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Quiz 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Fire assaying is considered
a. Volumetric b. Gasometric C. Gravimetric d. Wet method

A

C

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2
Q

It is used to separate Au from Ag.
a. sodium cyanide b. Nitric acid C. Silica d. Ferrosilicon

A

b

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3
Q

Used in commercial recovery of Au and Ag from their ore.
a. Sodium chloride b. Sodium cyanide C. aqua regia d. HCI

A

b

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4
Q

A jaw crusher is a crusher.
a. Primary b. Secondary C. Tertiary d. Fourth stage

A

a

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5
Q

The most common method of concentrating chromite ores.
a. Classifying b. Elutriation C. Jigging d. Sluicing

A

C

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6
Q

The process of separating the ore minerals from the gangue
minerals.
a. Ore dressing b. Extractive metallurgy C. Milling d. Leaching

A

a

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7
Q

An active, readily fusible, acid flux with a chemical formula of
Na2B4O7.1
a. Litharge b. Borax C. Argols d. Cryolite

A

b

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8
Q

It contains precious metals like Au and Ag; also contains 35-65%
Cu.
a. Matte b. Slag C. Blister Cu d. Ingot

A

a

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9
Q

The process of heating to an elevated temperature without fusing
a metal or metallic compounds in contact with oxygen, water
vapors, etc.
a. Smelting b. Converting C. roasting d. Tempering

A

C

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10
Q

It contains 40-50 kg/m3 of Cu, 180-200 kg/m3 of H2SO4, bright-
ening, and smoothing agents.
a. Blister Cu b. Anode impurities C. Matte d. Electrolyte

A

d

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11
Q

An isolated ore body, or an enrichment of limited vertical and
horizontal extent in a massive, bedded or vein deposit.
a. Massive b. Tabular C. Lenticular or Pocket d. Stringer.

A

C

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12
Q

Dome salt is classified as:
a. Placer deposit b. Massive deposit C. Bedded deposit d. Vein type

A

a

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13
Q

Sediments and other accumulations of solid particles produced
by the mechanical and/or chemical disintegration of rocks, and
usually having a low cohesive strength and very low compressive
strength.
a. Detritus b. colloids C. humus d. loam

A

a

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14
Q

The ferruginous deposit filling the upper part of some mineral
veins forming a superficial cover over masses of pyrite. It consists
mainly of hydrated iron oxide and has resulted from the removal
of sulfur as well as the copper or other sulfides originally present.
a. Country rock b. Gossan C. Limonite d. Ore shoot

A

b

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15
Q

It is not a mineral but an aggregate of minerals and other colloidal
substances.
a. Quicksand b. Diatoms C. Clay d. Talus

A

C

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16
Q

A colorless, translucent to transparent variety that occurs mainly
in low temperature veins in gneisses and schists.
a. Sienna b. Adularia C. Oligoclase d. Sanidine

A

b

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17
Q

he top of terminal edge of the vein on the surface or its nearest
point to the surface.
a. Aureole b. Tip C. Acme d. Apex

A

d

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18
Q

Major structural and sedimentation unit of the crust of the earth.
They consist of elongated basins, which become filled with very
great thickness.
a. Geosyncline b. Eugeosyncline C. Geanticline d. Lithosphere

A

a

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19
Q

The coarse sandstone with very angular fragments. It was prob-
ably deposited at the mouth of last flowing river.
a. Graywacke b. Grit C. Quartzite d. Arkose

A

b

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20
Q

The smooth, curved fracture resembling the interior surface of a
shell. This is most commonly observed in such substances as
glass and quartz.
a. Conchoidal Fracture C. Hackly fracture

A

a

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21
Q

The term used to describe the tenacity of minerals in which they
can be cut into thin shavings with a knife.
a. Brittle b. Malleable C. Sectile d. Ductile

A

C

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22
Q

It is a mass formed by deposition of material about a nucleus.
Some of these are roughly spherical, whereas others assume a
great variety of shapes.
a. Geode b. Concretion C. Stalactite d. Colloform

A

b

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23
Q

Which of the following mineral habits and aggregates best de-
scribe the appearance of Mica?
a. Radiating and globular C. Fibrous and reticulated
b. Mamillary and botryoidal d. Foliated and lamellar

