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EMT 244 > JBL Quizzes > Flashcards

JBL Quizzes Flashcards

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1
Q

An increase in the incidence of latex allergies occurred with the increased prevalence of:

A) Avian flu.
B) Zika virus.
C) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.
D) COVID-19.

A

C) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.

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1
Q

A line of thickened skin down the left arm may indicate:

A) limited systemic sclerosis.
B) morphea.
C) linear scleroderma.
D) diffuse systemic sclerosis.

A

C) linear scleroderma.

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2
Q

Collagen vascular disease is also known as:

A) connective tissue disease.
B) myelin sheath disease.
C) systemic vascular disease.
D) malignant hypertension.

A

A) connective tissue disease.

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3
Q

Drugs used to alleviate allergy symptoms block the action of:

A) hemoglobin.
B) histamine.
C) heparin.
D) IgG.

A

B) histamine.

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4
Q

Immune responses are:

A) conducted by three types of antibodies.
B) handled by B cells.
C) specific to individual pathogens.
D) initiated in the liver.

A

C) specific to individual pathogens.

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5
Q

In most cases, the cause of death following a severe allergic reaction is:

A) liver failure.
B) bleeding.
C) cytokine storm.
D) shock.

A

D) shock.

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6
Q

In the United States, a new name is added to the national organ transplantation waiting list approximately every:

A) 5 mins
B) hour
C) 10 mins
D) min

A

C) 10 mins

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7
Q

Left untreated, anaphylaxis will result in:

A) circulatory collapse.
B) vasoconstriction.
C) flushed skin.
D) diffuse urticaria.

A

A) circulatory collapse.

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8
Q

Life-threatening manifestations of anaphylaxis affect which body system?

A) Nervous system
B) Reproductive system
C) Lymphatic system
D) Respiratory system

A

D) Respiratory system

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9
Q

Seeing a patient with high levels of several IgGs, you expect to find what kind of cells promoting this production?

A) Killer T cells
B) Suppressor T cells
C) Helper T cells
D) B cells

A

C) Helper T cells

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10
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus can induce which other disorder in many patients?

A) Stroke
B) Urticaria
C) Atherosclerosis
D) Hypertension

A

C) Atherosclerosis

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11
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is delayed?

A) I
B) IV
C) III
D) II

A

B) IV

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12
Q

Which of the following interventions has highest priority when treating a patient with anaphylactic shock?

A) Intubation
B) Vascular access
C) Oxygen
D) Epinephrine

A

D) Epinephrine

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13
Q

Which of the following is a gastrointestinal sign of anaphylaxis?

A) Urticaria
B) Diarrhea
C) Hypotension
D) Coma

A

B) Diarrhea

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14
Q

Which of the following is the least common cause of anaphylaxis?

A) Shellfish
B) Nuts
C) Apples
D) Penicillin

A

C) Apples

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15
Q

Which of the following would be a novel class of immunoglobulins?

A) IgQ
B) IgM
C) IgE
D) IgG

A

A) IgQ

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16
Q

Which of the following would be a sign of rejection of a transplanted kidney?

A) Chest pain that radiates to the right arm
B) Pain on the side near the lower back
C) Wheals confined to one side of the body
D) Headache that radiates down the spine

A

B) Pain on the side near the lower back

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17
Q

Which of the following would be the most unusual complication following organ transplantation?

A) Drug toxicity
B) Infection
C) Systemic lupus
D) Rejection

A

C) Systemic lupus

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18
Q

You are treating a man with anaphylaxis and learn that he has experienced severe allergic reactions in the past. Which of the following medications would he most likely have?

A) An EpiPen
B) Diphenhydramine
C) Aspirin
D) Acetaminophen

A

A) An EpiPen

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19
Q

You want to study humoral immunity, so you obtain samples of human:

A) lymph.
B) collagen.
C) enamel.
D) hair.

A

A) lymph.

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20
Q

A paramedic should not report for duty if he or she is experiencing:

A) sore muscles.
B) poison ivy rash.
C) diarrhea.
D) itching.

A

C) diarrhea.

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21
Q

A patient will typically be immune for life after surviving which kind of influenza?

A) D
B) C
C) A
D) B

A

B) C

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22
Q

After a paramedic leaves work, his or her records of exposure to infectious agents must be maintained for:

A) 60 days.
B) 10 years.
C) 30 years.
D) 360 days.

