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Quiz 3 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. It involves metallurgical processes intended to recover the desired metal either from the ore or from the concentrate.
    a. Physical metallurgy b. Pyrometallurgy C. Extractive metallurgy
    d. Ferrous metallurgy
A

C

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2
Q
  1. It includes extraction processes of metal values from the ore orconcentrate which are undertaken at high temperatures.
    a. Ore dressing b. Pyrometallurgy C. Smelting d. Converting
A

b

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3
Q
  1. Acid leaching of copper and gold cyanidation are examples of this group of metallurgical operations.
    a. Pyrometallurgy b. Electrowinning C. Mineral dressing d. Hydrometallurgy
A

d

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4
Q
  1. Reduction of iron oxides into metallic iron using carbon monoxide from partial combustion of carbon is an example of
    a. Converting b. smelting C. Fire assaying d. Refining
A

b

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5
Q
  1. A liquid formed at high temperature which consists of a mixture of metal oxide silicates
    a. melt b. slags C. Matte d. Calcine
A

b

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6
Q
  1. In smelting, slags acts as the of the impurities present in metal being smelted.
    a. Source b. Reducer C. Precipitant d. Collector
A

d

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7
Q
  1. These are materials where all volatiles have been removed by heating.
    a. Sinter b. Blister C. Dross d. Calcine
A

d

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8
Q
  1. Matte is a high temperature homogenous liquid solution of a mixture of
    a. Metal sulfides b. Metal oxides C. Arsenides d. Antimonides
A

a

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9
Q
  1. Spelter is impure produced by smelting process.
    a. Iron b. Copper C. Zinc d. Tin
A

C

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10
Q
  1. Fluxes are added to the material being smelted to form .
    a. Matte b. Slag C. Speiss d. Dross
A

b

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11
Q
  1. One effect of flux on the slag formed is to .
    a. Oxidize the desired metal C. Decrease the melting point b. Increase the melting point
    d. Increase viscosity
A

C

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12
Q
  1. In sintering, fines are agglomerated into lumps by heating until
    of the surfaces occurs.
    a. Partial fusion b. Partial Oxidation C. Complete Oxidation d.
    Complete fusion
A

a

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13
Q
  1. It is the product of an iron blast furnace.
    a. Wrought iron b. Pig iron C. Malleable iron d. Cast iron
A

b

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14
Q
  1. It is one of the main impurities in pig iron.
    a. Chromium b. Nickel C. Calcium d. Carbon
A

d

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15
Q
  1. It is the fuel in an iron blast furnace.
    a. Coal b. Limestone C. Coke d. Bunker Oil
A

C

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16
Q
  1. Coke is produced from coal by
    a. Flotation b. Comminution C. Solvent Extraction d. Destructive
    Distillation
A

d

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17
Q
  1. It occurs during the air blast in an iron blast furnace.
    a. Partial combustion of coke C. Partial oxidation of iron
    b. Complete combustion of coke d. Partial oxidation of impurities
A

a

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18
Q
  1. The process wherein air is blown through molten pig iron or
    matte where by sulfur and other impurities are removed
    from the melt.
    a. Smelting b. Converting C. Blowing d. Roasting
A

b

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19
Q
  1. It occurs during the blowing stage in a converting process.
    a. solidification of metal C. Solidification of impurities
    b. Reduction of metal d. Oxidation of impurities
A

d

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20
Q
  1. White metal is an Impure__produced in an intermediate stage
    of converting process.
    a. FeS2 b. PbS C. Cu2S d. ZnS
A

C

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21
Q
  1. It is impure copper produced in copper converting process.
    a. Sinter b. Clinker C. Blister d. Spelter
A

C

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22
Q
  1. It is a pig iron converting process.
    a. Bessemer process b. Merryl Crowe Process C. Furan Process
    d. Durville process
A

a

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23
Q
  1. PASAR uses smelting process in smelting copper concen-
    trates.
    a. Open Hearth b. Flash C. Kaldo d. Bessemer
A

b

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24
Q
  1. The end product of PASAR smelting process that goes to the
    refinery.
    a. Blister copper b. Cathode Copper C. Black Copper d. Anode
    Copper
A

d

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25
Q
  1. It is a major gaseous product of sulfide roasting.
    a. CO b. SiO2 C. CO2 d. SO2
A

d

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26
Q
  1. It is a product of sintering process.
    a. Tungsten Carbide Cutting Tips C. Bronze rivets
    b. Aluminum rivets d. Tool steel cutting tips
A

a

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27
Q
  1. A solution containing substantial amount of desired metal
    values.
    a. Barren Solution b. Solid Solution C. Pregnant Solution d. Aqua
    Regia
A

