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1 Esthetician School > Quiz Four - MFChp5, MEChp11, EuroChp1,5,6,7,8, NCEAChp2,3p > Flashcards

Quiz Four - MFChp5, MEChp11, EuroChp1,5,6,7,8, NCEAChp2,3p Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5
Couperose Skin Treatment objectives?
CV, H,N,P,E

A

Calm Vast-Instrict
Hydrate
Normaliza PH
Protect
Educate

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2
Q

What are the 6
Sensitive Skin Treatment objectives?
CI,IP,RB,H,N,E

A

Calm Irritation
Insulate & Protect
Restore Barrier
Hydrate
Normalize PH
Educate

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3
Q

What are the 6
Alipidic Skin Treatment objectives?
IP,RB,IPCM,H,N,E

A

Insulate & Protect
Restore Barrier
Insulate Peripheral Circulation & Metabolism
Hydrate
Normalize PH
Educate

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4
Q

What is Imbibition?

A

swelling of horny layer, steam does this to skin

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5
Q

What are Hydrophobic Fats?

A

intercellular cement, prevents TWEL

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6
Q

What are Hydrophilic Fats?

A

Fats in sebum & sweats Hyper Lipid Layer, moisture from air

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7
Q

Horny Assimilation is…

A

skin interacts to products, self tanner

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8
Q

Transcutaneous Absorption…

A

fancyword for how essential oils and hormones can absorb/blood stream

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9
Q

Erythema is…

A

blushing

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10
Q

Telangiectasia is…

A

spider veins, damaged capillaries, nose and cheeks

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11
Q

Rosacea is…

A

medical condition, butterfly shape redness on face

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12
Q

Hyperemia is…

A

chronic redness

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13
Q

Anagen is…

A

where you get long term hair reduction

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14
Q

Telogen is…

A

Resting hair stage

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15
Q

What is Trichology?

A

study and science of hair

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15
Q

Biofilms are NOT…

A

highly susceptible to the body’s defense mechanisms

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16
Q

True or False?
Antiseptics generally contain a high volume of ammonia to slow the growth of microbes.

A

False

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17
Q

Which of the following characteristics refer to the CLEANING step of infection control? (USL)

A

ultrasonic unit
Significantly reduces pathogens on a surface
Lowest level of decontamination

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18
Q

Which of the following characteristics refer to the DISINFECTING step of infection control? (DGS)

A

Destroys most bacteria and some viruses
gloves
Second only to sterilization

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19
Q

Human papilloma virus

A

MPV

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20
Q

What can spread from person to person through blood and, less often, through other bodily fluids

A

HIV

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21
Q

Herpes simplex virus

A

HSV

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22
Q

Disease that breaks down the body’s immune system

A

AIDS

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23
Q

Highly resistant to conventional treatments such as antibiotics

A

MRSA

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24
Q

Causes AIDS

A

HIV

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25
Q

Acquired immune deficiency syndrome

A

AIDS

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26
Q

Initially appears as a skin infection that can be difficult to cure and becomes systemic without proper care

A

MRSA

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27
Q

The presence, or the reasonably anticipated presence, of blood or other potentially infectious materials on an item’s surface, or visible debris or residues
such as dust, hair, and skin

A

Contamination

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28
Q

A condition in which the tissue of the body reacts to injury, irritation, or infection

A

Inflammation

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29
Q

Various poisonous substances produced by some microorganisms (bacteria or viruses)

A

Toxins

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30
Q

Nonscientific synonym for disease-producing organisms

A

Germs

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31
Q

submicroscopic particle that infects and resides in the cells of a biological organism. =>

A

Viruses

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32
Q

Resist antiseptics, antimicrobials, and disinfection through a sticky matrix substance.

A

Biofilms

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33
Q

Multiply best in warm, dark, damp, or dirty places. =>

A

Bacteria

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34
Q

Tuberculosis is transmitted through

A

inhalation

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35
Q

There are BLANK
of different kinds of bacteria, which fall into BLANK
primary type(s).

