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EMT 244 > Quiz Packet > Flashcards

Quiz Packet Flashcards

1
Q

The most common cardiovascular complications of poisoning by ingestion is:

A) Hypertension
B) Rhythm disturbances
C) Ventricular rupture
D) Increased contractility

A

B) Rhythm disturbances

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1
Q

Most accidental poisonings in children from 1 to 3 years of age occur through:

A) Injection
B) Inhalation
C) Ingestion
D) Absorption

A

C) Ingestion

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2
Q

Activated charcoal is most effective when the:

A) Poison is a strong acid
B) Poison was ingested less than an hour before the administration of charcoal
C) The patient is a child
D) Ingested poison was in liquid form

A

B) Poison was ingested less than an hour before the administration of charcoal

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3
Q

Fomepizole is an antidote for:

A) Acetaminophen
B) Methanol
C) Cyanide
D) Acetaldehyde

A

B) Methanol

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4
Q

You are called to treat a 2-year-old child who has just ingested lye. The child is conscious and cooperative. The poison control center may advise you to administer what oral solution?

A) Fruit juice
B) Vinegar
C) Milk
D) A weak solution of sulfuric acid

A

C) Milk

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5
Q

Most pediatric lead poisonings occur as a result of:

A) Contaminated soil
B) Inhaling fumes from industries
C) Ingestion of small batteries
D) Ingestion of paint chips

A

D) Ingestion of paint chips

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6
Q

The most common route of mercury poisoning is:

A) Injection
B) Absorption
C) Ingestion
D) Inhalation

A

D) Inhalation

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7
Q

You are called to a local park where several people attending a family reunion report stomach pain, nausea, and vomiting. Patients report that lunch was served 2 hours ago. This time frame would lead you to suspect that the cause of the food poisoning was:

A) Chemical
B) Bacterial toxin
C) Viral infection
D) Bacterial infection

A

B) Bacterial toxin

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8
Q

If the stinger is left in the wound after a sting by a honey bee, you should:

A) Use forceps to remove the stinger
B) Scrape the stinger from the wound
C) Pull the wound out with fingers only
D) Leave the stinger in place

A

B) Scrape the stinger from the wound

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9
Q

A behavioral emergency is best defined as a:

A) Hormonal imbalance leading to disturbed thinking patterns
B) A metabolic emergency that jeopardizes the patient’s health and welfare
C) A chemical imbalance in the brain that affects a person’s medical well-being
D) Change in mood or behavior that cannot be tolerated by the involved person or others

A

D) Change in mood or behavior that cannot be tolerated by the involved person or others

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10
Q

What specific skills are typically required to prevent the escalation of a behavioral or psychiatric emergency?

A) Sedation and physical restraint
B) Communication and support
C) Physical assessment and critical thinking
D) Pharmacological intervention and rapid patient packaging

A

B) Communication and support

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11
Q

In the United States, mental health problems:

A) Are fairly rare, generally affecting the population of people addicted to alcohol or drugs
B) Affect around 20% of the population
C) Incapacitate fewer people than traditional illnesses, such as pneumonia or CHF
D) Cause one of every thousand people to require treatment

A

B) Affect around 20% of the population

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12
Q

Typical causes of behavioral emergencies include:

A) Genetic abnormalities and inherited traits
B) Biological, psychosocial, and sociocultural behaviors
C) Metabolic diseases, hormonal changes, and brain-stem trauma
D) Fetal hypoxia, cerebral damage (traumatic or metabolic), and substance abuse

A

B) Biological, psychosocial, and sociocultural behaviors

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13
Q

You are called to assess a 15-year-old male who has been described as exhibiting bizarre behavior lately. The patient tells you that he “hears voices.” He is exhibiting delusional thinking and is extremely paranoid. You suspect this patient is suffering from:

A) Dementia
B) Schizophrenia
C) Neurosis
D) Depression

A

B) Schizophrenia

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14
Q

Which of the following is true regarding schizophrenic patients’ ability to function in society?

A) They typically require institutionalization
B) If they are compliant with their medications, schizophrenics may function quite well
C) Currently, there are no medications that allow these patients to function in the real world
D) Many schizophrenics require electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) to ensure that they are not a danger to society

A

B) If they are compliant with their medications, schizophrenics may function quite well

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15
Q

You are called to the home of a 23-year-old male who called 911 complaining of “a severe panic attack.” When you arrive, he informs you that he has a history of panic attacks, and he is currently experiencing chest pain and a feeling of doom. The most appropriate action is to:

A) Have him breathe into a paper bag or a nonrebreather mask without oxygen flowing
B) Try to find a family member or friend to stay with the patient in his home until the attack subsides
C) Assess the patient for signs of myocardial infarction and transport him to an emergency department
D) Inform the patient that he is too young to have a heart attack and that he should calm down