C

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28
Q
  1. Metallic gold and silver could be effectively dissolved in .
    a. NaCl Solution b. NaCn Solution c.NaHCO3 Solution d. NaCNS
    Solution
A

b

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29
Q
  1. Hydrometallurgical processes where solutions such as acids,
    bases or aqueous salts are used to dissolve the desired
    metal or mineral for eventual recovery.
    a. Leaching b. Electrowinning c.Precipitation d. Solvent Extraction
A

a

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30
Q
  1. In CIP, activated carbon is in contact with the cyanide solution
    , the leaching process.
    a. Before b. After C. During d. Intermediate
A

b

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31
Q
  1. In CIP, the material that effectively remove the cyanides of
    precious metals from the leach solution.
    a. Coal b. Charcoal C. Activated Carbon d. Coke
A

C

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32
Q
  1. In CIL, activated carbon is in contact with the cyanide solution
    the leaching process.
    a. Before b. After C. During d. Indeterminate
A

C

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33
Q
  1. Precious metal values can be recovered from loaded carbon
    by
    a. Smelting b. Converting C. Roasting d. Precipitation
A

a

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34
Q
  1. Precious metal values in clarified cyanide solution can be
    recovered by adding to the solution.
    a. Lead Dust b. Copper dust C. Iron dust d. Zinc dust
A

di

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35
Q
  1. In gold cyanidation, alkalinity is maintained above PH 10 to
    prevent of cyanide ion thus decreasing
    the cyanide concentration.
    a. Electrolysis b. Hydrolysis C. Pyrolysis d. Metamorphosis
A

b

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36
Q
  1. Hydrocyanic acid (HCN) gas that will be evolved from the cyanide solution if the proper alkalinity is not maintained during cyanidation is
    a. Inert to health b. Good to health C. Poisonous d. Indeterminate
A

C

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37
Q
  1. Common method of achieving solid-liquid separation where
    the general solids flow is opposite in direction to the
    general liquid flow.
    a. CCP b. CCD C. CCC d. CIT
A

b

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38
Q
  1. Method of extracting specific metal or mineral values from
    aqueous pregnant solution using natural or synthetic resins.
    a. lon Exchange b. Solvent extraction C. Carbon adsorption d.
    None of the above
A

a

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39
Q
  1. The formation of sponge/cement copper from acidic pregnant
    copper solution upon contact with scrap iron is
    example of
    a. Solvent extraction b. Precipitation C. lon Exchange d. Elec-
    trowinning
A

b

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40
Q
  1. In PASAR operations the product of electrolytic refining
    a. Blister Copper b. Anode Copper C. Black Copper d. Cathode
    copper
A

d

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41
Q
  1. A crystal structure with an atom at the center of the cubic cell.
    a. FCC b. HCP C. BCT d. BCC
A

d

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42
Q
  1. A crystal structure where half of an atom is located at the
    center of each face of the cubic cell.
    a. FCC b. BCT C. BCC d. HCP
A

a

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43
Q
  1. It is the crystal structure of ferrite iron
    a. FCC b. HCP C. BCC d. BCT
A

C

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44
Q
  1. It is the crystal structure of Austenite iron.
    a. HCP b. BCC C. BCT d. FCC
A

d

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45
Q
  1. A metal containing minute amount of other elements.
    a. Solid solution b. Alloy C. Black metal d. None of the above
A

b

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46
Q
  1. Brass is an alloy of copper and .
    a. Lead b. Iron C. Zinc d. Tin
A

C

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47
Q
  1. Bronze is an alloy of copper and .
    a. Tin b. Lead C. Zinc d. Iron
A

a

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48
Q
  1. The metal that is in liquid state at room temperature.
    a. Antimony b. Mercury C. Selenium d. Radon
A

b

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49
Q
  1. The property of metals which non-metals do not have.
    a. Porosity b. Hardness C. Malleability d. Durability
A

C

50
Q
  1. Ductility is the capacity of a material to undergo deformation
    without rupture under heavy load.
    a. Bending b. Shearing C. Compressive d. Gold
A

d

51
Q
  1. The capacity of a material to withstand bending or shearing
    load without fracture.
    a. Toughness b. Hardness C. Malleability d. Ductility
A

a

52
Q
  1. Malleability is the capacity of a material to withstand deforma-
    tion without rupture under load.
    a. Bending b. Compressive C. Tensile d. Shearing
A

b

53
Q
  1. In annealing, the metal or alloy is heated to a pre-determined
    temperature and time and allowed to cool
    a. In air b. In quenching bath C. very slowly d. moderately fast
A