A

C) 30 years.

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23
Q

Approximately how many people died around the world from tuberculosis in 2021?

A) 6,000,000
B) 8,000,000
C) 2,000,000
D) 4,000,000

A

C) 2,000,000

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24
Q

In the United States, rabies infection is most commonly the result of exposure to a:

A) bat.
B) coyote.
C) cat.
D) raccoon.

A

A) bat.

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25
Q

Placing an outhouse too close to a stream used for drinking water can lead to cholera infections, showing that the mode of transmission is:

A) fecal contamination.
B) oral contact.
C) droplet spread.
D) sexual contact.

A

A) fecal contamination.

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26
Q

The organizational chart for a county health agency should include a(n):

A) nurse who is certified in public health.
B) disease administrator.
C) infectious disease specialist.
D) designated infection control officer.

A

D) designated infection control officer.

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27
Q

What is the chance that a patient with carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae will survive the infection?

A) 70–80%
B) >80%
C) 60–65%
D) <50%

A

D) <50%

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28
Q

What is the chance that a patient with gonorrhea will have the infectious agent in the blood?

A) 50%
B) Nearly 100%
C) 5 to 10%
D) 1 to 3%

A

D) 1 to 3%

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29
Q

When assessing a patient with bacterial endocarditis, it is especially important to check for proper functioning of the:

A) heart valves.
B) aorta.
C) capillaries.
D) vena cavae.

A

A) heart valves.

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30
Q

When was the Zika virus first detected in the United States?

A) 2012
B) 2018
C) 2016
D) 2014

A

C) 2016

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31
Q

Where is a scabies infection least likely to manifest?

A) Nipples
B) Feet
C) Penis
D) Navel

A

D) Navel

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32
Q

Which of the following activities is associated with the highest risk of HIV transmission?

A) Sexual contact
B) Transfusion
C) Breastfeeding
D) Sneezing

A

A) Sexual contact

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33
Q

Which of the following conditions would make a patient more susceptible to pneumonia?

A) Skin cancer
B) Asplenia
C) Hepatitis
D) Meningitis

A

B) Asplenia

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34
Q

Which of the following is an example of an infectious disease?

A) Meningitis
B) Cancer
C) Arthritis
D) Allergies

A

A) Meningitis

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35
Q

Which of the following is the least significant factor when trying to assess host susceptibility in a patient?

A) Age
B) Ethnic group
C) Financial status
D) Sex

A

C) Financial status

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36
Q

Which of the following tests is typically performed first when a person has possibly been exposed to tuberculosis?

A) Sputum culture
B) Skin test
C) Blood test
D) Chest radiograph

A

B) Skin test

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37
Q

Which of the following viruses causes severe acute respiratory syndrome?

A) Rubella virus
B) Coronavirus
C) HIV
D) Influenza

A

B) Coronavirus

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38
Q

You are caring for a patient with a T-lymphocyte count of 212. This person belongs in which category of HIV infection?

A) 1
B) 3
C) 4
D) 2

A

D) 2

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39
Q

Your EMS system frequently transports patients with gram-negative endospore-forming bacterial infections. The patient compartment of the ambulance should be cleaned by which process?

A) Environmental disinfection
B) Low-level disinfection
C) High-level disinfection
D) Sterilization

A

D) Sterilization

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40
Q

A painless, progressive enlargement of the lymphoid glands that most commonly affects the spleen and lymph nodes is called:

A) sarcoma.
B) Hodgkin lymphoma.
C) adenocarcinoma.
D) non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

A

B) Hodgkin lymphoma.

41
Q

A patient who presents with petechiae is most likely:

A) polycythemic.
B) leukopenic.
C) anemic.
D) thrombocytopenic.

A

D) thrombocytopenic.

42
Q

A patient with multiple bruises should be questioned about the potential for:

A) abuse of opioids or similar medications.
B) use of blood-thinning medications.
C) heavy menstrual bleeding.
D) gastrointestinal issues.

A

B) use of blood-thinning medications.

43
Q

A patient with thrombocytopenia:

A) has blood that clots rapidly.
B) is at high risk for a pulmonary embolism.
C) has a decreased platelet count.
D) is severely anemic.

A

C) has a decreased platelet count.