A

C) Assess the patient for signs of myocardial infarction and transport him to an emergency department

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16
Q

Your crew is called to the home of a 28-year-old male to check on his welfare after his neighbors called 911. They have not seen the patient for several days even though his car is in the driveway. When you arrive, a neighbor informs you that the patient has been very depressed since the loss of his fiancée in an automobile crash that occurred while the patient was driving. You find the patient sitting in a chair in his bedroom. He informs you that he hasn’t slept well in weeks because of nightmares. He expresses remorse and responsibility for the loss of his fiancée, saying that it should have been he who died. He is most likely suffering from:

A) Delirium
B) Guilty disassociation
C) Posttraumatic syndrome
D) Survivor syndrome

A

C) Posttraumatic syndrome

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17
Q

Depression is characterized by an impairment of normal function and:

A) Presents during the teen years
B) Lasts for years without remission
C) Typically lasts no longer than several hours at a time
D) Is episodic, usually lasting longer than 1 month, with periods of remission

A

D) Is episodic, usually lasting longer than 1 month, with periods of remission

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18
Q

Your crew is called to the home of a 44-year-old male who is threatening suicide. Local law enforcement personnel are already on scene when you arrive, and you find the patient sitting on the hood of his car in the garage. During your interview with this patient, you should:

A) Provide a list of reasons why the patient should not commit suicide
B) Avoid questions about the details of his plan to commit suicide
C) Request that law enforcement physically restrain the patient before any questioning
D) Try to ascertain whether the patient has a specific plan for the way he intends to commit suicide

A

D) Try to ascertain whether the patient has a specific plan for the way he intends to commit suicide

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19
Q

Your crew is called to the workplace of a 43-year-old female who is despondent. Her coworkers inform you that she is normally a very “bizarre” person and has acted out inappropriately in the past. They further inform you that the patient has been muttering to herself all morning and shouting at inanimate objects (walls, coffee maker, toilets, etc.). After introducing yourself and informing the patient of your intent to help, you ask her what seems to be distressing her. She does not respond to you. An appropriate response to the patient’s presentation is:

A) Repeat the question more loudly
B) Begin a physical assessment of the patient
C) Speak in a calm voice and allow her extra time to answer your questions
D) Assume that the patient cannot hear you and write your questions on a piece of paper for her to read

A

C) Speak in a calm voice and allow her extra time to answer your questions

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20
Q

Any substance that produces harmful physiological or psychological effects is:

A) Poison
B) Toxin
C) Allergen
D) Chemical

A

A) Poison

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21
Q

The absorption of toxins takes place primarily in the:

A) Stomach
B) Small intestine
C) Mouth
D) Large intestine

A

B) Small intestine

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22
Q

The preferred method of keeping a poison from entering the small intestine is:

A) Use of activated charcoal
B) Gastric lavage
C) Administration of ipecac
D) Use of medications to induce diarrhea

A

A) Use of activated charcoal

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23
Q

The dosage of activated charcoal in a child is:

A) 0.1 g/kg
B) 100 g
C) 15 to 30 g
D) 10 mg/kg

A

C) 15 to 30 g

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24
Q

The antidote for benzodiazepine overdose is:

A) Calcium
B) Naloxone
C) Pralidoxime
D) Flumazenil

A

D) Flumazenil

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25
Q

The mnemonic device SLUDGE helps you to remember the:

A) Signs of organophosphate poisoning
B) Treatment steps for absorbed toxins
C) Classifications of antidotes for inhaled toxins
D) Causes of death after poisoning

A

A) Signs of organophosphate poisoning

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26
Q

Drug therapy for patients with organophosphate poisoning:

A) Rarely relieves the most serious complications
B) Should be administered if the patient has two or more symptoms of respiratory distress
C) Includes naloxone and atropine
D) Should occur as soon as the type of poisoning is identified

A

B) Should be administered if the patient has two or more symptoms of respiratory distress

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27
Q

The drug of choice for carbamate poisonings is:

A) Atropine
B) Diazepam
C) Lorazepam
D) Pralidoxime chloride

A

A) Atropine

28
Q

An employee in a pest-control business is found unconscious on a garage floor. You find him drooling and diaphoretic. The most appropriate medication for this patient is:

A) Diphenhydramine
B) Methylprednisolone
C) Naloxone
D) Atropine

A

D) Atropine

29
Q

The drug of choice to treat an overdose of opiates is:

A) Diazepam
B) Diphenhydramine
C) Naloxone
D) Methylprednisolone

A

C) Naloxone

30
Q

Sedative-hypnotic drugs include:

A) Benzodiazepines and barbiturates
B) Hallucinogens and MAO inhibitors
C) Opioids and methamphetamines
D) PCP and ketamine

A

A) Benzodiazepines and barbiturates

31
Q

Cocaine is a(n):

A) Benzodiazepine
B) Opiate
C) CNS stimulant
D) Phencyclidine

A

C) CNS stimulant

32
Q

Which of the following is an early sign of toxicity in reaction to a tricyclic antidepressant?

