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Microbio > quiz 6 questions > Flashcards

quiz 6 questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is agglutination?
A) The clumping of cells or particles when an antigen is mixed with its corresponding antibody
B) The separation of antibodies from antigens
C) The process of antibodies dissolving in the bloodstream
D) The formation of a clear solution when antigens are present

A

A

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2
Q

Which of the following can be used to observe agglutination?

A) Blood cells
B) Synthetic beads coated with antigens
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B

A

Correct Answer: C) Both A and B

Explanation: Agglutination can occur with blood cells or synthetic beads coated with antigens

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3
Q

In an agglutination test, what indicates a positive result?

A) Clear solution
B) Clumping of particles
C) Precipitation
D) Color change

A

Correct Answer: B) Clumping of particles

Explanation: In an agglutination test, a positive result is indicated by the clumping of particles, not precipitation.

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4
Q

Which type of reaction involves the formation of a visible precipitate?

A) Agglutination
B) Precipitation
C) Flocculation
D) Adsorption

A

Your answer: B) Precipitation

Explanation: A precipitation reaction involves the formation of a solid precipitate when antigens and antibodies interact in solution.

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5
Q

Agglutination can be used to detect which of the following in a patient’s sample?

A) Antibodies only
B) Antigens only
C) Either antibodies or antigens
D) Neither antibodies nor antigens

A

Correct Answer: C) Either antibodies or antigens

Explanation: Agglutination tests can be used to detect either antibodies or antigens in a patient’s sample, depending on the test setup.

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6
Q

Which ELISA technique involves the use of two different antibodies to capture and detect the antigen?

A) Direct ELISA
B) Indirect ELISA
C) Sandwich ELISA
D) Competitive ELISA

A

Correct Answer: C) Sandwich ELISA

Explanation: The Sandwich ELISA uses two different antibodies—one to capture the antigen and another to detect it, forming a “sandwich” structure.

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7
Q

What does a positive result in an ELISA test typically look like?

A) A clear solution
B) A color change, often yellow
C) Precipitation of the sample
D) A cloudy solution

A

Correct Answer: B) A color change, often yellow

Explanation: In most ELISA tests, a positive result is indicated by a color change, often yellow, due to the enzyme-substrate reaction.

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8
Q

Which ELISA method is considered more sensitive due to the use of a secondary antibody?
A) Direct ELISA
B) Indirect ELISA
C) Sandwich ELISA
D) Competitive ELISA

A

Correct Answer: B) Indirect ELISA

Explanation: Indirect ELISA is more sensitive because it uses a secondary antibody, which amplifies the signal, making it easier to detect the antigen.

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9
Q

Which of the following is a primary difference between ELISA and PCR tests?
A) ELISA detects nucleic acids, PCR detects proteins
B) PCR detects nucleic acids, ELISA detects proteins
C) Both ELISA and PCR detect proteins
D) Both ELISA and PCR detect nucleic acids

A

Correct Answer: B) PCR detects nucleic acids, ELISA detects proteins

Explanation: PCR tests are used to detect nucleic acids (DNA/RNA), while ELISA tests are used to detect proteins such as antigens or antibodies.

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10
Q

In an indirect ELISA, what binds to the primary antibody?

A) Antigen
B) Secondary antibody with an enzyme
C) Fluorescent dye
D) Substrate

A

Correct Answer: B) Secondary antibody with an enzyme

Explanation: In an indirect ELISA, the secondary antibody, which is linked to an enzyme, binds to the primary antibody.

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11
Q

Streptococcus Species and Diseases:
Which type of hemolysis is exhibited by Streptococcus pyogenes?

A) Alpha-hemolysis
B) Beta-hemolysis
C) Gamma-hemolysis
D) No hemolysis

A

Your answer: B) Beta-hemolysis
Explanation: Streptococcus pyogenes exhibits beta-hemolysis, which is characterized by a complete lysis of red blood cells around the colony on a blood agar plate

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12
Q

Which Streptococcus species is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia?

A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Streptococcus agalactiae
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Streptococcus mutans

A

Your answer: C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation: Streptococcus pneumoniae is the bacterium responsible for most cases of bacterial pneumonia and exhibits alpha-hemolysis.

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13
Q

Streptococcus mutans is primarily associated with which condition?

A) Strep throat
B) Dental caries (tooth decay)
C) Bacterial pneumonia
D) Neonatal infections

A

Correct Answer: B) Dental caries (tooth decay)

Explanation: Streptococcus mutans is primarily associated with dental caries (tooth decay) and does not cause bacterial pneumonia.