A

d

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24
Q

Today’s largest diamond producer worldwide.
a Western Mining Corp. b. Placer Dome, Inc. C. De Beers d.
Newmont

A

C

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25
Q

A term used to describe a mineral that does not vary in color
because of certain light-absorbing atoms that form an essential
part of its make-up.
a. Opaque b. Transparent C. Idiochromatic d. Mo

A

C

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26
Q

Fragments in sedimentary rocks that originally formed part of the
parent rocks.
a. Detritals b. Clasts C. Fragments d. Inclusion

A

b

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27
Q

A rock that forms from fossilized remains of plants and animals.
a. Petrified wood C. fossilized rock

A

C

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28
Q

The micro-quantitative analysis of soil and water samples.
a. Radiometric measurements C. X-ray analysis
b. Geochemistry d. Spectrographic analysis

A

b

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29
Q

It applies knowledge of genesis and occurrence of mineral
deposits, structural mapping and mineralogical and petrography
analyses to discover, define, and appraise mineral prospects.
a. Geological prospecting C. Appraisal
b. Assessment d. Investigation

A

a

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30
Q

A basic drainage pattern forming branching like trees.
a. Trellis C. Dendritic
b. Radial d. Rectangular

A

C

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31
Q

A basic drainage pattern forming ring-like tributaries intercepting
radial streams.
a. Annular b. Rectangular C. Parallel d. Trellis

A

a

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32
Q

A mineral deposit of tabular form lying horizontally or sub-hori-
zontally and is commonly parallel to stratification of the enclosing
rocks.
a. Porphyry deposit b. Massive deposit C. Bedded deposit d. Coal
seam

A

C

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33
Q

A mineralized zone having a more or less regular development
in length, width, and depth to give it a tabular form and commonly
inclined at a considerable angle to the horizontal.
a. Bonanza b. Vein C. Dike d. Gossan

A

b

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34
Q

Siliceous deposit of a sedimentary nature whose main constituent
is redistributed silica.
a. Siliceous ore b. Silica sand C. Slag d. Chert

A

d

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35
Q

infilling of Vesicles is called:
a. Veinlet b. Inquartz filling C. Amygdaloidal d. Karts

A

C

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36
Q

Rock riddled with air bubbles is termed;
a. Spongy b. Porous C. Vesicular d. Pumiceous

A

C

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37
Q

It means fragmentary and fractured appearance of constituents.
a. Brecciaed b. Clastic C. Mosaic d. Jagged

A

b

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38
Q

The chronological order in the sequence of mineral deposition.
a. Zoning b. Paragenesis C. Sorting d. Gradation

A

b

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39
Q

A method of discovery, normally limited to visual examination o
either the exposure (outcrop) of the deposit of the loose fragments
(floats) that have weathered away from the outcrop.
a. Direct b. Indirect C. Grasshopper d. Surface

A

a

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40
Q

A low-magnesium limestone containing clay.
a. Lime b. Portland cement C. cement rock d. Phosphate rock

A

C

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41
Q

It is a large and well-shaped crystal.
a. Geode b. Phenocryst C. Quartz d. Pegmatite

A

b

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42
Q

The solid petroleum that occurs as a component of shale.
a. Tar b. Kerosene C. Kerogene d. Coal

A

C

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43
Q

It is a liquid, very viscous hydrocarbon not extractable from oil
wells.
a. Petroleum b. Kerosene C. Crude oil d. Tar

A

d

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44
Q

It is the accumulated excreta and remains of birds and bats. It is
an important source of phosphorous and nitrogen.
a. Dolomite b. Guano C. Peat d. Compost

A

b

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45
Q

The gold largest producer in the Philippines nowadays.
a. Manila Mining Corporation C. Benguet Corporation (BAGO)
b. Philex Mining Corporation (Padcal) d. Philex Gold Philippines
(Palawan)

A

b

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46
Q

A reserve division on which sufficient technical and economic
studies have been carried out to demonstrate that it can justify
extraction at the time of the determination and under specified
economic conditions.
a. b. C. Indicated reserve d. Proven ore reserve

A

d

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47
Q

METALLURGY 001: Quantitative determination in which metal or
metals are separated from impurities by fusion processes and
weighed in order to determine the metal content.