A) Bradypnea
B) Hyperthermia
C) Blurred vision
D) Hypertension

A

C) Blurred vision

33
Q

The pharmacological management of choice for an overdose of a tricyclic antidepressant is:

A) Naloxone
B) Atropine sulfate
C) Epinephrine
D) Sodium bicarbonate

A

D) Sodium bicarbonate

34
Q

Among a patient’s prescription medications, you find a bottle of lithium, leading you to suspect that the patient has:

A) Depression
B) Anxiety attacks
C) Bipolar disorder
D) Schizophrenia

A

C) Bipolar disorder

35
Q

The most commonly ingested NSAID in overdose is:

A) Aspirin
B) VIOXX
C) Tylenol
D) Ibuprofen

A

D) Ibuprofen

36
Q

Acetaminophen overdose leads to the toxicity of the:

A) Brain
B) Liver
C) Kidneys
D) Intestines

A

B) Liver

37
Q

What medication can you use to prevent exacerbation of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?

A) Dextrose 50%
B) Naloxone
C) Glucagon
D) Thiamine

A

D) Thiamine

38
Q

Disulfiram is a medication taken by alcoholics to prevent:

A) Nutritional deficiencies
B) Alcoholic intake
C) Delirium tremens
D) Seizures

A

B) Alcoholic intake

39
Q

A “wet” patient presentation that includes tearing, emesis, and salivation would lead you to suspect what kind of toxicological syndrome?

A) Cholinergic
B) Anticholinergic
C) Hallucinogenic
D) Opiate

A

A) Cholinergic

40
Q

Which type of arthritis can, in severe cases, cause the vertebra to fuse together leaving the afflicted with a fused, immobile spine?

A) Rheumatoid
B) Ankylosing spondylitis
C) Septic
D) Gout

A

B) Ankylosing spondylitis

41
Q

A dual diagnosis means a patient has a mental illness and which other condition?

A) Cardiovascular disease
B) Genetic predisposition to mental illness
C) Substance-related disorder
D) Risk for suicide

A

C) Substance-related disorder

42
Q

What is the definition of maladaptive behavior?

A) Generally accepted national standards
B) Actions that interfere with well-being and ability to function
C) Local and state law
D) The patient’s norms and expectations

A

B) Actions that interfere with well-being and ability to function

43
Q

Which of these disorders lead to serious dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and malnutrition?

A) Bulimia Nervosa
B) Anorexia Nervosa
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above

A

C) Both A and B

44
Q

Which of the following is not a form of autism?

A) Autistic disorder
B) Social communication disorder
C) Asperger syndrome
D) Pervasive development disorder

A

B) Social communication disorder

45
Q

What is the DSM-5?

A) The classification system for psychiatric disorders
B) Interviewing technique for patients with suspected mental illness
C) A treatment system that provides for progressively invasive care
D) Set of normal and abnormal behaviors to help identify mental illness

A

A) The classification system for psychiatric disorders

46
Q

Delirium and dementia are classified as which type of disorder?

A) Adjustment
B) Mood
C) Psychotic
D) Neurocognitive

A

D) Neurocognitive

47
Q

Unlike dementia, delirium possesses which characteristic?

A) Has a slow onset
B) Is usually caused by a cerebrovascular disease
C) May cause a patient to revert to a “second childhood”
D) Is often associated with delusions and hallucinations

A

D) Is often associated with delusions and hallucinations

48
Q

While EMS is gathering a medical history, the patient reports that she takes Zoloft, leading the paramedic to consider which condition?

A) Schizophrenia
B) Psychosis
C) Mania
D) Depression

A

D) Depression

49
Q

Paramedics are called to the home of a 67-year-old male. The patient’s wife tells EMS that her husband has progressively lost awareness of his surroundings and cannot recall recent events such as breakfast. These findings are indicative that this patient may be suffering from which condition?

A) Delirium
B) Dementia
C) Depression
D) Bipolar disorder

A

B) Dementia

50
Q

You are assessing a 38 year old male complaining of general malaise and back pain. During assessment the patient states that he recently underwent surgery on his R knee. Upon examination of the R knee you note significant swelling with slight pus exuding from the incisions. Patient is drenched in sweat and has a fever. What is your differential diagnosis?