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14
Q

What type of hemolysis is exhibited by Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A) Alpha-hemolysis
B) Beta-hemolysis
C) Gamma-hemolysis
D) Delta-hemolysis

A

Correct Answer: A) Alpha-hemolysis

Explanation: Streptococcus pneumoniae exhibits alpha-hemolysis, which is characterized by a partial or “green” lysis of red blood cells.

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15
Q

The pneumococcal vaccine protects against infections caused by which bacterium?

A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Streptococcus agalactiae
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Streptococcus mutans

A

Correct Answer: C) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Explanation: The pneumococcal vaccine is designed to protect against infections caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, including pneumonia, meningitis, and sepsis.

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16
Q

What is zoonosis?

A) A disease that affects only humans
B) A disease that is transmitted from animals to humans
C) A disease that affects only animals
D) A genetic disorder in animals

A

B) A disease that is transmitted from animals to humans

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17
Q

Which of the following is the primary cause of Brucellosis in humans?

A) Brucella abortus
B) Brucella suis
C) Brucella melitensis
D) Brucella canis

A

A) Brucella abortus
Brucella abortus is one of the primary species responsible for Brucellosis in humans, particularly through contact with infected cattle. Brucella suis primarily affects pig

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18
Q

How is Lyme disease primarily transmitted to humans?

A) Through the bite of an infected mosquito
B) Through direct contact with an infected animal
C) Through the bite of an infected tick
D) Through contaminated food or wat

A

Correct Answer: C) Through the bite of an infected tick

Explanation: Lyme disease is transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected black-legged tick (also known as the deer tick).

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19
Q

What is a common symptom of Lyme disease that appears in 50-70% of cases?

A) Severe headache
B) Bull’s-eye rash (erythema migrans)
C) High fever
D) Muscle cramps

A

Correct Answer: B) Bull’s-eye rash (erythema migrans)

Explanation: The bull’s-eye rash, or erythema migrans, is a common early symptom of Lyme disease, appearing in 50-70% of cases. High fever is not as specific to Lyme disease as the rash.

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20
Q

Which of the following species is most commonly associated with Brucellosis in cattle?

A) Brucella suis
B) Brucella canis
C) Brucella abortus
D) Brucella melitensis

A

Correct Answer: C) Brucella abortus

Brucella abortus is most commonly associated with Brucellosis in cattle, while Brucella suis is more commonly associated with pigs.

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21
Q

What is the causative agent of the plague?

A) Francisella tularensis
B) Yersinia pestis
C) Borrelia burgdorferi
D) Brucella abortus

A

Correct Answer: B) Yersinia pestis

Explanation: The bacterium responsible for the plague is Yersinia pestis. Francisella tularensis causes tularemia, not the plague.

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22
Q

Which form of the plague is most commonly associated with swollen lymph nodes, also known as buboes?

A) Septicemic plague
B) Pneumonic plague
C) Bubonic plague
D) Black plague

A

Correct Answer: C) Bubonic plague
‘
Explanation: Bubonic plague is characterized by swollen lymph nodes, known as buboes.

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23
Q

How is the pneumonic form of the plague primarily transmitted?

A) Through flea bites
B) Through direct contact with infected animals
C) Through inhalation of respiratory droplets from an infected person
D) Through contaminated food or water

A

: C) Through inhalation of respiratory droplets from an infected person

Explanation: Pneumonic plague is highly contagious and can be transmitted through inhalation of respiratory droplets from an infected person.

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24
Q

Which type of the plague is the most fatal if left untreated?

A) Bubonic plague
B) Septicemic plague
C) Pneumonic plague
D) All types have equal fatality rates

A

Correct Answer: C) Pneumonic plague

Explanation: Pneumonic plague is the most fatal form if left untreated because it spreads rapidly and can be transmitted from person to person through the air.

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25
Q

What role do amplifying hosts play in the plague’s infectious cycle?

A) They maintain the bacterium in nature without becoming ill.
B) They allow the bacterium to multiply rapidly, leading to outbreaks.
C) They transmit the bacterium directly to humans.
D) They are immune to the bacterium and prevent its spread.

A

Correct Answer: B) They allow the bacterium to multiply rapidly, leading to outbreaks.

Explanation: Amplifying hosts are species in which Yersinia pestis multiplies rapidly, leading to high mortality and potential outbreaks.

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26
Q

Which of the following best describes diarrhea?

A) A disease characterized by the presence of blood in the stool
B) The frequent passage of loose or watery stools
C) An infection caused by Shigella species
D) Inflammation of the intestines leading to severe abdominal pain

A

Correct Answer: B) The frequent passage of loose or watery stools

Explanation: Diarrhea is characterized by the frequent passage of loose or watery stools and can be caused by various factors, including infections, food intolerances, or medications.