A

fire assaying

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48
Q

METALLURGY 002: Selective dissolution of silver and other base
metals from dore using dilute nitric acid solution leaving a dull gold
flake.

A

parting

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49
Q

METALLURGY 003: Added as a source of lead.

A

litharge

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50
Q

METALLURGY 004: Weight of lead in grams prevented from being
reduced by 1 gram of a substance.

A

oxidizing power

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51
Q

METALLURGY 005: Powerful basic flux and by far the cheap-
est one available. It melts at 852 degrees centigrade. It is often
charged equal to the weight of the ore sample.

A

sodium carbonate

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52
Q

METALLURGY 024: The sample for fire assaying is crushed and
pulverized to attain at least mesh.

A

minus 100

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53
Q

METALLURGY 023: This acid causes spattering during dilution
with hot liquid.

A

sulfuric acid

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54
Q

METALLURGY 022: It is caused by vigorous expulsion of oxygen
on rapid solidification of precious metal button. This does no harm
unless particles of the bead are completely ejected or unbroken
off in cleaning.

A

sprouting

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55
Q

METALLURGY 021 In parting where selective dissolution of silver
and other base metals in the dore bead using dilute HNO3 has an
acid concentration of (acid to water ratio).

A

1:0.5-1:1

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56
Q

METALLURGY 020: The ratio of silver gold in the dore that causes
gold to break up.

A

6:01

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57
Q

METALLURGY 019: The best ration of silver to gold in dore bead
is the optimum range of Ag:Au.

A

2:1-3:1

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58
Q

METALLURGY 018: The formation of thick concentric rings of PbO
that further stop oxidation of cupellation.

A

freezing

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59
Q

METALLURGY 017: One assay ton is g.

A

29.199 grams

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60
Q

METALLURGY 016: Something that converts compounds in-
fusible at a certain temperature into others which melts at this
temperature.

A

flux

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61
Q

METALLURGY 015: Something that has strong affinity for sulfur
and which is therefore capable of separating it from some of its
substance.

A

desulfurizing agent

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62
Q

METALLURGY 014: Ores having no oxidizing nor reducing power.

A

neutral ores

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63
Q

METALLURGY 013: RO SiO2 is a slag.

A

bisilicate

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64
Q

METALLURGY 012: 4RO 3SiO2 is a slag.

A

sesquisilicate

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65
Q

METALLURGY 011: An artificial sulphide of ore or more of the
metals most often encountered in the niter fusion of sulphide ore
when the charge is too acidic.

A

matte

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66
Q

METALLURGY 010: Cupellation temperature ranges from

A

850-1000 degrees centigrade

67
Q

METALLURGY 009: The molten charge is poured in an inverted
cone called

A

cast iron mold

68
Q

METALLURGY 008: Fusion is carried out at temperature.

A

1000-1200 degrees centigrade

69
Q

METALLURGY 007: A fusible compound of earthy or metallic
oxides and silica and other acid constituents.

A

slag

70
Q

METALLURGY 006: Active readily fusible, acid flux. It is often used
as a cover for crucible fusion.

A

borax

71
Q

(1) hich of the following is an important characteristic of chemical
grade chromite.
a. all of these b. low silica C. high Cr:Fe ratio d. high alumina e.
lumpy

A

C

72
Q

(1) In gyratory crusher, what do you call the moving or gyrating
component of the crusher.
a. pitman b. rocker arm C. mantle d. cone head

A

d

73
Q

(1) which of the following is a chemical derivative product of
chemical grade chromite and is base material in the manufacture
of other value added chrome-base industrial product.
a. antasic acid b. nitric acid C. sulfuric acid d. chromic acid e. boric
acid

A

d

74
Q

(1) Gold is widely use in which of the following industries?
a. forestry b. agro industry C. transportation industry d. electron-
ic/microchips industry a. aqua industry

A

d

75
Q

(1) In recovering gold from an amalgam, what do you call the
process of precipitating the mercury to free the gold then later
condensing the same to recover the mercury for possible re-use?
a. titration b. cupelation C. annealing d. assaying e. retorting