A

thousands; two

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36
Q

How can you prevention of the spread of infections?

A

It is easy when you know the proper procedures to follow

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37
Q

Because clients who are just getting sick can be contagious without showing any signs of infection, they are considered to be BLANK

A

asymptomatic

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38
Q

A microorganism is any

A

organism of microscopic size

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39
Q

True or False That most bacteria are nonpathgenic?

A

True

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40
Q

There can be no bacterial infection without the presence of BLANK

A

pathogenic bacteria

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41
Q

Bleach used in the salon or spa must be EPA registered …..

A

As disinfectant

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42
Q

BLANK is mostly used to remove visible dirt.

A

Cleaning

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43
Q

True or False: Use disinfectants directly on dirty, soft, porous surfaces is a cautionary tips to consider when handling disinfectants

A

True

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44
Q

True or False: Phenolic disinfectants are known carcinogens.

A

True

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45
Q

It can be accurately said that pathogenic bacteria cause BLANK

A

disease or infection

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46
Q

If you drop a tool or implement on the floor during a service, you should BLANK

A

replace immediately or disinfect the tool prior to continuing the service

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47
Q

An EPA-registered disinfectant MUST….

A

have word concentrate

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48
Q

Disinfectants are NOT BLANK

A

able to destroy all bacteria

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49
Q

What is the difference between respiratory droplets and airborne transmission?

A

Respiratory droplets do not stay in the air as long

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50
Q

When handling disinfectants, NEVER BLANK

A

place them in unmarked containers

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51
Q

Single-celled organisms that grow in irregular masses and include molds, mildews, and yeasts.

A

Fungi

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52
Q

Colonies of microorganisms that adhere to environmental surfaces, as well as the human body.

A

Biofilms

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53
Q

Most often spread through contact with blood or other body fluids.

A

Viruses

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54
Q

Head lice is an example of these and is responsible for pediculosis capititis, among other diseases.

A

Parasites

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55
Q

Staphylococci are among the most common examples of these that affect humans.

A

Bacteria

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56
Q

Ringworm is one example, afflicting the skin with circular lesions.
=>

A

Parasites

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57
Q

Scabies is a skin condition caused by the itch mite, one example of these.

A

Parasites

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58
Q

BLANK is an example of direct transmission (SS)

A

Shaking hands without washing
Spreads MRSA & warts

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59
Q

BLANK is an example of airborne/respiratory droplet transmission

A

Coughing, sneezing, talking

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60
Q

BLANK is an example of indirect transmission (CDPW)

A

Contact intermediate object,
Doorknobs
Phones
work surfaces

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61
Q

BLANK is NOT caused by a virus.

A

Strep throat

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62
Q

True or False: When assisting a client into or out of a hydraulic treatment table you should always lower the table to its lowest level

A

True

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63
Q

What are the guidelines published by the CDC that employees and employers agree to with the assumption that any human blood or body fluids are potentially infectious?

A

Standard precautions

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64
Q

Setting BLANK is more likely to be governed by state regulatory agencies rather than federal regulatory agencies.

A

guidelines for licensing

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65
Q

What is NOT true of staphylococcus?

A

Most strains make us very ill

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66
Q

Quat solutions usually take BLANK to disinfect implements?

A

10 minutes

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67
Q

The EPA most likely be involved in regulating BLANK? (MC)

A

Safe manufacture of chemical products used

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68
Q

It is NOT required that disinfectants used in salons and spas must be…?

A

Hypoallergenic

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69
Q

What happens when an individuals immune system prevents tramsmissions?

A

prevents illness

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70
Q

After removing one pair of gloves and before putting on a new pair, you should….

A

wash your hands

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71
Q

What refers to disifecting step of infection control?

A

destroys most bacteria and some viruses

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72
Q

When a surface is properly cleaned, the number of contaminants on the surface is BLANK (GR)

A

greatly reduced

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73
Q

To understand trabnsnissions is to understand BLANK

A

process by which pathogens move between individuals

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74
Q

Removing BLANK hair will cause the hair to loss its softness and uniformity

A

vellus

75
Q

What is hirsutism?