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27
Q

What is the main difference between diarrhea and dysentery?

A) Dysentery is caused by viruses, while diarrhea is caused by bacteria.
B) Diarrhea is characterized by the presence of mucus and blood in the stool.
C) Dysentery involves the presence of blood and/or mucus in the stool.
D) Diarrhea always leads to severe dehydration.

A

Correct Answer: C) Dysentery involves the presence of blood and/or mucus in the stool.

Explanation: Dysentery is a more severe form of diarrhea that involves the presence of blood and/or mucus in the stool, typically caused by a bacterial infection that leads to inflammation of the intestines.

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28
Q

Which bacterium is the most common cause of shigellosis?

A) Escherichia coli
B) Vibrio cholerae
C) Salmonella enterica
D) Shigella species

A

Correct Answer: D) Shigella species

Explanation: Shigellosis is most commonly caused by bacteria belonging to the Shigella species.

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29
Q

How does Shigella typically invade the body?

A) Through the bloodstream
B) By entering the Peyer’s patches in the large intestine
C) By attaching to the stomach lining
D) Through the respiratory system

A

Correct Answer: B) By entering the Peyer’s patches in the large intestine

Explanation: Shigella typically invades the body by entering the Peyer’s patches in the large intestine, leading to an inflammatory response.

30
Q

Which of the following is a common treatment for shigellosis?

A) Oral rehydration therapy and ciprofloxacin
B) Intravenous fluids and antivirals
C) Antifungal medication and hydration
D) Surgery to remove the infected intestine

A

: A) Oral rehydration therapy and ciprofloxacin

Explanation: The common treatment for shigellosis includes oral rehydration therapy to prevent dehydration and antibiotics like ciprofloxacin to treat the bacterial infection.

31
Q

What is the causative agent of typhoid fever?

A) Vibrio cholerae
B) Salmonella Typhi
C) Escherichia coli
D) Shigella dysenteriae

A

B) Salmonella Typhi

Typhoid fever is caused by the bacterium Salmonella Typhi, which typically spreads through ingestion of contaminated food or water.

32
Q

How is typhoid fever most commonly transmitted?

A) Through inhalation of respiratory droplets
B) Through the bite of an infected tick
C) Through ingestion of fecally contaminated food or water
D) Through direct skin contact with an infected person

A

C) Through ingestion of fecally contaminated food or water

Typhoid fever is most commonly transmitted through the ingestion of food or water contaminated with feces from an infected person.

33
Q

What is the characteristic symptom of cholera?

A) High fever with rash
B) Severe abdominal pain and jaundice
C) “Rice water stool” leading to severe dehydration
D) Blood in the urine

A

C) “Rice water stool” leading to severe dehydration

Cholera is characterized by severe, watery diarrhea that resembles “rice water,” which can lead to rapid dehydration.

34
Q

Which bacterium causes cholera?

A) Salmonella Typhi
B) Shigella sonnei
C) Vibrio cholerae
D) Campylobacter jejuni

A

: C) Vibrio cholerae

Cholera is caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae, which produces a toxin leading to severe dehydration through watery diarrhea.

35
Q

What is the primary treatment for cholera?

A) Antibiotics alone
B) Oral rehydration therapy
C) Surgery to remove the affected part of the intestine
D) Antiviral medications

A

: B) Oral rehydration therapy

The primary treatment for cholera is oral rehydration therapy to replace lost fluids and electrolytes. In severe cases, antibiotics may also be used, but antivirals are not effective against cholera as it is a bacterial infection

36
Q

Which bacterium is responsible for causing gonorrhea?

A) Treponema pallidum
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) Escherichia coli

A

C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Gonorrhea is caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which infects the mucous membranes of the reproductive tract.

37
Q

What is a common symptom of gonorrhea in men?

A) Skin rash on the palms
B) Painful urination and pus-like discharge from the penis
C) Genital sores
D) Fever and chills

A

Correct Answer: B) Painful urination and pus-like discharge from the penis

Explanation: A common symptom of gonorrhea in men includes painful urination and a pus-like discharge from the penis.

38
Q

Which bacterium is the causative agent of syphilis?

A) Treponema pallidum
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Mycoplasma genitalium

A

Correct Answer: A) Treponema pallidum

Explanation: Syphilis is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum, not Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which causes gonorrhea.

39
Q

What is the characteristic symptom of primary syphilis?