A

e

76
Q

(1) in a conventional belt conveyor arrangement, drive motors are
often manufactured at high RPM. This is translated to a speed
optimum for material belt conveyance by which of the following equipment?
a. idler b. gear box C. clutch d. sprocket segment

A

b

77
Q

(1) In a laboratory test of effluent samples, ferrous sulfate is
precipitated into ferric hydroxide after hydrolysis. The resulting
reaction also produces sulfuric acid (H2SO4). Once H2SO4 is
made to react with quick lime (CaO), it produces the following
product:
a. no reaction b. all of these C. Ca2SO3 + 2H2O + O2 d. CaSO4
+ H2O e. CaS + 2H2O

A

d

78
Q

(1) In fire assaying, which of the following is an active and readily
fusible acid flux often used as a cover for fusion in crucibles or
furnace vats?
a. lead b. litharge C. borax d. gypsum e. silica

A

C

79
Q

(1) in fire assaying the bead sometimes contains very little silver
to part and therefore it is necessary to alloy it with more silver.
What do you call this process?
a. inquartation b. cupelation C. salting d. fusion e. dissolution

A

a

80
Q

(1) What is the product when the metallurgical chromite is smelt-
ed?
a. chromic salts b. none of these C. ferrosilicon d. ferrochrome e.
ferromanganese

A

d

81
Q

(1) Which of the following refers to the process of reducing rocks
and or minerals to certain desired size or sizes where optimum
mineral liberation is attained?
a. grinding b. comminution C. crushing d. blasting e. none of these

A

b

82
Q

(1) Which of the following grinding equipment uses various steel
materials and hard rocks of assorted sizes and shapes such
as pre-cut drill steels or rods, scrap iron, etc as main grinding
medium?
a. ball mill b. SAG mill C. multi-rod mill d. autogenous mill e. pebble
mill

A

e

83
Q

(1) What do you call the process of taking a small portion of a body
as representative of a larger volume and is done in a regular and
mechanical manner as possible.
a. dilution b. salting C. ore dressing d. comminution e. sampling

A

e

84
Q

(1) Which of the following gold recovery processes refers to the
dissolution of gold in mercury?
a. leaching b. amalgamation C. mercurization d. retorting

A

b

85
Q

(1) Which of the following refers to the process of recovering
economic metals like copper and gold from low grade ores by
treating them with chemicals at controlled pH to dissolve the
subject metals and later precipitate the same with other agents.
a. electrolysis b. heavy media separation C. leaching d. gravity
separation e. titration

A

C

86
Q

(1) In the principle of flotation, what do you call the reagents that
are used to create vigorous effervescence or repellant bubbles in
the slurry?
a. depressants b. oxidants C. sulfidants d. frothers e. silicants

A

d

87
Q

(1) In conventional screw classifier, what do you call the overflow
product?
a. middling b. none of these C. slimes d. undersize e. oversize

A

C

88
Q

(1) Copper oxides cannot be recovered by flotation without prior
subjecting them to which of the following?
a. leaching b. cyanidation C. sulfidization d. oxidation e. amalga-
mation

A

C

89
Q

(1) Which of the following is the product of smelting iron ores with
high charge of pyrolusite? a. ferro-silicon b. ferro-chrome C. ferro-alloy d. none of these e.ferro-manganese

A

e

90
Q

(1) Which of the following elements is strategic and beneficial in
flash smelting process due to its contribution in reducing energy
consumption in the furnace. This element produces heat during
smelting.
a. manganese b. calcium C. copper d. silicon e. sulfur

A

e

91
Q

(1) In the recovery of gold through counter current-decantation
processor CCD, what is the best an most economical precipitating
agent of gold from the pregnant solution using the Merril Crowe
Technology.
a. saw dust b. silver dust C. zinc dust d. silca dust e. mercury

A

C

92
Q

(1) In the operation high capacity hydrocyclones in closed circuit
with large ball mills, which of the following is the overflow product
from the hydrocyclone? This product is pumped to the flotation
banks for mineral recovery.
a. waste material b. fine materials or slimes C. coarse materials d.
middlings e. concentrate