44
Q

Anemia resulting from an autoimmune disorder occurs when:

A) a patient receives blood of a type different than his or her own.
B) red blood cells are destroyed by the body’s own antibodies.
C) hemoglobin becomes desaturated due to a massive infection.
D) the body’s red blood cells destroy certain white blood cells.

A

B) red blood cells are destroyed by the body’s own antibodies.

45
Q

Approximately 95% of the volume of the formed elements of blood consists of:

A) leukocytes.
B) erythrocytes.
C) platelets.
D) electrolytes.

A

B) erythrocytes.

46
Q

During the second phase of disseminated intravascular coagulation:

A) the coagulation and fibrinolytic systems become overwhelmed.
B) large quantities of platelets aggregate and cause the blood to clot.
C) free thrombin and fibrin deposits increase in the bloodstream.
D) decreased clotting factors cause uncontrolled hemorrhage.

A

D) decreased clotting factors cause uncontrolled hemorrhage.

47
Q

During your primary survey of a patient with a hematologic disorder, your priority should be to:

A) note any signs and symptoms that may be immediately life threatening.
B) apply a cardiac monitor to detect the presence of lethal cardiac dysrhythmias.
C) specifically inquire if the patient complains of dyspnea or chest pressure.
D) perform a rapid head-to-toe exam to look for spontaneous hemorrhage.

A

A) note any signs and symptoms that may be immediately life threatening.

48
Q

Erythropoietin is secreted by the:

A) bone marrow.
B) kidneys.
C) liver.
D) spleen.

A

B) kidneys.

49
Q

If a tumor is malignant, it:

A) grows quickly.
B) is noncancerous.
C) grows slowly.
D) is cancerous.

A

D) is cancerous.

50
Q

Patients with type A hemophilia:

A) have a low platelet count.
B) require infusions of factor IX.
C) have a deficiency of factor VIII.
D) bleed due to thrombocytopenia.

A

C) have a deficiency of factor VIII.

51
Q

Production of clotting factors is a function of the:

A) kidney.
B) bone marrow.
C) spleen.
D) liver.

A

D) liver.

52
Q

Which of the following assessment findings is most specific for disseminated intravascular coagulation?

A) Purpura
B) Dyspnea
C) Pruritus
D) Tachycardia

A

A) Purpura

53
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with the greatest risk for the development of anemia?

A) Lupus
B) Alzheimer
C) Asthma
D) Kidney disease

A

D) Kidney disease

54
Q

Which of the following conditions would most likely be associated with disseminated intravascular coagulopathy?

A) Alzheimer
B) Anorexia
C) Anaphylaxis
D) Pregnancy

A

D) Pregnancy

55
Q

Which of the following describes the necessity of fibrinogen?

A) Homeostasis
B) Heart rate regulation
C) Blood clotting
D) Producing immunity

A

C) Blood clotting

56
Q

Which of the following is a function of the spleen?

A) Stores water
B) Produces red blood cells
C) Produces lymphocytes
D) Filters blood

A

C) Produces lymphocytes

57
Q

Which of the following is a major component of the hematologic system?

A) Brain
B) Pancreas
C) Liver
D) Lymph nodes

A

C) Liver

58
Q

Which of the following statements regarding leukemia is correct?

A) Leukemia is caused by a decrease in red blood cells.
B) A hallmark of leukemia is an excess production of platelets.
C) Leukemia is the result of abnormal white blood cell development.
D) Most patients with leukemia have a normal white blood cell count.

A

C) Leukemia is the result of abnormal white blood cell development.

59
Q

Which of the following would be considered the first physiologic response in a patient who is hemorrhaging?

A) Bradycardia
B) Healing
C) Immunity
D) Hemostasis

A

D) Hemostasis

60
Q

A middle-aged woman who has been taking 2 mg of clonazepam each day for 6 months finds that she now requires 4 mg each day to achieve the same effect. This is an example of:

A) tolerance.
B) drug abuse.
C) habituation.
D) physical dependence.

A

A) tolerance.

61
Q

A poison is a substance that:

A) produces harmful physiologic and psychological effects, regardless of the dose.
B) is damaging to the tissues and cells, especially if injected or taken in large quantities.
C) is legal or illegal and has the potential to cause permanent damage if it is ingested.
D) is illegal to possess, in any quantity, and almost exclusively affects the liver and kidneys.

A

A) produces harmful physiologic and psychological effects, regardless of the dose.