A) Painful sores on the genitals
B) A hard chancre at the site of inoculation
C) Generalized body rash
D) Severe abdominal pain

A

Correct Answer: B) A hard chancre at the site of inoculation

Explanation: The characteristic symptom of primary syphilis is a hard, painless chancre (ulcer) at the site where the bacteria entered the body. The generalized body rash typically appears during the secondary stage of syphilis.

40
Q

If left untreated, what severe complications can tertiary syphilis lead to?

A) Blindness and kidney failure
B) Cardiovascular and neurological damage
C) Liver cirrhosis and lung disease
D) Chronic joint pain and skin ulcers

A

Correct Answer: B) Cardiovascular and neurological damage

Explanation: If left untreated, tertiary syphilis can lead to severe complications, including cardiovascular and neurological damage, which can be life-threatening.

41
Q

What is the primary purpose of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?

A) To detect the presence of proteins in a sample
B) To amplify specific segments of DNA
C) To measure the level of RNA in a sample
D) To analyze the lipid content of a cell

A

B) To amplify specific segments of DNA

The primary purpose of PCR is to amplify specific segments of DNA, making billions of copies from a small initial sample

42
Q

Which enzyme is crucial for the PCR process?

A) RNA polymerase
B) Reverse transcriptase
C) Taq polymerase
D) DNA ligase

A

C) Taq polymerase

Taq polymerase is the enzyme used in PCR to synthesize new DNA strands by adding nucleotides to the primers bound to the template DNA.

43
Q

What is the main difference between RT-PCR and PCR?

A) RT-PCR uses RNA as the starting material, while PCR uses DNA
B) RT-PCR amplifies proteins, while PCR amplifies DNA
C) RT-PCR is slower than PCR
D) RT-PCR is only used for bacterial DNA, while PCR is used for viral DNA

A

RT-PCR uses RNA as the starting material, while PCR uses DNA

RT-PCR (Reverse Transcription PCR) starts with RNA, converting it into DNA with the enzyme reverse transcriptase before amplifying it, whereas PCR starts directly with DNA.

44
Q

Which of the following describes real-time PCR (qPCR)?

A) A technique that visualizes DNA copies as they are made, allowing for immediate data collection
B) A method that measures protein concentration in real-time
C) A process that analyzes DNA after all cycles are complete
D) A technique that can only be used for RNA amplification

A

A) A technique that visualizes DNA copies as they are made, allowing for immediate data collection

Real-time PCR (qPCR) allows for the visualization of DNA copies as they are made, providing immediate data on the quantity of DNA present in the sample

45
Q

What is the purpose of the annealing step in PCR?

A) To separate the double-stranded DNA
B) To bind the primers to the target DNA sequence
C) To extend the DNA strand by adding nucleotides
D) To cool down the reaction to prevent DNA degradation

A

B) To bind the primers to the target DNA sequence

During the annealing step in PCR, the temperature is lowered to allow the primers to bind (anneal) to their complementary sequences on the target DNA.

46
Q

What does FACS stand for?

A) Fluorescence Activated Cell Sorting
B) Fluorescence Antibody Cell Staining
C) Fluorescent Antigen Cytometry System
D) Fluorometric Assay for Cell Sorting

A

A) Fluorescence Activated Cell Sorting

47
Q

What is the primary purpose of FACS in cell analysis?

A) To count and sort cells based on their size
B) To measure the DNA content of cells
C) To count and sort cells based on their fluorescence properties
D) To measure protein concentrations in cell lysates

A

C) To count and sort cells based on their fluorescence properties

48
Q

In FACS, how are cells labeled for sorting?

A) With radioactive markers
B) With fluorescently tagged antibodies
C) With magnetic beads
D) With colored dyes

A

B) With fluorescently tagged antibodies

Cells are labeled for sorting in FACS using fluorescently tagged antibodies that bind to specific antigens on the cell surface, allowing for their detection and sortin

49
Q

What does the Plaque Reduction Neutralization Test (PRNT) measure?

A) The number of viral plaques formed in cell culture
B) The ability of a patient’s serum to neutralize a virus
C) The concentration of antibodies in a blood sample
D) The rate of cell death in a viral assay

A

B) The ability of a patient’s serum to neutralize a virus

PRNT measures the ability of a patient’s serum to neutralize a virus by reducing the number of viral plaques formed in a cell culture.

50
Q

How is the effectiveness of a neutralizing antibody determined in a PRNT?

A) By the color change in the assay
B) By the reduction in the number of plaques formed
C) By the increase in fluorescence intensity
D) By the aggregation of viral particles

A

B) By the reduction in the number of plaques formed

51
Q

Which Streptococcus species is primarily associated with causing strep throat?