A

b

93
Q

(1) In dewatering of mineral concentrates, which of the following
filter equipment is fitted with a number of rotating circular plate-like
filter elements wrapped with filter cloths. These are connected to
a common vacuum pump that suctions water as the rotating filter
plates are immersed in a thickened concentrate pulp?
a. disc filter b. none of these C. drum filter d. belt filter e. all of these

A

a

94
Q

(1) Why there is a need to pelletize mineral concentrates before
charging the same into a blast furnace?
a. lesser use of fluxing agents b. faster fusion C. prevent fine
concentrates from being blown off by strong air flow in the surface
d. lower energy consumption e. longer life of furnace linings

A

C

95
Q

(1) the previously uncontrolled mill tailing disposal of Diwalwal
gold rush area has environmentally damaged the downstream
farmlands of Compostela Valley due to which of the following
reasons?
a. all of these b. high cyanide content C. high mercury content d.
siltation e. lack of effective tailings impoundment system

A

a

96
Q

(1) In a jaw crusher, what do you call that part that is stationary
but is in direct contact with the material to be crushed?
a. jaw plate b. cheek plate C. movable jaw d. fixed jaw

A

d

97
Q

(1) What do you call the process of separating minerals by taking
advantages of their gravity differentials thru continuous shaking
motion whereby the heavier materials (usually economic miner-
als) are thrown or pushed further forward while the lighter ones
(usually waste materials) are left behind and carried down by
water acting as separation medium. The forward shaking motion
is slower that the reverse motion.
a. heavy media separation
b. tabling
C. counter current decantation
d. leaching

A

b

98
Q

(1) In a screw classifier arrangement, what do you call the
screw-like mechanism that elevates the sand from the slimes
thereby affecting separation?
a. impeller b. apex C. spout d. flight e. nozzle

A

d

99
Q

(1) Which of the following equipment is traditionally used in wash-
ing manufactured sand from the crushing plants? It also separates
the washed sand from waste water containing slimes?
a. sand classifier b. trammel C. shaking table d. Reichert Spiral e.
scrubber

A

a

100
Q

(1) Which of the following components of chemical grade chromite
must be kept as low as possible?
a. AI2O3 b. Cr:Fe ratio C. MgO d. SiO2 e. Galena

A

d

101
Q

(1) What mineral is currently produced by Heritage Resources and
Mining Corp. at its Homonhon Mine in Eastern Samar?
a.refractory chromite b. chemical grade chromite C. none of these
d. nickel laterite e. metallurgical grade chromite

A

b

102
Q

(1) Which of the following reagents is best used in dissolving gold
from finely ground ores through leaching?
a. sulfuric acid b. chromic acid C. phosphoric acid d. cyanide e.
boric acid

A

d

103
Q

(1) Which of the following smelting process is currently being used
by PASAR in smelting copper concentrates.
a. none of these b. hydro-smelting process C. bio-smelting process
d. aero-smelting process e. flash-smelting process

A

e

104
Q

(1) In jaw crusher arrangement, what do you call the equip-
ment that removes small rocks that need not be crushed? The
equipment also increases crusher output by segregating those
materials that are already smaller in size than the desired crusher
product?
a. scalper b. plate feeder C. gear feeder d. apron feeder

A

a

105
Q

(1) In producing metallurgical grade chromite, which of the follow-
ing must be kept as high as possible?
a. AI2O3 b. Cr:Fe ratio C. MgO d. SiO2 e. Fe2O3

A

b

106
Q

(1) Which of the following is an economic use of chemical grade
chromite ores?
a. rubber hardener b. wood coloring C. food coloring d. fertilizer e.
paint pigment

A

e

107
Q

(1) In a conventional primary crusher installation, what do you
call the major component that feed the crusher constantly using a
continuous chain with feeder pads similar to the undercarriage of
crawler dozers?
a. propulsion feeder b. plate feeder C. pneumatic feeder d. pan
feeder e. apron feeder

A

e

108
Q

(1) In crushing plant operations, what do you call that screen
equipment that has two separate products?
a. double deck screen b. triple deck screen C. single deck screen
d. none of these