A) Osteomyelitis
B) Cellulitis
C) Myeloma
D) Osteoarthritis

A

A) Osteomyelitis

51
Q

Medication designed to treat schizophrenia includes antipsychotic drugs and agents that block the action of which brain chemical?

A) Serotonin
B) Dopamine
C) Acetylcholine
D) Norepinephrine

A

B) Dopamine

52
Q

A patient with a vitamin B12 deficiency may be diagnosed with?

A) Hemolytic anemia
B) Iron-deficiency anemia
C) Pernicious anemia
D) Sickle cell anemia

A

C) Pernicious anemia

53
Q

Paramedics are called to the home of a 27-year-old male who refuses to come out of his bathroom. Through the door, he explains that he saw a large spider on the wall of his bedroom and is deathly afraid of spiders. He ran in the bathroom, stuffed a towel under the door, and got in the bathtub. This is a classic demonstration of which disorder?

A) Mania
B) Phobia
C) Delirium
D) Schizophrenia

A

B) Phobia

54
Q

A paramedic notices that his partner washes her hands five times after every patient contact. She realizes that washing them once thoroughly is sufficient but says she feels the need to wash them again and again. Which condition is occurring?

A) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
B) Paranoia
C) Delirium
D) Psychosis

A

A) Obsessive-compulsive disorder

55
Q

How long is the incubation period for Hepatitis B?

A) 14-23 days
B) 15-50 days
C) 13-17 days
D) 45-180 days

A

D) 45-180 days

56
Q

One particular manifestation of depression is the inability to derive pleasure from events or experiences that ordinarily are pleasurable. This is referred to as which condition?

A) Rebound
B) Hedonism
C) Anhedonia
D) Bipolar disorder

A

C) Anhedonia

57
Q

The mania phase of bipolar disorder is characterized by _____.

A) Feelings of guilt
B) Extreme violence
C) Suicidal behavior
D) Perceived personal grandeur

A

D) Perceived personal grandeur

58
Q

The most common cause of bacterial meningitis in pediatrics is:

A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Listeria monocytogenes
C) Neisseria meningitidis
D) Haemophilus influenzae

A

A) Streptococcus pneumoniae

59
Q

Paramedics are called to the home of a 34-year-old female for a nonspecific abdominal complaint. She informs them that she has had many abdominal surgeries that have not resolved her complaints. Which of the following disorders is a condition in which an individual has complaints (lasting several years) of various physical problems for which no physical cause can be found?

A) Conversion
B) Dissociative
C) Somatoform
D) Munchausen

A

C) Somatoform

60
Q

A factitious disorder in which the patient makes habitual pleas for treatment and hospitalization for a symptomatic but imaginary acute illness is known as which condition?

A) Somatoform syndrome
B) Conversion disorder
C) Dissociative disorder
D) Munchausen syndrome

A

D) Munchausen syndrome

61
Q

What is another term for multiple personality disorder?

A) Dissociative identity disorder
B) Schizophrenia
C) Delirium
D) Factitious disorder

A

A) Dissociative identity disorder

62
Q

What substance is most commonly used by patients with a substance abuse disorder?

A) Alcohol
B) Cocaine
C) Heroine
D) Marijuana

A

A) Alcohol

63
Q

What is the minimum number of capable individuals necessary to restrain a physically violent patient?

A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five

A

C) Four

64
Q

Which of the following drugs would be appropriate for chemically restraining a violent patient in the prehospital setting?

A) Lorazepam
B) Diphenhydramine
C) Thorazine
D) Vecuronium

A

A) Lorazepam

65
Q

A pattern of grandiosity and need for admiration; a sense of entitlement are all commonly seen in which personality disorder?

A) Antisocial personality
B) Borderline personality
C) Narcissistic
D) Individualistic

A

C) Narcissistic

66
Q

When the decision has been made to restrain a patient, which force should be implemented?

A) Overwhelming
B) Reasonable
C) Minimal
D) Patient controlled

A

B) Reasonable

67
Q

When paramedics arrive on the scene, police have physically subdued a 27-year-old patient. He has a history of schizophrenia and became violent in a restaurant after screaming about the voices that were commanding him to destroy the world. He is struggling and shouting profanity. His vital signs are within expected values for his agitated state. Which intervention would be most appropriate for this patient?

A) Administer lorazepam 2 mg IM before moving him to the cot
B) Ask the police to release him so you can attempt to “talk him down”
C) Initiate an IV and administer haloperidol 10 mg IV
D) Restrain prone and secure hands and feet together behind the patient

A

A) Administer lorazepam 2 mg IM before moving him to the cot

EMT 244 (3 decks)

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