62
Q

Alcohol potentiates Valium. This means that:

A) valium makes alcohol a toxic substance.
B) the use of alcohol negates the use of Valium.
C) alcohol antagonizes the effects of Valium.
D) alcohol enhances the effects of Valium.

A

D) alcohol enhances the effects of Valium.

63
Q

Any sympathomimetic drug will cause:

A) hallucinations.
B) tachycardia.
C) ataxia.
D) hypothermia.

A

B) tachycardia.

64
Q

Clinical signs and symptoms following exposure to a toxin will manifest most rapidly if the patient:

A) is exposed by the injection route.
B) has a dermal exposure to the toxin.
C) ingests a large quantity of toxin.
D) is older than 70 years.

A

A) is exposed by the injection route.

65
Q

Crack is a combination of:

A) ecstasy, marijuana, and alcohol.
B) cocaine, baking soda, and water.
C) marijuana, heroin, and baking soda.
D) heroin, cocaine, and distilled water.

A

B) cocaine, baking soda, and water.

66
Q

Management for an ingested poison focuses primarily on:

A) administering a counteracting agent.
B) the prompt induction of vomiting.
C) treating the systemic effects that result.
D) neutralizing the poison in the stomach.

A

D) neutralizing the poison in the stomach.

67
Q

Metal fumes are commonly associated with exposure to:

A) toluene diisocyanate.
B) phosgene.
C) zinc.
D) camphor.

A

C) zinc.

68
Q

Most ingested poisons will cause:

A) tremors and weakness.
B) nausea and vomiting.
C) headache and seizures.
D) salivation and coma.

A

B) nausea and vomiting.

69
Q

Signs and symptoms of marijuana use include:

A) depression.
B) enhanced coordination.
C) decreased appetite.
D) slowed reaction time.

A

D) slowed reaction time.

70
Q

The effects of methamphetamine:

A) last between 10 and 15 minutes.
B) are reversed with naloxone.
C) last longer than cocaine.
D) begin after 20 to 30 minutes.

A

C) last longer than cocaine.

71
Q

Toxic effects of alcohol on the body include:

A) gastrointestinal bleeding.
B) hypercholesterolemia.
C) hyperglycemia.
D) white blood cell overproduction.

A

A) gastrointestinal bleeding.

72
Q

When caring for an unresponsive patient with a toxicologic emergency, you should:

A) protect the airway, perform a rapid assessment, obtain vital signs, try to gather a medical history from the family, and transport promptly.
B) administer high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed secondary assessment, obtain vital signs, and transport to the closest hospital.
C) try to neutralize any ingested toxins, secure a definitive airway, obtain baseline vital signs, start an intravenous line, and transport as soon as possible.
D) intubate at once, obtain baseline vital signs, transport immediately, and perform all other interventions en route to the hospital.

A

A) protect the airway, perform a rapid assessment, obtain vital signs, try to gather a medical history from the family, and transport promptly.

73
Q

Which of the following cardiac rhythm disturbances most commonly results from inadvertent overdose of a prescribed cardiac medication?

A) Tachycardia
B) Bradycardia
C) Atrial flutter
D) Atrial fibrillation

A

B) Bradycardia

74
Q

Which of the following drugs is an opiate?

A) Fentanyl
B) Morphine
C) Oxycodone
D) Tramadol

A

B) Morphine

75
Q

Which of the following electrocardiographic abnormalities is most suggestive of cocaine toxicity?

A) Narrowing of the PR interval
B) Prolongation of the QT interval
C) Marked flattening of the T wave
D) Narrowing of the QRS complex

A

B) Prolongation of the QT interval

76
Q

Which of the following interventions is influenced strongly by the amount of time that has elapsed since a patient ingested a toxic substance?

A) Intubation
B) Transport
C) GI contamination
D) Intravenous therapy

A

C) GI contamination

77
Q

Which of the following is the most immediate danger to an unresponsive patient with acute alcohol intoxication?

A) Ventricular dysrhythmias
B) Acute hypovolemia
C) Aspiration of vomitus
D) Profound bradycardia

A

C) Aspiration of vomitus

78
Q

Which of the following substances is classified as an anticholinergic?

A) Atropine
B) Thiopental
C) Diazinon
D) Phenylephrine

A

A) Atropine

79
Q

Which of the following toxins causes the most serious consequences when absorbed through the skin?