A

C

109
Q

(1) Which of the following is one of the many economic uses of
refractory chromite?
a. textile dyestuff b. wood preservatives C. matches d. leather
tanning agents e. foundry moulds

A

e

110
Q

(1) What do you call the process of collecting the copper con-
centrates or mill tailings in huge circular reservoirs or tanks and
allowing the overflow and recovery of excess water for recycling at
the same time increasing the density of the slurry to a level ideal
for filtering or pumping?
a. counter current decantation process (CCD) b. drying C. recycling
d. thickening

A

d

111
Q

(1) In conventional conveyor installation, what do you call that
component where the electric motor is attached?
a. carrier pulley b. idler pulley C. tail pulley d. drive pulley

A

d

112
Q

(1) Which of the following minerals used to manufacture matches?
a. metallurgical chromite b. none of these C. chemical grade
chromite d. refractory chromite e. all of these

A

C

113
Q

(1) How many products does a triple deck vibrating screen pro-
duce? a. three products b. five products C. two products d. one product e.
four products

A

e

114
Q

In sampling of pulp stream, the following statements are correct
except:
a.Material is sampled at the point of free fall discharge
b.Cutter should cut parallel to the stream
c.Cutter covers the whole stream
d.Cutter moves at constant speed

A

b

115
Q

In the method of tailing disposal, the dam is raised. This has the
advantage of requiring smaller volumes of sand fill to raise crest to
any given height. The dam can be raised more quickly and there
is more trouble keeping it ahead of the tailings pond during the
early stages of construction.
a. Upstream method
b.Centerline method
c.Downstream method
d.Rightstream method
e.Leftstream method

A

b

116
Q

Sedimentation produces 55-65% up to 80% solids by weight.
Filtration produces 80-90% solids. Thermal drying produces:
a.About 95% solids by weight
b.90-100% solids by weight
c.92-97% solids by weight
d.95-100% by weight
e.exactly 1005 solids by weight

A

a

117
Q

In fire assaying, this is usually blue-gray in color nearing galena
in composition and is very brittle.
a. Dore
b.Speiss
c.Slag
d.Pb button
e.Matte

A

e

118
Q

Bone ash cupel is made from the calcitation of animal bones
characterized by the presence of organic matter and carbonates,
nitrates, etc. which can decompose at cupellation temperature
and is undesirable because of the evolution of gases causing:
a.Sprouting
b.Splitting
c.Breakage
d.Spattering
e.Spitting

A

e

119
Q

The following are reducing agents in fire assaying except:
a.Cream of tartart
b.Flour
c.Charcoal
d.Iron
e.Cryolite

A

e

120
Q

Given the screen efficiency equation: E=(10,000u)/(UF), where
U=undersize; F=feed; and u=% undersize in feed, is it possible to
have 100% efficiency?
a.True
b.False

A

b

121
Q

In fusion process in fire assaying, why do we require a certain
temperature of the furnace during the stage assaying samples for
Au determination.
.Because this is the maximum temperature of the furnace
b.Because of the boiling point of the flux
c.Because of the boiling point of CU, Fe, Pb, Zn, Te, and Ag
d.Because of the boilih point of Au

A

d

122
Q

In fire assaying, we have the color scale of temperature in the
chamber of the furnace. What is the estimated temperature of the
furnace if it is observed as orange color in the chamber?
a.850 deg C
b.800 deg C
c.950 deg C
d.900 deg C

A

d

123
Q

In preparing beads before adapting acids, they are flattened on
an anvil and rolled out to a thickness desired and to prevent it from
crushing when annealing them. What is the desired thickness of
the beads?
a.0.0001 inch
b.0.0015 inch
c.0.001 inch
d.0.01 inch

A

d

124
Q

It originated from the custom of the assayers of adding silver until
the gold was about a fraction of the whole. What ratio is silver to
gold do they consider to be necessary for parting? a.2Ag.2Au
b.3Au.1Ag
c.3Au.2Ag
d.3Ag.1Au

A

d

125
Q

According to their oxidizing or reducing character in the crucible
assay, classify the following ores: Siliceous, oxide and carbonate
ore, ore containing no sulphides, arsenides, antimonides, tel-
lurides
a.Ores having reducing agent
b.Ores having reducing agent
c.High sulphide ores
d.Natural ores

