:

A) Parkinson disease dementia.
B) Lewy body disease.
C) frontotemporal lobe dementia.
D) vascular dementia.

A

B) Lewy body disease.

91
Q

What percentage of people older than 60 years is estimated to have a mental health concern?

A) 20%
B) 10%
C) 5%
D) 15%

A

D) 15%

92
Q

What percentage of the US population was 65 years of age or older in 2022?

A) 33.5%
B) 8.5%
C) 24.5%
D) 16.8%

A

D) 16.8%

93
Q

When communicating with a geriatric patient, the paramedic should:

A) act quickly.
B) turn on lights.
C) speak loudly.
D) maintain distance.

A

B) turn on lights.

94
Q

Which of the following factors can affect drug distribution in the older adult?

A) Cognitive impairment
B) An irregular heartbeat
C) Decreased cardiac output
D) Visual impairment

A

C) Decreased cardiac output

95
Q

Which of the following groups has the highest incidence of high blood pressure?

A) Women age 65 to 74 years
B) Men age 75 years and older
C) Men age 55 to 64 years
D) Women age 75 years and older

A

D) Women age 75 years and older

96
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of age-related decline in respiratory function?

A) Chest wall becomes stiffer.
B) Alveolar hyper-expansion
C) Total lung capacity declines.
D) Proximal airways collapse on expiration.

A

C) Total lung capacity declines.

97
Q

Which of the following statements regarding bacterial pneumonia in older adults is correct?

A) Signs and symptoms of pneumonia are often more obvious than they are in younger adults.
B) The risk of death from pneumonia is 10 to 15 times greater than in younger adults.
C) The presence of chronic disease increases risk by impairing respiratory tract clearance.
D) About 75% of all pneumonia and influenza deaths occur in patients aged 65 years and older.

A

C) The presence of chronic disease increases risk by impairing respiratory tract clearance.

98
Q

Which of the following statements regarding hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is correct?

A) When HHNS is suspected, the paramedic should give intravenous fluids.
B) Most cases of HHNS are the result of inadvertent insulin overdose.
C) The patient with HHNS typically has acetone odor on the breath.
D) HHNS primarily occurs in older adults with type 1 diabetes.

A

A) When HHNS is suspected, the paramedic should give intravenous fluids.

99
Q

Which of the following statements regarding suicide among older adults is correct?

A) Most suicide victims were suffering from moderate chronic depression for at least 2 weeks.
B) The rate of successful suicides for geriatric patients is higher than that of the general population.
C) Most suicide victims did not receive medical care in the 12 months preceding their suicide.
D) Asking an older adult questions about suicidal thoughts and feelings increases the risk of suicide.

A

B) The rate of successful suicides for geriatric patients is higher than that of the general population.

100
Q

Which type of fracture is highly lethal among the older adult population?

A) Clavicle
B) Rib
C) Femur
D) Pelvis

A

D) Pelvis

101
Q

Approximately what percentage of adults aged 60 years and older is estimated to have experienced some type of elder abuse?

A) 15%
B) 40%
C) 25%
D) 10%

A

D) 10%

102
Q

Approximately what percentage of homicides is committed by an intimate partner?

A) 10%
B) 35%
C) 20%
D) 25%

A

C) 20%

103
Q

Denying a partner medical care constitutes which type of abuse?

A) Emotional
B) Economic
C) Verbal
D) Physical

A

D) Physical

104
Q

Domestic violence accounts for up to which percentage of emergency department visits by women?

A) 4%
B) 15%
C) 35%
D) 25%

A

B) 15%

105
Q

During the patient interview, you ask the patient if someone caused their injury. When the patient answers “yes,” which of the following would be an appropriate response?

A) “I’m going to call the police right away.”
B) “Are you safe now?”
C) “That’s terrible.”
D) “Why haven’t you left them yet?”

A

B) “Are you safe now?”

106
Q

How can the paramedic differentiate between accidental and intentional bruising in an older adult?

A) About 90% of accidental bruises are on the extremities.
B) Bruises related to physical abuse in older adults are generally 4 inches (10 cm) in diameter or larger.
C) Color is indicative of the age of an intentional bruise only.
D) Most older adults can recall how they sustained an accidental bruise.

A

A) About 90% of accidental bruises are on the extremities.

107
Q

If a person reports a sexual assault, how should the paramedic respond?

A) Transport the patient to the nearest support advocacy facility.
B) Obtain the patient’s sexual history.
C) Accept the person’s story as accurate.
D) Transport the patient to the nearest police precinct.

A

C) Accept the person’s story as accurate.

108
Q

In the United States, how many men have experienced severe physical violence by an intimate partner?

A) 1 in 49
B) 1 in 71
C) 1 in 9
D) 1 in 115

A

C) 1 in 9

109
Q

Medical orders not being followed is characteristic of which category of abuse and neglect in long-term care facilities?

A) Inconsistencies
B) Staff behaviors
C) Physical condition and quality of care
D) Facility characteristics

A

C) Physical condition and quality of care

110
Q

Name-calling constitutes which type of abuse?

A) Sexual
B) Physical
C) Neglect
D) Psychological

A

D) Psychological

111
Q

Of the substantiated reports of child abuse or neglect in the United States in 2020, approximately what percentage was the result of physical abuse?

A) 56%
B) 75%
C) 16.5%
D) 8.5%

A

C) 16.5%

112
Q

The most common cause of death in cases of child abuse is:

A) head injury.
B) intra-abdominal bleeding.
C) drowning.
D) starvation.

A

A) head injury.

113
Q

The most common types of injuries seen in child abuse cases are:

A) concussions.
B) poisoning.
C) soft-tissue injuries.
D) fractures.

A

C) soft-tissue injuries.

114
Q

Unusual weight loss is a sign of what type of elder abuse?

A) Sexual
B) Emotional
C) Neglect
D) Physical

A

C) Neglect

115
Q

When responding to a call, which of the following would alert you that intimate partner violence may be occurring?

A) The patient has a broken ankle.
B) The patient is abusing alcohol.
C) The patient is shy and reserved.
D) The patient refuses to go to the hospital.

A

B) The patient is abusing alcohol.

116
Q

When using the four-step process to care for a patient who has experienced intimate partner violence, what would you do during the respond stage?

A) Assure the patient of confidentiality.
B) Document any referral provided to the patient.
C) Identify local or national referral sources.
D) Note the presence of any children or other witnesses.

A

A) Assure the patient of confidentiality.

117
Q

Which of the following populations experiences the highest rates of child abuse?

A) Hispanic children
B) Children between 4 and 6 years of age
C) Children with disabilities
D) Children of immigrants

A

C) Children with disabilities

118
Q

Which of the following statements regarding abuse and maltreatment is correct?

A) By definition, a single act does not qualify as abuse or maltreatment.
B) It excludes threats of harm.
C) By definition, it is committed by a person who is in a position of power over the patient.
D) It refers to physical harm, exclusively.

A

C) By definition, it is committed by a person who is in a position of power over the patient.

119
Q

Which of the following statements regarding intimate partner violence (IPV) is correct?

A) Men and women are equally likely to perpetrate IPV.
B) Minorities commit IPV at lower rates.
C) Middle-income people are more likely to commit IPV.
D) Early aggression is not a predictor for IPV.

A

A) Men and women are equally likely to perpetrate IPV.

120
Q

Which of the following would be categorized as a societal abuse risk factor?

A) Young age
B) Income inequality
C) Antisocial or aggressive personality
D) High rates of poverty

A

B) Income inequality

EMT 225 (3 decks)

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