A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Streptococcus agalactiae
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Streptococcus mutans

A

C) Streptococcus pyogenes

Streptococcus pyogenes is the bacterium primarily responsible for causing strep throat. Streptococcus pneumoniae is associated with pneumonia and other respiratory infections.

52
Q

What type of hemolysis is exhibited by Streptococcus agalactiae (GBS)?

A) Alpha-hemolysis
B) Beta-hemolysis
C) Gamma-hemolysis
D) No hemolysis

A

B) Beta-hemolysis

Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus) exhibits beta-hemolysis, which is characterized by a clear zone around the colonies on blood agar due to the complete lysis of red blood cells.

53
Q

Which Streptococcus species is commonly associated with neonatal infections?

A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Streptococcus agalactiae
D) Streptococcus mutans

A

C) Streptococcus agalactiae

: Streptococcus agalactiae is commonly associated with neonatal infections, including sepsis, pneumonia, and meningitis in newborns.

54
Q

What type of vaccine is the pneumococcal vaccine?

A) Live attenuated vaccine
B) Inactivated (killed) vaccine
C) Subunit vaccine
D) Toxoid vaccine

A

C) Subunit vaccine

The pneumococcal vaccine is a subunit vaccine that contains purified components of the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae, which stimulate the immune system without containing live bacteria.

55
Q

Who is the pneumococcal vaccine primarily recommended for?

A) Children aged 2-23 months and adults over 65 years old
B) Only adults over 65 years old
C) Only children under 5 years old
D) Anyone over 18 years old, regardless of health status

A

A) Children aged 2-23 months and adults over 65 years old

56
Q

Which bacterium is responsible for causing Lyme disease?

A) Borrelia burgdorferi
B) Treponema pallidum
C) Yersinia pestis
D) Brucella abortus

A

A) Borrelia burgdorferi

Lyme disease is caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black-legged ticks (deer ticks). Yersinia pestis causes the plague.

57
Q

Which Brucella species is most commonly associated with infections in cattle?

A

Brucella abortus

58
Q

Which of the following is a zoonotic disease transmitted by direct contact with contaminated soil and water?

A) Leptospirosis
B) Lyme disease
C) Tuberculosis
D) Brucellosis

A

A: leptospirosis

Explanation: Leptospirosis is a zoonotic disease transmitted by direct contact with contaminated soil or water, especially in areas where infected animals are present. Tuberculosis is primarily spread through respiratory droplets, not direct contact with soil and water.

59
Q

Which type of ELISA is most commonly used to detect the presence of antibodies in a patient’s serum?

A

B) Indirect ELISA

59
Q

Which of the following best describes the ELISA technique?

A) A method for amplifying DNA
B) A rapid test for detecting specific proteins or antibodies using an enzyme-linked antibody
C) A technique for separating proteins based on their charge
D) A method for measuring blood oxygen levels

A

B) A rapid test for detecting specific proteins or antibodies using an enzyme-linked antibody

ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) is a technique used to detect specific proteins or antibodies in a sample using an enzyme-linked antibody that produces a measurable signal, often a color change.

60
Q

Which type of antigen is typically used in an agglutination test?

A

A) Soluble antigen

Agglutination tests typically use particulate antigens, such as cells (e.g., red blood cells) or latex beads, which can clump together when antibodies bind to their surface antigens.

61
Q

What is the main advantage of using a sandwich ELISA

A

) It allows for the detection of small amounts of antigen in a sample

62
Q

In a competitive ELISA, what happens to the signal intensity as the concentration of the antigen in the sample increases?

A

The signal intensity decreases

63
Q

Which of the following Streptococcus species is known for causing dental caries (tooth decay)?

A

C) Streptococcus mutans

64
Q

What type of hemolysis does Streptococcus pneumoniae exhibit on blood agar?

A

A) Alpha-hemolysis

“green” lysis of red blood cells on blood agar.

65
Q

What type of hemolysis does Streptococcus pyogenes exhibit on blood agar?

A

Beta-hemolysis

66
Q

What is the characteristic symptom of cholera?

A

“Rice water” diarrhea leading to severe dehydration

67
Q

Which of the following is a common complication of untreated typhoid fever?

A

B) Intestinal perforation

Untreated typhoid fever can lead to serious complications, including intestinal perforation, which can cause peritonitis, a life-threatening infection of the abdominal cavity. Chronic cough is not typically associated with typhoid fever.

68
Q

Which antibiotic is commonly used to treat gonorrhea?

A

Ceftriaxone

69
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of septicemic plague?

A

A) Skin turning black (gangrene

70
Q

What is the primary purpose of a radial immunodiffusion assay (Mancini method)?

A

To determine how much antigen is present in a sample

71
Q
A

Microbio (8 decks)

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