A

unusual hair growth due to hormonal imbalance

76
Q

What direction is product applied during the spatula method of sugaring?

A

with hair growth

77
Q

What is an ancient method of hair removal?

A

sugaring

78
Q

What does the acronym IPL stand for?

A

intense pulsed light

79
Q

What should clients avoid for atleast 24-48 hours after waxing?>

A

heat

80
Q

What is anagen?

A

first stage of hair growth

81
Q

What is removing hair from the folllicles via tweezing or waxing?

A

epilation

82
Q

What is not a form in which hard waxes are available?

A

strips

83
Q

What can lead to production of new terminal hair?

A

removing fine vellus hair

84
Q

What is not a contraindication for facial waxing?

A

recent steam treatment

85
Q

What type of skin might benefit from sugaring as an alternative form of epilation?

A

senstive

86
Q

What is the funcation of a depilatory?

A

Temporarily removing hair by dissolving it at skin level

87
Q

What is not true of laser hair removal?

A

considered a permanent hair removal method

88
Q

What function does the hair root perform?

A

anchoring the hair to the skin cells

89
Q

When waxing the lip, where are there often nuisance hairs that bother the client?

A

vermillion border

90
Q

What is the actonym ACT used to help esthetician remember?

A

Stages of hair growth

91
Q

What is the removal of hair by means of an electric current that destorys the hair root?

A

eletrolysis

92
Q

What shape does a hair follicle take?

A

small tube

93
Q

Why is it beneficial that each thread is discarded after use during the threading process?

A

hygienic

94
Q

What is true of stainless steel slant-tipped tweezers?

A

They are a wax treatment essential.

95
Q

What is true of soft wax?

A

lower melting point than hard wax

96
Q

What is trichology?

A

scientific study of hair and its diseases

97
Q

When happens to hair during puberty?

A

Follicles switch from producing vellus hairs to terminal hairs.

98
Q

What direction is product applied during the hand method of sugaring?

A

against the hair growth

99
Q

What happens to lanugo hair shortly after birth?

A

replaced either by vellus hairs or by terminal hairs

100
Q

What is rosacea a contraindication for?

A

waxing

101
Q

What effect does galvanic electrolysis have?

A

chemically decomposing the hair follicle

102
Q

What is not contained within the pilosebaceous unit?

A

lanugo

103
Q

What is considered to be the only true method of permanent hair removal?

A

electrolysis

104
Q

What is another name for threading?

A

banding

105
Q

How does thermolysis destroy hair follicles?

A

alternating current

106
Q

What is the final stage of hair growth?

A

telogen

107
Q

What is lanugo hair?

A

fine, soft, downy hair

108
Q

What is pellon used to make?

A

wax strips

109
Q

How long must virgin hair be in order to remove it with waxing?

A

1/4 inch

110
Q

What is the term for excessive hair growth where hair does not normally grow?

A

hypertrichosis

111
Q

Where is the hair bulb located?

A

base of the follicle

112
Q

What describes the arrector pili muscle?

A

on hair follicle
rection to cold

113
Q

Name the parts of the structure of the hair (ASFRPB)

A

arrector pili muscle
sabaceous gland
hair follicle
hair root
hair papilia
blood vessel

114
Q

anchors hair to the skin cells

A

hair root

115
Q

is a thick, club-shaped structure madefrom epithelial cells

A

hair blub

116
Q

mass of epidermal cells forming a small tube

A

hair follicle

117
Q

cone-shaped elevation of connective tissue

A

hair papilla

118
Q

defined as the part of the hair located above the surface of skin

A

hair shaft

119
Q

contracts when affected by cold

A

arrector pili muscle

120
Q

soft downy hair

A

lanugo

121
Q

found in areas that are not covered by the larger terminal hair

A

vellus hair

122
Q

longer, course hair found on head, brows, lashes, genitals

A

terminal hair

123
Q

What does ACT stand for

A

Anagen
Catagen
Telogen

124
Q

What is the first stage of hair growth

A

anagen

125
Q

what is the anagen stage

A

growth stage during which new hair is produced

126
Q

Anagen stage is most important to hair removal because…

A

its best for long-term hair reduction

127
Q

what hair phase is the transition stage

A

catagen

128
Q

what stage is the hair referred to as a club hair and the shortest part of hair growth