C

54
Q
  1. This heat treatment cools the metal or alloy in still air after
    being heated at some predetermined conditions.
    a. Annealing b. Hardening C. Tempering d. Normalizing
A

d

55
Q
  1. Heat treatment process where the metal or alloy is cooled very
    fast after being heated.
    a. Hardening b. Tempering C. Annealing d. Normalizing
A

a

56
Q
  1. The hardest crystal form of iron
    a. Austenite b. Ferrite C. Martensite d. Cementite
A

C

57
Q
  1. It is an economic justification of ore dressing.
    a. Savings in Mining cost b. Savings in freight C. Savings in milling
    cost d. Savings in manpower
A

b

58
Q
  1. It is the size to which an ore must be reduced so that almost
    all of the valuable mineral is freed from attachment
    with the gangue materials.
    a. Screen size b. Separation size C. Grind size d. Liberation size
A

di

59
Q
  1. Sequence of ore particle size reduction from the run-of-mine
    size to the economic liberation size of the desired mineral.
    a. Classification b. Comminution C. Beneficiation d. Gravity sepa-
    ration
A

b

60
Q
  1. This type of crusher consists of two essentially planar crushing
    surfaces one swinging to and from the other stationary
    surface.
    a. Roll crusher b. Gyratory crusher C. Jaw crusher d. Impact
    crusher
A

C

61
Q
  1. Type of jaw crusher where the upper end of the movable
    crushing surface is the fulcrum end while the lower end swings
    to and from the stationary surface.
    a. Blake type b. Single toggle type C. Double Toggle type d. Dodge
    type
A

a

62
Q
  1. The stationary crushing surface of a gyratory crusher is in the
    form of
    a. Cylinder C. Frustrum of a cone
    b. Inverted frustrum of a cone d. Paraboloid
A

b

63
Q
  1. The gyrating crushing surface of a gyratory or cone crusher.
    a. Concave liner b. Bowl liner C. Mantle liner d. Spinner liner
A

C

64
Q
  1. The stationary crushing surface of a gyratory crusher.
    a. Spider b. Mantle Liner C. Bowl Liner d. Concave Liner
A

d

65
Q
  1. The stationary crushing surface of a cone crusher.
    a. Mantle liner b. Bowl liner C. Spider d. Concave liner
A

b

66
Q
  1. The largest diameter of a particle that could be taken in by a
    30 - 70 gyratory crusher.
    a. 70 inches b. 35 inches C. 30 inches d. 15 inches
A

C

67
Q
  1. Type of crusher commonly used for secondary and tertiary
    crushing.
    a. Cone crusher b. Jaw Crusher C. Impact Crusher d. Gyratory
    Crusher
A

a

68
Q
  1. It states that the work input in crushing or grinding is propor-
    tional to the new surface area produced on the particles.
    a. Fick’s Law b. Bond’s Law C. Kick’s Law d. Rittenger’s Law
A

di

69
Q
  1. It states that the work input in crushing or grinding is propor-
    tional to the reduction in diameter of the particles.
    a. Bonds Law b. Kick’s Law C. Rittenger’s Law d. Fick’s Law
A

b

70
Q
  1. It states that the work in crushing or grinding is inversely
    proportional to the square root of the new surface produced
    on the particles.
    a. Kick’s Law b. Rittenger’s Law C. Bond’s Law d. Fick’s Law
A

C

71
Q
  1. The energy in kw-hr necessary to reduce one short ton of ore
    material from theoritically infinite size to 80% passing 100 mesh.
    a. Abrasion Index b. Work Index C. Grindability d. Breakage Index
A

b

72
Q
  1. The ratio of feed size to the product size.
    a. Concentration ratio b. Circulating Load Ratio C. Stripping Ratio
    d. Reduction Ratio
A

d

73
Q
  1. At critical speed of mill, there is of the grinding media
    resulting to loss of grinding action.
    a. Centrifuging b. Cascading C. Cataracting d. Discharging
A

a

74
Q
  1. A grinding mill which utilizes solely large particles of the ore to
    effect grinding of the finer ones during which the large
    particles themselves are ground.
    a. Hammer mill b. Semi Autogenous mill C. Autogenous mill d. Verti
    mill
A

C

75
Q
  1. A grinding mill which utilizes some steel balls plus the large
    particles of the ore to effect grinding of the finer ones.
    a. Verti mill b. Semi Autogenous mill C. Hammer mill d. Autogenous
    mill
A

b

76
Q
  1. In hydrocyclone, size separation is effected primarily by the
    difference in acting on the coarse and fine
    particles as the slurry passes inside the cyclone.
    a. Frictional force b. Gravitational force C. Centrifugal force d.
    Tangential force
A