A) Dry lime
B) Sulfuric acid
C) Poison oak
D) Pesticides

A

D) Pesticides

80
Q

A 5-year-old patient with autism spectrum disorder might be comforted by:

A) a doll or other toy.
B) repeated actions.
C) talking about problems.
D) an altered schedule.

A

B) repeated actions.

81
Q

A mother has brought her child to the emergency department every week for the past month with various injuries and conditions for which she states she saved the child’s life. What should you suspect?

A) Amnesia
B) Dementia
C) Conversion disorder
D) Munchausen syndrome by proxy

A

D) Munchausen syndrome by proxy

82
Q

A patient threatened with restraints who becomes calm and agrees to transport should:

A) be transported with only light straps.
B) not be transported to the hospital.
C) receive a sedative as a precaution.
D) be heavily restrained while unaware.

A

A) be transported with only light straps.

83
Q

A patient who is hallucinating might:

A) claim that he is in a country other than the one he is in.
B) hear an imaginary symphony.
C) believe that his food is being poisoned daily.
D) be concerned that the government is monitoring his movements.

A

B) hear an imaginary symphony.

84
Q

A patient whose parents had schizophrenia and who is under significant stress is likely to exhibit:

A) repetitive movements.
B) obsessive thoughts.
C) psychosis.
D) weeping.

A

C) psychosis.

85
Q

A phobia of baseball bats would most likely stem from:

A) transference from something else.
B) an old head injury.
C) a fear of sports.
D) a dislike of sports.

A

A) transference from something else.

86
Q

An older adult may be easier to assist if you:

A) enlist the help of children.
B) use the person’s surname.
C) mention assisted living.
D) administer a tranquilizer.

A

B) use the person’s surname.

87
Q

An older adult with a Richmond Agitation–Sedation Scale score of 3 requires:

A) talk therapy.
B) more sedation.
C) restraint.
D) physical activity.

A

B) more sedation.

88
Q

Cases of obsessive-compulsive disorder revolve around:

A) reliving pleasant experiences.
B) odors.
C) past trauma.
D) rituals.

A

D) rituals.

89
Q

In 2020, approximately how many Americans committed suicide?

A) 45,000
B) 15,000
C) 25,000
D) 35,000

A

A) 45,000

90
Q

Psychiatric illnesses are:

A) the result of bad choices.
B) always genetic.
C) mostly untreatable.
D) real medical conditions.

A

D) real medical conditions.

91
Q

The most serious possibility associated with bipolar disorder is:

A) suicide.
B) depression.
C) seizures.
D) a stroke.

A

A) suicide.

92
Q

The priority when caring for a patient who is exhibiting violent behavior is:

A) ensuring crew safety.
B) engaging the family to help.
C) avoiding physical restraint.
D) administering a sedative.

A

A) ensuring crew safety.

93
Q

When a patient’s consciousness is affected, they may present with which of the following psychiatric signs and symptoms?

A) Delirium
B) Compulsions
C) Perseveration
D) Euphoria

A

A) Delirium

94
Q

Which of the following is an example of a biologic disturbance that could cause a behavioral emergency?

A) A breakup
B) Death of a loved one
C) A brain tumor
D) Job loss

A

C) A brain tumor

95
Q

Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate to use to chemically restrain a psychotic patient?

A) Droperidol
B) Depakote
C) Phenobarbital
D) Succinylcholine

A

A) Droperidol

96
Q

Which of the following medications would most likely be prescribed to a patient who is being treated for psychosis?

A) Lexapro
B) Haldol
C) Adderall
D) Lamictal

A

B) Haldol

97
Q

Which of the following would be the safest and most useful improvised restraint?

A) Thin wire
B) Long backboard
C) Scoop stretcher
D) Cravat

A

D) Cravat

98
Q

While assessing a disoriented patient, you ask for a number between 1 and 10 to describe the patient’s positive feelings. The patient responds by weeping. This indicates a problem with:

A) emotional stability.
B) speech and language.
C) cognitive ability.
D) appearance.

A

A) emotional stability.

99
Q

You should use the Behavioral Activity Rating Scale when administering:

A) guanfacine.
B) lithium.
C) Depakote.
D) ziprasidone.

A

D) ziprasidone.

EMT 244 (3 decks)

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