A

catagen

129
Q

What is the final or resting stage of hair growth

A

telogen

130
Q

What are two depilation hair removal

A

shaving and chemical

131
Q

What are some epilation hair removal ways

A

tweezing, waxing, sugaring

132
Q

What are two permanent hair removal and reduction EL

A

electrolysis
laser

133
Q
A
134
Q

What are the 7 skin main functions?
(PHASERS)

A

Protection
Heat Regulation
Absorption
Secretion
Excretion
Respiration
Sensation

135
Q

What are the four main type within Protection?

A

Mechanical
Physical
Chemical
Mircobial

136
Q

What do each of the four types in Protection mean…
Mechanical…
Physical….
Chemical….
Micriobal…

A

Mechanical… cuts or abrasions, its the physical barrier of the skin protects from and absorbs pressure
Physical…. heat rediation and sunlight radiation
Chemical…. drugs, skin products and pollution, this is the locked door helps keep out yucky chemicals
Micriobal…mircroorganisms such as germs and fungi, acidity surface ecology reduce chance for micriobal growth

137
Q

Explain what Heat Regulation does?

A

sweat glands and blood vessels play a big role in keeping our bodies internal temp stable
98.6. Signal comes from the hypothalamus in our brain
tells our body to warm or cool our bodies

138
Q

Explain Absorption…

A

our skin absorbs vitamin D
the most important substance we need
Some oils can be absorbed, these get through the hair follicle

139
Q

Explain Secretion…

A

Sebum, the oil our needs to lubricant
sebaceous glands
this helps keeps our body moist

140
Q

Explain Excretion..

A

this is sweat and toxins being removed from our bodies
sudoriferous glands our sweat glands

141
Q

Explain Respiration…

A

small amounts of oxygen and other gases that enters and exits our skin
Secondary function

142
Q

Explain Sensation….

A

sensory data
our skin gives our brain regarding outside stimulation
telling us if there is pain, cold, heat…

143
Q

What are the three divisions of the skin?

A

Epidermis
Dermis
Hypodermis

144
Q

How many layers are there in the Epidermis? Please name them… (GMGCHS)

A

6 layers
Germinative Layer or Stratum Germinativum
Malpighain Layer or Stratum Spinosum
Granular Layer or Stratum Granulosum
Clear Layer or Stratum Lucidum
Horny Layer or Stratum Corneum
Squamous Layer or Stratum Dysjunctum

145
Q

Name the 1st layer of the Epidermis and explain what is does…

A

Germinative Layer or Stratum Germinativum
Juicy and living cells
Producing new cells and where mitosis happens
Vitamin D is mainly absorbed here

146
Q

Name the 2nd layer of the Epidermis and explain what is does…

A

Melpighain Layer or Stratum Spinosum
‘spiny’ or ‘prickle’ cells
Cells start to dehydrate
Start to connect to each other

147
Q

Name the 3rd layer of the Epidermis and explain what is does…

A

Granular Layer or Stratum Granulosum
Basel layer
Process of transformation
Cells are dry, waxy flakes
Keratin starts, waxy protien
**Creates the barrier function **

148
Q

Name the 4th layer of the Epidermis and explain what is does…

A

Clear Layer or Stratum Corneum
Production of calluses
Filled with keratin
palms and feet

149
Q

Name the 5th layer of the Epidermis and explain what is does…

A

Horny Layer or Stratum Corneum
Firmly cemented together (incellular cement)
Barrier to prevent TWEL
Where we bluebirds do our magic!