C

77
Q
  1. In spiral or rake classifier, size separation is attained mainly
    due to the difference in between the coarse
    and fine particles.
    a. Angular Velocity b. Settling Velocity C. Horizontal Acceleration
    d. Angular Acceleration
A

b

78
Q
  1. Surface characteristics of mineral particles properly coated
    with flotation collector.
    a. the same as uncoated b. Hydrophillic C. Aerophobic d. Hy-
    drophobic
A

d

79
Q
  1. The frother added to flotation pump the mineralized bubbles
    rising to the surface of the pulp.
    a. Stabilizes b. Expands C. Contracts d. Destabilizes
A

a

80
Q
  1. Xanthates with long hydrocarbon chains are collectors
    compared with those having shorter chains.
    a. Weaker b. of equal strength as C. stronger d. Selective
A

C

81
Q
  1. Sulfide flotation is normally undertaken at PH.
    a. Neutral b. Basic C. Acidic d. Acidic to Basic
A

b

82
Q
  1. Flotation process where all valuable minerals are floated from
    gangue for subsequent separation of each of the
    valuable minerals.
    a. Bulk Flotation b. Skin Flotation C. Differential Flotation d. Oil
    Flotation
A

a

83
Q
  1. Flotation process undertaken to separate a group of minerals
    from each other after the group have been floated
    from the gangue.
    a. Skin Flotation b. Bulk Flotation C. Differential Flotation d. Oil
    Flotation
A

C

84
Q
  1. Flotation reagent which prevents the collectors from coating
    the mineral surface.
    a. Activator b. Modifier C. Conditioner d. Depressant
A

d

85
Q
  1. Flotation reagent which enhances the collector coating on the
    mineral surface.
    a. Depressant b. Activator C. Modifier d. Secondary Collector
A

b

86
Q
  1. Strong collectors generally has selectivity compared with
    weaker ones.
    a. Lower b. the same C. Higher d. Indeterminate
A

a

87
Q
  1. Weak collectors generally has selectivity compared with
    weaker ones.
    a. the same b. Lower C. Higher d. Indeterminate
A

C

88
Q
  1. The angle between the surface of a mineral and the wall of an
    air bubble on the surface.
    a. Collection angle b. Attachment angle C. Bubble angle d. Contact
    angle
A

d

89
Q
  1. Collector - coated mineral surface has contact angle com-
    pared with uncoated one.
    a. High b. the same C. low d. indeterminate
A

a

90
Q
  1. Uncoated mineral surface has contact angle compared with
    collector coated one.
    a. the same b. low C. high d. indeterminate
A

b

91
Q
  1. One of the following is not a flotation collector.
    a. Sodium dithiophosphate C. Sodium phosphate
    b. Sodium isopropyl xanthate d. Thiocarbanilide
A

C

92
Q
  1. One of the following is not a frother.
    a. Pine oil b.Methyl alcohol C. Amyl alcohol d. Cresylic acid
A

b

93
Q
  1. When two minerals of different specific gravities are placed into
    a liquid with specific gravity intermediate between the
    two, of the two minerals could be made.
    a. Agglomeration b. Flocculation C. Flotation d. Separation
A

b

94
Q
  1. In a suspension of fine heavy particles such as magnetite,
    ferrosilicon, or galena in water, the apparent specific gravity
    of water is
    a. lowered b. increased C. not changed d. indeterminate
A

b

95
Q
  1. A step in fire assaying where the sample, thoroughly mixed
    with the necessary reagents and fluxes, is heated until all the
    gangue materials are slagged and all the precious metals are
    dissolved in molten lead that is formed.
    a. Scorification b. Fusion C. Parting d. Cupellation
A

b

96
Q
  1. A step in fire assaying where the dore after having been
    weighed flattened is treated with nitric acid.
    a. Parting C. Digesting
    b. Flattening d. Acidifying
A

a

97
Q
  1. A step in fire assaying where the lead button is carefully
    oxidized to rrecover the precious metals it had dissolved.
    a. Oxidation b. Fusion C. Cupellation d. Parting
A