A

d

126
Q

In scorification, the color of the slags resulting from crucible as-
says is often indicative of the metal present. What is the metal
present if the slags is shaded with green color?
a. Copper
b.Cobalt
c.Zinc
d.Fe

A

d

127
Q

What is the most serious objection in scorification process with
regards to losses?
.Slagging
b.pouring
c.Oxidizing
d.Spitting

A

d

128
Q

What is the solution after reaction of the dore and nitric acid?
a.Acid solution
b.Silver solution
c.Silver Chloride solution
d.Silver nitrate solution

A

d

129
Q

Assayers add litharge to the scorification charge especially solu-
tion with pyritic ores. On heating, the litharge is reduced to what
metal while the sulphur of the pyrite being oxidized.
a.Metallic iron
b.Metallic copper
c.metallic zinc
d.metallic lead

A

d

130
Q

The lead button in scorification process in fire assaying should
weigh from 27 to 32 gms. If it is much smaller than this, there is a
danger of a loss of what due to oxidation, especially when the ore
is rich in: a.Gold
b.Copper
c.Iron
d.Silver

A

d

131
Q

the scorifier slag should be homogenous and glassy. If non-ho-
mogenous, it probably contains what?
a.uncooked reagent b.undissolved litharge
c.unreacted metals
.undecomposed ore

A

di

132
Q

Ores containing pyrite require what during the roasting period than
those containing galena.
a.more flux
b.more silver in quartz
c.higher concentration of silver solution
d.higher temperature

A

d

133
Q

Gay-lusaac or salt titration is the method used for the accurate
determination of silver in dore bullion. What do assayers term this
method?
a.Refiner’s method
b.Smelter’s method
c.Crucible method
d.Mint method

A

d

134
Q

.In bullion assaying, if the copper is not all dissolved particularly with very impure bullion, what will this method may give? a.high results
b.low silver results
c.high gold results
d.high silver results

A

d

135
Q

Bullion assayer always insert check samples on their batch of
gold drilled for Au and Ag determinations. This is to correct the
inevitable losses in cupelling as well as for any other errors on the
process. How do the bullion assayer term this check sample? a.good sample
b.model sample
c.guide sample
d.proof center sample

A

d

136
Q

What have large variety of method for assaying of gold and silver
bearing in solutions. What do you call this method, precipitation by lead and zinc acetate?
a.Lead tray method
b.Zinc dust method
c.William H. Barton method
d.Alfred Chiddey method

A

d

137
Q

In fire assaying, if the ore is an oxide and contains copper what
material will the fire assayer add to the charge to prevent the
copper from entering the button?
a.soda ash
b.borax
c.flour
d.sulfur

A

d

138
Q

What mineral will be input to the muffle of the furnace to ensure
reducing conditions during fusion process? a.borax
b.nails
c.bone ash
d.coal

A

d

139
Q

the platinum metals themselves are much more difficult to detect,
separate and determine than gold and silver. Platinum was first
discovered in Columbia in the middle of the 18th century where it was known by the native as:
a. Rhodite
b.Metal of ural mountain
c.Crude platinum
d.Oro Blanco

A

d

140
Q

.A fire assayer uses cover to his sample with flux for fusion to
exclude the air and to wash the sides of the crucible and prevent
small particles of lead from adhering thereto. It melts at 819 deg
C. What is the reagent the fire assayer uses as cover?
a.lead oxide
b.bone ash
c.silver nitrate
d.sodium chloride

A

d

141
Q

.in the cupellation process of fire assaying, a fire assayer some-
times experience after carrying out this process that the upper
surface of a bead appears to be frosted. What does this indicate?
.the presence of copper
b.the presence of bismuth
c.the presence of antimony
d.the presence of tellurides

A

d

142
Q

In parting process, what does it mean of the black stain occurring
in parting cups after heating the metallic silver to silver nitrate
solution?
a.incomplete parting
b.wrong ratio of parting acid
c.insufficient parting acid
d.insufficient washing

A

d

143
Q

.A rhombohedral crystal system has:
b.3 axes equal; 3 axes with equal inclination but less than 90 deg