150
Q

Name the 6th layer of the Epidermis and explain what is does…

A

Squamous Layer or Stratum Dysjunctum
scaly exterior cells waiting to be sloughed off body

151
Q

What two layers are in the Dermis?

A

Papillary Layer
Recticular Layer

152
Q

Explain the papillary layer…

A

loose (areolar) connective tissue
rich supply of blood capoillaries + nerve endings for touch
dermal papillae which project into the epidermis

153
Q

Explain the reticular layer…

A

highly sensitive and made up of elastic material
collagen and elastic fibers
skins elasticity breaksdown from UV, smoking no sunscreen
large layer

154
Q

How much of the recticular layer is in the dermis?

A

4/5

155
Q

How much of the papillary layer is in the dermis?

A

1/5

156
Q

Explain what the hypodermis is….

A

thick layer of irregularly connective tissue
fatty layer
below the dermis and on top of muscles
fat padding acts as a shock
absorber

157
Q

Where are the sebaceous glands found

A

all parts of body, particulary the face

158
Q

What are the Sebaceous glands? (How big, where are they and what do they open into)? (SDF)

A

small glandular organs
dermis
follicular canal

159
Q

What are Sudoriferous glands commonly referred to as?

A

sweat glands

160
Q

Where are sudoriferous glands found?

A

all over body

161
Q

Where does keratinization start?

A

Starting in the germinative layer

162
Q

Where does keratinization end?

A

Horny layer

163
Q

How long does the whole process of keratinization take?

A

28 days

164
Q

What are the two sweat glands called..

A

eccrine glands
apocrine glands

165
Q

What does buffer capacity mean..

A

the skins ability to return to the normal value of approx pH 5 after changes

166
Q

What pH point is healthy skin at…

A

4.5 and 5.5

167
Q

Where are the eccrine glands found and what ph level are they (acidic or alkaline)?

A

all over the body
acidic in nature

168
Q

The pH of a substance is its.. (A&A)

A

degree of acidity or alkalinity

169
Q

What does pH stand for

A

Potential Hydrogen

170
Q

What is the pH neutral point…

A

7

171
Q

Anything below 7 on the pH scale is….

A

acidic

172
Q

Anything over 7 to 14 on the pH scale is….

A

Alkaline

173
Q

What is TEWL?

A

Trans-Epidermal Water Loss

174
Q

What is Melanocytes Stimulating Hormone? MSH

A

stimulated from pituitary gland
responsible for activating melanin

175
Q

What does permeability mean
What does impermeability mean

A

allows liquids & gases to enter
not allowing liquids & gases to enter

176
Q

What are five treatment considerations for couperose skin? (CEHMH)

A

Compress w/cooling
Elevate
Harsh products
Massage
Heat

177
Q

What are the three signs of couperose skin? (THR)

A

Telangiectasis
Hyperemia
Rosacea

178
Q

Sensitive Skin =
Allergic Skin=

A

irritant
allergen

179
Q

What are signs of sensitive skin that is irritating…(RRR)

A

only reaction where contact with skin
reaction is immediate and more mild
will improve with removal of product

180
Q

What are signs of allergic skin reactions…

A

anywhere on body
more severe (swelling)
days to go away

181
Q

Facters for Alipidic Skin… (GAM)

A

Genetics
Aging
Medication

182
Q

What is the Glogau Classification is what…

A

based on clients aging analysis and photodamage

183
Q

What are the four groups to Glogau Classification System? (MMAS)

A

Mild - little wrinkles
Moderate - early wrinkling
Advanced - Persistent wrinkling
Serve - Serve wrinkling

184
Q

Name some professional precautions… (TLHM)

A

Tanning bed
Laser treatments
Herpes
Medications

185
Q

Name some professional contraindications… (ASA)

A

Acne grades
Sunburn
Autoimmune

186
Q

contracts when affected by cold

A

arrector pili muscle

1 Esthetician School (5 decks)

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