C

98
Q
  1. It is the source of metallic lead in fire assaying.
    a. Niter b. Borax C. Argol d. Litharge
A

d

99
Q
  1. It is a powerful oxidizing agent in fire assaying.
    a. Litharge b. Argol C. Niter d. Flour
A

C

100
Q
  1. It is a common reducing agent in fire assaying.
    a. Niter b. Flour C. Bone - Ash d. Salt
A

b

101
Q
  1. The desired product of fusion in fire assaying.
    a. Dore b. Slag C. Precious metals d. Lead Button
A

d

102
Q
  1. The weight of metallic lead that will be produced from excess
    litharge by 1 gram of ore or any assaying reagent.
    a. Reducing power b. Assay power C. Oxidizing power d. Fluxing
    power
A

a

103
Q
  1. Commonly desired weight of lead button.
    a. 32 grams b. 24 grams C. 26 grams d. 28 grams
A

d

104
Q
  1. The weight of metallic lead that will be converted to PbO by
    1 gram of ore or any assaying reagent.
    a. Fluxing power b. Oxidizing power C. Assaying power d. Reduc-
    ing power
A

b

105
Q
  1. FeO, MnO, and CaO are slag forming constituents of ores
    and gangue materials.
    a. neutral b. acidic C. basic d. reducing
A

C

106
Q
  1. The viscosity of silicates with the percentage of silica
    above that needed for mono-silicate.
    a. is not affected b. increases C. decreases d. Indeterminate
A

b

107
Q
  1. Based on a short ton, 1 assay ton is equivalent to grams.
    a. 29.166 b. 32.666 C. 26.619 d. 26.366
A

a

108
Q
  1. The silicate degree is the ratio of in the acid to the base
    components of the slag.
    a. silica b. Silicon C. CaO d. Oxygen
A

d

109
Q
  1. It is a sub-silicate
    a. 2MO.3SiO2 b. 4MO.3SiO2 C. 4MO.SiO2 d. 2MO.SiO2
A

C

110
Q
  1. It is a sesqui-silicate.
    a. 4MO.3SiO2 b. 4MO.SiO2 C. 2MO.SiO2 d. 2MO.3SiO2
A

a

111
Q
  1. Determine the percentage solids by volume of a slurry with
    45% solids and 2.7% solids S.G.
    a. 26.3% b. 23.6% C. 25.2% d. 22.5%
A

b

112
Q
  1. Find the volume of 1.5 MT of slurry that is 40% solids by
    weight with 2.7 solids S.G.
    a. 1.5 cubic meter b. 1.8 cubic meter C. 1.1 cubic meter d.2.1 cubic
    meter
A

C

113
Q
  1. What is the percent recovery in a concentration operation
    where the values in heads = 0.31%, products = 28.5%
    and waste = 0.053%
    a. 81.3% b. 81.8% C. 88.1% d. 83.1%
A

d

114
Q
  1. The inside diameter (liner to liner) of a ball mill is 16.84 feet
    and is operating at 75% of the critical speed.
    Determine the rpm of the mill
    a. 12 rpm b. 14 rpm C. 16 rpm d. 18 rpm
A

b

115
Q
  1. A ball mill in close circuit with a hydroclone is fed at a rate of
    300 DMT per hour. The percentages of solids by weight
    of the cyclone feed, overflow, and underflow are 60%, 40% and
    75% respectively. Determine the circulating load ratio.
    a. 2.5 b. 2.0 C. 3.0 d. 3.5
A

a

116
Q
  1. In problem no. 115, Determine the tonnage of cyclone under-
    flow.
    a. 650 DMTPH b. 700 DMTPH C. 750 DMTPH d. 800 DMTPH
A

C

117
Q
  1. In problem no. 115, Determine the total tonnage passing
    through the mill.
    a. 1000 DMTPH b. 1050 DMTPH C. 1100 DMTPH d. 1150 DMTPH
A

b

118
Q
  1. The coarse fraction (oversize) in an industrial screening
    operation was sampled, tested in laboratory and found to still
    contain 12% of the fines (undersize). Determine the screen effi-
    ciency.
    a. 80% b. 82% C. 84% d. 88%
A

d

119
Q
  1. 100 DMTPH of material is being processed in an industrial
    screening operations with undersize tonnage at 71.2 DMTPH.
    Laboratory screening test indicated that the feed is 80% passing
    the screen size. Find the screen efficiency.
    a. 89% b. 92% C. 87% d. 85%
A

a

120
Q
  1. A certain concentrator is processing 0.30% copper ore at
    42,000 DMTPD producing copper concentrate and tailings
    assaying 28.5% Cu. And 0.05% Cu respectively. Determine the
    DMT copper produced per day.
    a. 100 DMTPD b. 105.2 DMTPD C. 110.3 DMTPD d. 115.6 DMTPD
A

b

121
Q
  1. In problem 120, Find the concentrate produced per day.
    a. 369 DMTPD b. 375 DMTPD C. 360 DMTPD d. 355 DMTPD
A

a

z Metallurgy (8 decks)

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