A

b

144
Q

The most common method used in gold recovery in the Philip-
pines is:
a.Merill-crowe
b.CIL
c.CIP
d.CIS

A

C

145
Q

One of these mineral iron is not considered a valuable mineral:
a.hematite
b.limonite
c.magnetite
d.siderite

A

di

146
Q

Process used in recovering Au and Ag in pregnant solution for
heap leaching operation:
a.CIL
b.CIP
c.CIS
d.in-situ leaching

A

C

147
Q

One of these is not a parameter in flotation process:
a.percent solid
b.flotation time
c.reagent dosage
d.settling ratio

A

d

148
Q

Loaded carbon is a strong:
a.oxidizing agent
b.sulfurizing agent
c.reducing agent
d.flux

A

C

149
Q

Remaining silica is:
a.silica in the ore
b.unreacted silica c.silica to be deducted
d.silica content of the charge less calculated basilica equivalent

A

d

150
Q
  1. Reducinng power is
    a.gr. Pb reduced for PbO/gr
    b.gr. PbO produced for Pb/gr
    c.gr. Au metalized/gr.
    d.gr. Au&Ag converted to metal/gr
A

a

151
Q
  1. The preferred process for recovering gold in solutions when
    gold assays are above 10ppm.
    a.carbon adsorption
    b.electroactions
    c.electrocoprecipitation
    d.merril-crowe
A

d

152
Q

The process which is commonly referred to a merril-crowe precip-
itation after its pioneers:
a.gold cementation on iron
b.zinc plating
c.zinc cementation
d.zinc in pulp
e. none

A

C

153
Q

The chremosorptional fixation of collector reagents on mineral
results to
a.hydrofobisation
b.hydrophobiarization
c.hydrosurfacing
d.hydroplaning
e none

A

a

154
Q

Degradation of cyanide at high temperature elution procedures
are due to oxygen and:
a.cyanidation
b.crystallization
c.hydrolysis
d.polymerization
e.none of the above

A

C

155
Q

One of the problems associated with AARL elution process has
been the occasional cementation of gold on the iron pipes, elution
vessel, heat exchangers, and pregnant solution tank. This is even
accelerated by the presence of chloride ions in the eluent. What
is the cause of this phenomenon?
a.Acetonitrile treatment
b.alcohol treatment
c.Consticization
d.Roasting
e.none of the above

A

e

156
Q

Gold tellurides are proven to be unreactive to cyanides. It is
necessary to have pre-treatment before cyanidation. What is this
process?
a.Acetonitrile treatment
b.alcohol treatment
c.Consticization
d.Roasting

A

d

157
Q

.Gold dissolution by cyanide requires the presence of
a.Oxygen
b.Carbon
c.lime
d.lron

A

a

158
Q

n solution, gold cyanide exists as:
Copolymer
b.lsomer c.Surfactant
d.Linear complex

A

d

159
Q

An elution procedure to remove gold from loaded carbon wherein
the quality of water used is not critical to the process.
a.AARL process
b.Micron gold elution process
c.ZADRA process
d.Duval elution process

A

C

160
Q

Recommended packing density for cathodes in pounds of steel
wool per cubic foot for electrowinning.
a.0.5 to 1.0
b.2 to 3
c.1.5 to 2.5
d.2.5 to 3

A

a

161
Q

Measures the resistance of solids to mechanical size reduction
a.mining index
b.breaking index
c.rock number
d.hardgrove grindability index

A

d

162
Q

A method used for evaluating the efficiency of carbon reactivation
a. equilibrium gold adsorption capacity constant
b.activity test
c.attrition resistance
d.ball pan hardness test

A

b

163
Q

The superficial velocity of the eluent through the electrowinning
cell to reduce the possibility of detachment of the plated gold from
the cathodes.
a.less than 50 cm/min
b.less than 56 cm/min
c.less than 100 cm/min
d.less than 105 cm/min

A

a

164
Q

A simple series of sequential leaches developed to elucidate the
deportment of gold in various matrices:
a. pressure leaching
b.in-situ leaching
c.bacterial oxidation
d.diagnostic leaching

A

d

z Metallurgy (8 decks)

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